CCNA Exploration 1: Network Fundamentals Chapter 2 Exam

01. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.) determine pathways for data initiate data communications retime and retransmit data signals originate the flow of data manage data flows final termination point for data flow 02. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.) define the structure of layer specific PDUs dictate how to accomplish layer functions outline the functions necessary for communications between layers limit the need for hardware compatibility require layer dependent encapsulations eliminate standardization among vendors 03. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.) tracks delay between end devices enables consistent network paths for communication allows modification of the original data before transmission identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device 04. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation? supports error detection ensures ordered arrival of data provides delivery to correct destination identifies the devices on the local network assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection 05. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.) Network Transport Physical Data Link Session 06. What is a PDU? corruption of a frame during transmission data reassembled at the destination retransmitted packets due to lost communication a layer specific encapsulation

07. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network? manage data flows originate data flow retime and retransmit data signals determine pathways for data 08.

Refer to the exhibit. Cell A at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with IP Phone 1 at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device Cell A? the destination device an end device an intermediate device a media device 09.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.) Network A WAN Network B WAN

 Network C LAN Network B MAN Network C WAN Network A LAN 10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.) A LAN is usually in a single geographical area. The network is administered by a single organization. The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection. The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider. A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization. Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP). 11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic? piping PDU streaming multiplexing encapsulation 12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment? to identify devices on the local media to identify the hops between source and destination to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices 13. What device is considered an intermediary device? file server IP phone laptop printer switch 14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B? source end transfer intermediary 15.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown? WAN MAN LAN WLAN 16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets? physical data link

 network transport 17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header? the destination device on the local media the destination host address the bits that will be transferred over the media the source application or process creating the data 18.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices? A, C, D B, E, G, H C, D, G, H, I, J D, E, F, H, I, J E, F, H, I, J 19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer? No address is added. The logical address is added. The physical address is added. The process port number is added. 20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer? path determination and packet switching data presentation reliability, flow control, and error detection network media control the division of segments into packets 21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer? physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport

application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application

Chapter 3
1. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.) ARP DNS PPP SMTP POP ICMP 2. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet? not widely available does not support encryption consumes more network bandwidth does not support authentication 3. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.) ASP FTP HTML HTTP HTTPS IP 4. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks? DHCP DNS SMB SMTP Telnet 5. What is the role of the OSI application layer? provides segmentation of data provides encryption and conversion of data provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices 6. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.) use daemons initiate data exchanges are repositories of data

may upload data to servers listen for requests from servers 7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.) acts as both a client and server within the same communication. requires centralized account administration. hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files. can be used in client-server networks. requires a direct physical connection between devices. centralized authentication is required. 8. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address? HTTP SSH FQDN DNS Telnet SMTP 9. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services? ceases all connections to the service denies multiple connections to a single daemon suspends the current connection to allow the new connection uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service 10. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.) routes email to the MDA on other servers receives email from the clients MUA receives email via the POP3 protocol passes email to the MDA for final delivery uses SMTP to route email between servers delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol 11. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.) applications dialogs requests services syntax 12. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server? HTML HTTP FTP Telnet

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.) User accounts are centralized. Security is difficult to enforce. Specialized operating system software is required. File permissions are controlled by a single computer. A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server. 14. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.) MDA IMAP MTA POP SMTP MUA 15.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5? 80 1261 15533 3912 65520 16. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network? physical session network presentation application

transport 17. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.) scalable one way data flow decentralized resources centralized user accounts resource sharing without a dedicated server 18. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.) DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client POP delivers email from the client to the server email server SMTP supports file sharing Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access 19. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS? temporarily holds resolved entries used by the server to resolve names sent by the client to during a query passes authentication information between the server and client

CCNA 4 Chapter 4 2011 V4.0 Answers 100% 1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.) Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk. Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security. Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked. Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses. Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy. 2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.) Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.

Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not. Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans. A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters. Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection. 3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring? reconnaissance access DoS worm virus Trojan horse 4.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco statement in the configuration? to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic to enable SSH encryption of traffic to create an IPsec tunnel 5. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.) It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources. It communicates consensus and defines roles. It is developed by end users. It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested. It defines how to handle security incidents. It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel? securing monitoring testing improvement reconnaissance 7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.) provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers describe how the firewall must be configured document the resources to be protected identify the security objectives of the organization identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router 8. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.) By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255. DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers. Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network. The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance. The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers. 9.

Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router? SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command. SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues. SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services. SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as fix it to apply the suggested security changes. 10. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening email messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from? DoS DDoS virus

access reconnaissance 11. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.) It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled. It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services. It automatically configures the router to work with SDM. It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network. It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features. 12. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)? SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers. SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC. SDM should be used for complex router configurations. SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software. 13. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.) The mz in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS. The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run. The software is version 12.1, 4th revision. The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size. The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform. 14.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.) The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum. The TFTP client on the router is corrupt. The router cannot connect to the TFTP server. The TFTP server software has not been started. There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software. 15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.) ROM monitor boot ROM Cisco IOS direct connection through the console port network connection through the Ethernet port network connection through the serial port 16. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1? The password is sent in plain text. A Telnet session is established with R1.

The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password. The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files. 17.

ccna 4 chapter 4

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem? The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly. The authentication method is not configured correctly. The HTTP server is not configured correctly. The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly. 18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router? Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration. Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration. Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON. Reconfigure the router using setup mode. 19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits? Schedule antivirus scans. Schedule antispyware scans . Schedule training for all users. Schedule operating systems updates. 20. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.) Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command. Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.

Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command. Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command. Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command. 21.

Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router? The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router. The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols. The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities. The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities. 22. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.) The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings. Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention. Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control. Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices. Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

CCNA 4 Chapter 5 2011 V4.0 Answers 100% 1. The following commands were entered on a router: Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24 Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed. The access list statements are misconfigured. All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks. No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network. 2. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL? The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first. Both ACLs are applied to the interface. The network administrator receives an error. Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface. 3. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two) Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99. Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement. Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses. Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL. Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction. 4. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL? Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot. Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction. Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an email or instant message. In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port. 5.

CCNA Exploration 4 Accessing the WAN Chapter 5 exam

Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY? TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.

TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted. Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted. Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted. 6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.) An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement. A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched. A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement. A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default. Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list. Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made. 7.

ccna 4 chapter 5 exam answers

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination? Web traffic does not use port 80 by default. The access list is applied in the wrong direction. The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3. The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50. 8. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL? the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.) The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored. The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored. The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked. The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked. The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked. 10. Where should a standard access control list be placed? close to the source close to the destination on an Ethernet port on a serial port 11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic? by destination UDP port by protocol type by source IP address by source UDP port by destination IP address 12. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.) Only named ACLs allow comments. Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL. Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs. Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs. More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface. 13. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown? Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3 Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes. Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes. Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1. 14.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured two access lists on R1. The list inbound on the serial interface is named Serial and the list inbound on the LAN interface is named LAN. What affect will be produced by the access control lists? PC1 will be able to telnet to PC3. R3 will not be able to communicate with PC1 and PC3. PC3 cannot telnet to R3 and cannot communicate with PC1. PC1 will not be able to telnet to R3 and PC3 will not be able to communicate with PC1. 15. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.) access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20 access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21 access-list 101 permit ip any any FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied. All traffic is implicitly denied.

FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied. Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied. Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted. 16. Which statement about standard ACLs is true? Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named. They should be placed as close to the destination as possible. They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port. When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface. 17.

ccna 4 chapter 5 exam answers

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1? It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network. It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24. It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24. It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface. 18. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.) packet size protocol suite source address destination address source router interface destination router interface

19.

ccna 4 chapter 5

Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13? It is allowed because of the implicit deny any. It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL. It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16. It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13. 20. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router? blocked in and out of all interfaces blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces permitted in and out of all interfaces blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces 21.

ccna 4 chapter 5 answers

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

ISP Fa0/0 outbound R2 S0/0/1 inbound R3 Fa0/0 inbound R3 S0/0/1 outbound 22.

Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem? Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1. Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1. Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL. Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network. 23. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate? dynamic port-based reflexive time-based

24. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task? 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255 25. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.) extended ACL reflexive ACL console logging authentication Telnet connectivity user account with a privilege level of 15

CCNA Exploration 1: Network Fundamentals Chapter 6 Exam

Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will implement the IP addressing scheme for the LANs shown in the graphic? /24 /16 /20 /27 /25

 /28 02. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.) 172.16.4.127 /26 172.16.4.155 /26 172.16.4.193 /26 172.16.4.95 /27 172.16.4.159 /27 172.16.4.207 /27 03. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.) NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet. Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space. Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router. Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space. IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself. 04. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask? binary adding hexadecimal anding binary division binary multiplication binary ANDing 05.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem? The host subnet mask is incorrect. The default gateway is a network address. The default gateway is a broadcast address. The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host. 06. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?

 255.255.0.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.254.0 255.255.248.0 07. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.) 172.168.33.1 10.35.66.70 192.168.99.5 172.18.88.90 192.33.55.89 172.35.16.5 08. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address? This is a useable host address. This is a broadcast address. This is a network address. This is not a valid address. 09. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong? 172.16.0.0 172.16.192.0 172.16.192.128 172.16.192.160 172.16.192.168 172.16.192.176 10.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup servers properties to allow connectivity to the network? IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39 IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33

 IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33 IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31 IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1 11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.) LAN workstations servers network printers routers remote workstations laptops 12. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.) larger address space faster routing protocols data types and classes of service authentication and encryption improved host naming conventions same addressing scheme as IPv4 13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6? security header format simplification expanded addressing capabilities addressing simplification 14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.) The router will discard the packet. The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host. The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host. The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host. The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host. 15.

Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC? The IP settings are not properly configured on the host. Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host. There is a problem at the physical or data link layer. The default gateway device is not operating. A router on the path to the destination host has gone down. 16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

128 64 48 32

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem? The router has an incorrect gateway. Host A has an overlapping network address. Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured. Host A has an incorrect subnet mask. NAT is required for the host A network. 18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.) identifies an individual device is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain is altered as packet is forwarded varies in length is used to forward packets uses flat addressing 19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses? an internet a network an octet a radix 20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary? 10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000 10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000 10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011 10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010 10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000 21.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks? 255.255.255.248 255.255.255.224 255.255.255.192 255.255.255.240 255.255.255.128 255.255.255.252

CCNA 4 Chapter 7 2011 V4.0 Answers 100% CCNA 4 Chapter 7 V4.0 Answers 2011 updated 1.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect? ip nat pool statement

access-list statement ip nat inside is on the wrong interface interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address 2.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router? defines which addresses can be translated defines which addresses are allowed into the router defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool defines which addresses are allowed out of the router 3. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID? 32 48 64 128 4.

ccna 4 chapter 7 answers

Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology? 0 1 2 3 4 5.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.) 10.0.0.125 179.9.8.95 179.9.8.98 179.9.8.101 179.9.8.112 6.

ccna 4 chapter 7

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem? The DHCP server service is not enabled. The inside interface for DCHP is not defined. The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface. The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients. All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool. 7. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks? 8 16 80 128 8. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng? Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP. Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces. Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces. Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip namecommand.

9.

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Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration? It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID. It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface. It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface. The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface. 10. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT? PAT uses the word overload at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address. Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses. Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required. PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations. 11.

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Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.) dynamic NAT NAT with overloading

open port 20 open port 21 open port 23 NAT with port forwarding 12.

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Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers? The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator. The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses. The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment. The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment. 13.

ccna 4 chapter 7 answers

Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration? A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080. The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3. A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80. A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1. 14.

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Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned or renewed by this DHCP server? 1 6 7 8 9 15. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.) It saves public IP addresses. It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network. It increases routing performance. It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier. It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated. 16.

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Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid

destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server? 10.1.1.1 172.30.20.2 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.255 17.

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Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.) Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated. Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated. Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address. A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation. External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks. 18. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network? NAT overload static NAT dynamic NAT PAT 19.

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Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address? 10.1.1.2 192.168.0.100 209.165.20.25 any address in the 10.1.1.0 network 20. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions? The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician. Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data. The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until space is available. Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred. 21. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem? Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6. Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island. Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology. Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

CCNA Exploration 1 Chapter 8 Exam Answers

1. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference? the metal braiding in the shielding the reflective cladding around core the twisting of the wires in the cable the insulating material in the outer jacket

2. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs? the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

3. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable? backbone cable horizontal cable patch cable work area cable

4. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable? Data will be forwarded to the wrong node. Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss. An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.

The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

5. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication? Presentation Transport Data Link Physical

6. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.) It is not affected by EMI or RFI. Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil. It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data. It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps. It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

7. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable? generally uses LEDs as the light source relatively larger core with multiple light paths less expensive than multimode generally uses lasers as the light source

8. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals? electrical optical wireless

acoustic

9. XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.) coax Cat4 UTP Cat5 UTP Cat6 UTP STP

10. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device? light injector OTDR TDR multimeter

11. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

12. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice? more host mobility lower security risks reduced susceptibility to interference

less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

13.

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B? coax cable rollover cable crossover cable straight-through cable

14. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network? create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media provide physical addressing to the devices determine the path packets take through the network control data access to the media

15. When is a straight-through cable used in a network? when connecting a router through the console port when connecting one switch to another switch

when connecting a host to a switch when connecting a router to another router

16. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable? BNC RJ-11 RJ-45 Type F

17. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.) goodput frequency amplitude throughput crosstalk bandwidth

18. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling? coax fiber Cat5e UTP Cat6 UTP STP

CCNA 1 Chapter 9 V4.0 Answers 100% 2011 1.

In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do? Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment. Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn. Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap. Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame. 2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.) Network layer Transport layer Physical layer Application layer Session layer Data-link layer 3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.) the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.) addressing error detection frame delimiting port identification path determination IP address resolution 5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired? * The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data. The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames. The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission. 6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.) recognizes streams of bits identifies the network layer protocol makes the connection with the upper layers identifies the source and destination applications insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting 7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies? MAC sublayer Physical layer Logical Link Control sublayer Network layer 8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame? A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link. A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer. A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors. * A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission. 9.

Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain? preamble and stop frame network layer packet physical addressing FCS and SoF 10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.) Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet. Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway. A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained. Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host. A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained. A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained. 11. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method? Collisions can decrease network performance. It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols. Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance. CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies. 12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model? application physical transport internet data link network access 13. What is the primary purpose of ARP? translate URLs to IP addresses

resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices convert internal private addresses to external public addresses 14.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link? No collisions will occur on this link. Only one of the devices can transmit at a time. The switch will have priority for transmitting data. The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur. 15.

Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.) A packet with the destination IP of Router_B. A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.

A packet with the destination IP of Router_A. A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A. A packet with the destination IP of Server_B. A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B. 16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.) dynamically assigned copied into RAM during system startup layer 3 address contains a 3 byte OUI 6 bytes long 32 bits long 17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.) reduction in cross-talk minimizing of collisions support for UTP cabling division into broadcast domains increase in the throughput of communications 18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.) coaxial thicknet copper UTP coaxial thinnet optical fiber shielded twisted pair 19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below. 85 90 BA A1 B3 1C 20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data? the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address

the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first those that began transmitting at the same time 21. Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown? route PRINT arp a arp d netstat telnet