T est is part of Rau’s IAS T est series for Preliminary Exam 2020

CSAT (PAPER–II) Test Code

FULL LENGTH TEST – 4 TS20E1061

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet)
provided. Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

3. All items carry equal marks.

4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions
contained therein.

5. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

T his test is part of Rau’s IAS T est series for Preliminary Exam 2020
Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Read the Q.2) The discovery of which of the following
following two passages and answer the items that follow would call into question the evident
each passage. Your answers to these items should be conclusion?
based on the passages only. (a) An asteroid 100 meters in diameter
rotating at a rate of once per week
Passage-1 (b) An asteroid 150 meters in diameter
When asteroids collide, some collisions cause an rotating at a rate of 20 times per hour
asteroid to spin faster; others slow it down. If (c) An asteroid 250 meters in diameter
asteroids are all monoliths—single rocks— rotating at a rate of once per week
undergoing random collisions, a graph of their (d) An asteroid 500 meters in diameter
rotation rates should show a bell-shaped rotating at a rate of once per hour
distribution with statistical “tails” of very fast and
very slow rotators. If asteroids are rubble piles, Q.3) According to the passage, which of the
however, the tail representing the very fast rotators following is a prediction that is based on the
would be missing, because any loose aggregate strength of the gravitational attraction of
spinning faster than once every few hours small asteroids?
(depending on the asteroid’s bulk density) would (a) Small asteroids will be few in number.
fly apart. Researchers have discovered that all but (b) Small asteroids will be monoliths.
five observed asteroids obey a strict limit on rate of (c) Small asteroids will collide with other
rotation. The exceptions are all smaller than 200 asteroids very rarely.
meters in diameter, with an abrupt cutoff for (d) Most small asteroids will have very
asteroids larger than that. fast rotation rates.
The evident conclusion—that asteroids larger than
200 meters across are multicomponent structures or Q.4) The author of the passage mentions "escape
rubble piles—agrees with recent computer velocity" in order to help explain which of
modeling of collisions, which also finds a transition the following?
at that diameter. A collision can blast a large (a) The tendency for asteroids to become
asteroid to bits, but after the collision those bits will smaller rather than larger over time
usually move slower than their mutual escape (b) The speed with which impact
velocity. Over several hours, gravity will fragments reassemble when they do
reassemble all but the fastest pieces into a rubble not escape an asteroid's gravitational
pile. Because collisions among asteroids are attraction after a collision.
relatively frequent, most large bodies have already (c) The frequency with which collisions
suffered this fate. Conversely, most small asteroids among asteroids occur.
should be monolithic, because impact fragments (d) The tendency for large asteroids to
easily escape their feeble gravity. persist after collisions.

Q.1) The passage implies which of the following Passage-2

about the five asteroids? People who do regular volunteer work tend to live
(a) Their rotation rates are approximately longer, on average, than people who do not. It has
the same. been found that ‘doing good.’ a category that
(b) They have undergone approximately certainly includes volunteer work, releases
the same number of collisions. endorphins, the brain's natural opiates, which
induce in people a feeling of well-being. Clearly,
(c) They are monoliths.
there is a connection: Regular releases of
(d) They are composed of fragments that endorphins must in some way help to extend
have escaped the gravity of larger people's lives.
asteroids.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 1
Q.5) Which of the following, it true most Q.7) If he decides to pick up those exclusive pairs
seriously undermine the force of the of adjacent boys whose numbers, if totaled,
evidence given as support the hypothesis turn out to be exactly 12, how many such
that endorphins promote longevity? pairs would be available?
(a) People who do regular volunteer (a) Nil
work are only somewhat more likely
(b) Six
than others to characterize the work
(c) Five
they do for as a ‘doing good.
(d) Four
(b) Although extremely high levels of
endorphins could be harmful to
health, such levels are never reached Q.8) If the two mixtures of milk and water
as a result of the natural release of having milk concentrations as 40% and 75%
endorphins. are mixed in the ratio of 3 : 4, what is the
(c) There are many people who have milk % in the resultant mixture?
done some volunteer work but who (a) 70
do not do such work regularly. (b) 65
(d) People tend not to become involved (c) 60
in regular volunteer work unless they
(d) 55
are healthy and energetic to begin
with.
Q.9) During a charity event, every student in a
class contributes as many rupees as the
Q.6) A printing machine gets overheated after
using for a certain time period, so it has to number of students in that class. With the
be turned off for 10 minutes to cool down additional contribution of Rs. 6 by one
before using again. One day it was used student only, the total collection is Rs. 1030.
from 10:00 am to 3:26 pm. Machine is used Then how many students are there in the
for six periods of equal duration during this class?
interval. After every period, a rest of 10 (a) 23
minutes is given to the machine. The exact (b) 32
duration of each period is :
(c) 47
(a) 42 minutes
(d) 64
(b) 44 minutes
(c) 46 minutes
Q.10) A scientist is studying the correlation
(d) 48 minutes
between the size of a dog and its age. She
finds that 65 percent of the dogs in a sample
Directions for the following 1 (one) item: 25 boy were less than 3 years in age. The number of
scouts bearing names A to Y are standing in one dogs at least 3 years in age that weigh at
straight row. The teacher wanted to select various least 40 pounds is twice the number of dogs
teams from among them. He gave them random
less than 3 years in age less than 40 pounds.
number from 3 to 8 as shown below.
If the number of dogs at least 3 years in age
A B C D E F G H I J K L M that weigh at least 40 pounds is six times the
4 4 6 3 5 4 3 3 5 6 7 5 9 number of dogs at least 3 years in age that
weigh less than 40 pounds, and there were
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y 300 dogs in her sample in total, how many
of the dogs were less than 3 years in age and
3 9 7 9 4 9 7 7 4 5 6 6
weighed at least 40 pounds?

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 2
 (a) 15 of tea in the mixture is 2: 3, find the cost
(b) 45 price of each kind of tea in Rs/kg.
(c) 60 1 2
(a) 7 &14
(d) 150 7 7
1 2
(b) 6 &12
Q.11) The monthly incomes of A and B are in the 5 9
ratio 4 : 5, their expenses are in the ratio 5 : 1 2
(c) 4 & 24
6. If A saves Rs.25 per month and B saves 7 5
Rs.50 per month, what are their respective 1 1
(d) 7 &14
incomes ? 6 3
(a) 200, 250
(b) 400, 500 Direction for the following 3 (three) items:
(c) 600, 750 Consider the given information and answer the three
items that follow.
(d) 800, 1000
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are traveling in three different
vehicles. There are at least two passenger in each
Q.12) Networks of blood vessels in bats’ wings vehicle – Maruti, Santro, Opel – and only one of
serve only to disperse heat generated in them is a male. There are two engineers, two
flight. This heat is generatedonly because doctors and three teachers among them.
bats flap their wings. Thus paleontologists’ (i) C is lady doctor and she does not travel
recent discovery that the winged dinosaur with the pair of sisters, A and F
Sandactylushad similar networks of blood (ii) B, a male engineer, travels with only G, a
vessels in the skin of its wings provides teacher in Maruti
evidence for the hypothesis that Sandactylus (iii) D is a male doctor
flew by flapping its wings, not just by
(iv) Two persons belonging to the same
gliding. profession do not travel in the same vehicle.
In the passage, the author develops the (v) A is not an engineer and travels in Santro.
argument by
(a) forming the hypothesis that best Q.14) What is F’s profession?
explains several apparently conflicting
(a) Engineer
pieces of evidence
(b) Doctor
(b) reinterpreting evidence that had been
(c) Teacher
used to support an earlier theory
(d) Data inadequate
(c) using an analogy with a known
phenomenon to draw a conclusion
Q.15) In which vehicle does C travel?
about an unknown phenomenon
(a) Maruti
(d) speculating about how structures
observed in present-day creatures (b) Santro
might have developed from (c) Opel
similarstructures in creatures now (d) Data inadequate
extinct
Q.16) Which of the following represents the three
Q.13) A tea merchant buys two kinds of tea, the teachers?
price of the first kind being twice that of the (a) GDC
second. He sells the mixture at Rs.14/kg (b) GEA
there by making a profit of 40%. If the ratio (c) GBF
of the quantities of the first to second kind (d) Data inadequate

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 3
Q.17) An article is made up of 4 components P, Q, follows each passage. Your answers to these items should
R and S, contributing in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 : 6 be based on the passages only.
respectively to its manufacturing cost. If
there is a change of + 10%, —20%, — 30% Passage-1
and + 40% in the cost-contribution of P, Q, R A provincial government plans to raise the fossil
and S respectively, then by what percentage fuel tax to give people an incentive to drive less,
would the cost of manufacturing the article reducing traffic congestion in the long term.
change? However, skeptics point out that most people in the
(a) 8% province live in areas where cars are the only viable
(b) 0% transportation to jobs and stores and therefore
(c) 5.33% cannot greatly change their driving habits in
(d) 11.7% response to higher fossil fuel prices.

Q.18) X and Y are two stations 600 km apart. A Q.21) In light of the skeptics' objection, which of
train starts from X and moves towards Y at the following, if true, would most logically
the speed of 25 km/hr. Another train starts support the prediction that the
from Y at the same time and moves towards government's plan will achieve its goal of
X, at a speed of 35 km/hr. How far from X reducing traffic congestion?
will they cross each other? (a) The revenue from the tax will be used
(a) 200 km to make public transportation a viable
(b) 250 km means of transportation to jobs and
stores for far more people.
(c) 350 km
(b) The tax will encourage many residents
(d) 400 km
to switch to more fuel-efficient cars,
reducing air pollution and other
Q.19) A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle problems.
having length 30 cm and width 5 cm. This is
(c) Because fossil fuel has been
used to construct a closed cube. The side of
underpriced for decades, the province
the cube is:
has many neighborhoods where cars
(a) 3 cm are the only viable means of
(b) 4 cm transportation
(c) 5 cm (d) Most residents who cannot greatly
(d) 6 cm change their driving habits could
compensate for high fossil fuel prices
Q.20) Five people are running in a race. The first by reducing other expenses.
three to finish win gift certificates. How
many different groups of people could win Passage-2
the gift certificate? One way of determining whether a job candidate is
(a) 5 telling the truth has to do with his or her
(b) 10 willingness to divulge negative information during
(c) 60 the interview process. If, for example, a candidate
admits to being fired from a previous job, having a
(d) 120
less-than-stellar attendance record, or possessing a
below-average typing speed, that may be
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read interpreted as a sign that she is telling the truth,
the following eight passages and answer the item that particularly regarding any favourable information
she divulges about herself or her work history.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 4
Q.22) The above statements support which of the Passage-4
following as a conclusion? When a person chooses a digital camera, it is
(a) Candidates who do not reveal imperative to consider each model’s design,
negative aspects of their personalities options, and limitations. For the serious
or work histories are not being photographer interested in superior image quality,
truthful. it is best to choose a camera that has fixed-length or
(b) Self-deprecation is ultimately self- inter-changeable lenses. On the other hand, those
serving. who have neither the need nor the means to tote
bulky equipment may be satisfied with the
(c) Interviewees often use reverse
compactness and portability of cameras that have
psychology to gain the trust of
folded-optics systems.
influential people.
(d) Unfavourable character traits can
Q.24) Which of the following can reasonably be
prove beneficial in some situations.
concluded from the above statements?
(a) Cameras with fixed-length lenses are
Passage-3 too bulky for anyone but the
Through “pay-per-click” advertising, also known as professional photographer.
PPC, an Internet advertisement appears in (b) Serious photographers are concerned
designated sections of a results page when a person primarily with superior image quality.
enters certain keywords into a search engine. While
(c) Despite claims to the contrary,
many Web users ignore such results, given that
traditional film cameras are still the
those listings look different from the non-sponsored best choice for professionals.
results listed in the main body of the page, people
(d) Cameras with folded optics systems
who do see PPC ads will be pre-qualified sales
generally do not produce images as
prospects, given that such ads are specific to the
high in quality as those with
keywords entered by the person seeing them. PPC
interchangeable lenses.
offers advertisers control over their budgets, since
only ads for the highest bidders on specific
Passage-5
keywords appear at the top of a search results page.
Although manned spaceflight to Mars is not out of
the question, it does raise some important
Q.23) Which of the following conclusions is most
considerations. Extended time in space means
supported by the statements above?
extended time in weightlessness, which is linked to
(a) Most Web users do not consider paid bone loss, muscle atrophy, cardiovascular problems
search engine results legitimate. and other serious health issues. For example,
(b) The visibility of some kinds of Internet astronauts who spent 28 days on Skylab, a space
advertising is inversely proportional station that orbited the Earth back in the 1970s,
to the revenue spent on such required approximately 10 days to return to their
advertising. normal, pre-mission condition. It bears noting that a
(c) Companies that do not offer products one-way trip to Mars alone would take
or services online will not derive a approximately eight months, using current
significant benefit from PPC technology.
advertising.
(d) PPC advertisers may be forced to Q.25) If the above statements are true, which of
choose between spending more than the following must also be true?
they intended or missing potential (a) As long as astronauts receive proper
sales opportunities. training, they will be at reduced risk of

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 5
 health complications arising from time consistently a particular product or service for less
spent in space. than one’s costs. Further complicating this scenario
(b) Scientists have not made progress on is that many startup companies must compete with
the development of viable, artificial- established businesses that can offer lower prices for
gravity systems. the same products and services.
(c) Travel to and from the Moon does not
entail significant enough risk to Q.27) If the above statements are true, then it must
prevent such a mission from be true that
occurring. (a) Price competition is a more common
(d) Travel to Mars could adversely affect way to drive out market rivals than is
the health of those undertaking such a a battle over product superiority.
journey. (b) Recently-formed companies have
higher operating costs than do
Passage-6 established companies.
Although they cost up to three times as much as (c) Established businesses can drive
standard engine oils, synthetic motor oils resist competitors out of a given market by
viscosity breakdown, that is, a degradation of their offering lower prices than their
lubricating and engine-protection abilities, longer competitors can.
than do standard motor oils. They also maintain (d) Length of time serving a particular
maximum lubrication over a wider variety market may correlate with capital or
temperatures than their conventional counter parts. cost advantages.
That allows for up to 66% longer durations between
oil changes, as well as significantly more protection Passage-8
at engine start-up, when most engine wear is
In the context of finance, speculation involves
believed to occur.
assuming the risk of loss in return for the uncertain
prospect of financial gain. It is only in the absence of
Q.26) If the above statements are true, then which risk that one may call a particular financial strategy
of following must also be true? an investment. Therefore, as long as a monetary
(a) Cars that use synthetic motor oils will transaction involves potential capital loss
last longer than cars that use standard ________________ .
motor oil.
(b) The benefits of certain kinds of motor Q.28) The above statements are structured to lead
oil may compensate for their added which of the following as a conclusion?
cost. (a) that investment cannot be considered
(c) Drivers who use synthetic motor oils sound
care more about their cars than do (b) it should not be attempted without
drivers who use conventional oils. consulting a financial services
(d) Blended motor oils, which fuse professional.
standard and synthetic oils, offer (c) it is not an investment but an act of
considerably less engine protection speculation.
than does purely synthetic motor oil.
(d) it cannot be considered an instance of
speculation.
Passage-7
Access to capital is only one of several factors Q.29) The door of Sumit's house faces the East.
necessary to business success. Proper pricing From the back side of his house, he walk
structure is equally essential, so as to furnish
straight 50 metres, then turns to the right

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 6
 and walks 50 metres again. Finally he turns middle step, how many steps does the
towards left and stops after walking 25 ladder have?
metres. Now, Sumit is in which direction (a) 16
from the starting point ? (b) 17
(a) South-east (c) 18
(b) North –east (d) 19
(c) South-west
(d) North-west Direction for the following 3 (three) items:
Consider the given information and answer the three
items that follow.
Q.30) A park is in the form of a rectangle having
length L meters and breadth B meters (L (i) A group of eight fiends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and
H, play one game or the other. Three of them
and B are variable). If L + B = 60 meters,
play cricket and table tennis each and two of
then the area of the park will not exceed
them play football. Each one of them has a
which one of the following values?
different height.
(a) 3600 sq m
(ii) The tallest does not play football and the
(b) 900 sq m shortest does not play cricket.
(c) 755 sq m (iii) F is taller than A and D but shorter than H
(d) 540 sq m and B. E who does not play cricket, is taller
than B and is second to the tallest. G is shorter
Q.31) The average age of a family of 5 members is than D but taller than A.
20 years, The age of the youngest member is (iv) H, who is fourth from the top, play table
10 years. Find the average age of the family tennis with D.
just before the birth of the youngest (v) G does not play either cricket or football. B
member? does not play football.
(a) 10
(b) 11.5 Q.34) Who is the tallest?

(c) 12.5 (a) B

(d) 13 (b) H
(c) C
(d) Data inadequate
Q.32) The daily salaries of 2 people are in the ratio
of 4 :7. If both of them receive an increase of
Rs.25 each in their daily salary, the ratio Q.35) Who is the shortest?
changes to 3: 5. Find their daily salaries (a) G
(before the increase). (b) D
(a) Rs.120 &Rs. 210 (c) A
(b) Rs.80 &Rs.140 (d) Data inadequate
(c) Rs.180 &Rs.300
(d) Rs.200 &Rs.350 Q.36) Which of the following pairs of friends play
football?
(a) EF
Q.33) A person is standing on the second step
(b) EA
from the top of a ladder. If he has to climb
down 7 more steps to reach exactly the (c) HF
(d) Data inadequate

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 7
Q.37) AB is a vertical electrical pole with A being project in another 6 days. Who is more
the point where the base of the pole touches efficient out of the two and by how much?
the ground. Due to a cyclone, the pole has (a) Smita is thrice as efficient as Anita.
been broken at C which is at a height of 8 (b) Smita is twice as efficient as Anita.
meters, broken part is partially attached to
(c) Anita is four times as efficient as
the vertical portion of the trunk at C. If the
Smita.
end of the broken part B touches the ground
(d) Anita is as efficient as Smita.
at D which is at a distance of 6 meters from
A, then the original height of the electrical
pole is: Q.41) A military code writes SYSTEM as SSEMTY
(a) 16 m and NEARER as NAERRE. Using the same
code, FRACTIONcan be written as:
(b) 18 m
(a) CARFTION
(c) 20 m
(b) FRACNOIT
(d) 24 m
(c) NOITCARF
(d) FATONICR
Q.38) A professor left his college and proceeded
towards North for 4 km, after seeing a
signboard from point ‘O’. On reaching the Q.42) If a number is divisible by 12, then which of
place he saw an another signboard and the following is necessarily true?
proceeded 4 km to his right to the point ‘P’, (a) The number leaves a remainder of 3
only to find that the signboard was on right when divided by 4.
of ‘P’. From ‘P’ he proceeded right to reach (b) The number does not leave a
that place 4 km away. In which direction he remainder when divided by 4.
has to go to reach the place from where he (c) The number is divisible by all
started? multiples of 12.
(a) East (d) The square of number leaves a
(b) West remainder of 6 when divided by 6.
(c) North
(d) South Q.43) How many numbers are there between 200
and 400 which either begin with or end with
Q.39) A cube has all its faces painted with 3 but do not begin and end with 3?
different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes (a) 97
of equal sizes such that the side of the small (b) 100
cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number (c) 110
of small cubes with only two of the sides (d) 134
painted is:
(a) 24
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read
(b) 12 the following five passages and answer the items that
(c) 9 follow each passage. Your answers to these items should
(d) 6 be based on the passages only.

Q.40) Anita starts working on a crucial project and Passage-1

works on it for 12 days and completes 40% Returning to school at an advanced age is not
of the project. After some days, Smita joins unusual. Many people, including seniors and
the project and together they complete the retirees who have enjoyed full lives and careers,
find that studying and thinking critically come just

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 8
as readily to them as those skills did decades prior. limited to the verbal, visual-spatial, and logical
Furthermore, since people in their 50s and beyond mathematical tasks measured by traditional 10 tests.
do not need to “find themselves,” they are better Rather, Gardner’s theory posits that humans
able to focus and commit to their coursework than manifest at least eight separate intelligences,
many of their younger peers. including not only the aforementioned three but
also interpersonal, intrapersonal, bodily-kinesthetic,
Q.44) The author of the above statements suggests musical, and naturalistic intelligence. Support for
his theory comes, in part, from the observation that
(a) Young people have more need to
when particular parts of the human brain are
discover where their interests truly lie
compromised, isolated and specific deficits in
than do their older counterparts.
cognitive function occur while other mental
(b) Additional schooling offers new career
capabilities remain unaffected.
opportunities for people regardless of
age.
Q.46) Which of the following may correctly be
(c) Older university students have less
inferred from the above statements?
hectic schedules than do younger
students. (a) Verbal intelligence does not correlate
with logical / mathematical ability.
(d) Book learning is not a suitable
alternative college study for seniors (b) A brain-altering substance or injury
and retirees. may affect one’s ability to speak
coherently while simultaneously
impairing that person’s ability to
Passage-2
playa violin concerto.
Investment newsletters can be a handy guide to
(c) Visual-spatial performance is guided
stock market profits or a waste of cash. Either
primarily by brain regions distinct
scenario depends not only on the quality of
from those used to solve crossword
newsletter you choose but also on whether you
puzzles.
willing to put in the time and effort required to
(d) 10 tests are not useful measures of
follow its advice properly.
human intellectual ability.

Q.45) From the above statements, it can be

Passage-4
inferred that
A major study has found that an experimental drug
(a) Investment newsletters may not
developed to reduce unhealthy amounts of low-
garner profits for people who heed
density lipoprotein, or “bad cholesterol:’ should not
their recommendations properly.
only be approved but should also be prescribed to
(b) Following a newsletter’s advice
healthy individuals. In fact, the study was cut short
properly may result in steady, long-
after just eighteen months when it was found that
term profits.
levels of HDL cholesterol, otherwise known as high-
(c) The better the quality of a particular density lipoprotein or “good cholesterol,” were
investment newsletter, the higher its boosted in all participants, whether or not they had
subscription price is likely to be. high levels of LDL, or lowdensity lipoprotein. While
(d) Some investment newsletters have it is true that the study was funded by the drug’s
subscription costs that are beyond the manufacturer, there is little reason to believe that
reach of many investors. the results were manipulated, given that the study
was quite large in scope and sample size.
Passage-3
According to Howard Gardner’s Theory of Multiple Q.47) Which among the following is the most
Intelligences, human intellectual ability is not logical corollary to the above passage?

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 9
 (a) Small-scale study results are more plant anti-herbivore chemistry (plants' chemical
difficult to influence than are large- defences against attack by herbivores such as
scale study results. insects).
(b) Drug companies that sponsor research
are reluctant to release results that Q.48) According to the passage, which of the
contradict their expectations. following is true of plant antiherbivore
(c) Cholesterol drugs benefit healthy chemistry?
individuals as much as they do those (a) Changes in a plant's antiherbivore
with cardiovascular issues. chemistry may affect insect feeding
(d) Natural remedies are usually behavior.
discouraged by physicians in favour (b) A plant's repellent effects often
of drug treatments. involve interactions between gum and
resin.
Passage-5 (c) A plant's antiherbivore responses
Resin is a plant secretion that hardens when assist in combating bacterial
exposed to air; fossilized resin is called amber. infections.
Although Pliny in the first century recognized that (d) Plant antiherbivore chemistry plays
amber was produced from “marrow discharged by only a minor role in the coevolution of
trees,” amber has been widely misunderstood to be plants and insects.
a semiprecious gem and has even been described in
mineralogy textbooks. Confusion also persists Q.49) Of the following topics, which would be
surrounding the term “resin,” which was defined most likely to be studied within the
before rigorous chemical analyses were available. discipline of chemical ecology as it is
Resin is often confused with gum, a substance described in the passage?
produced in plants in response to bacterial
(a) Seeds that become attached to certain
infections, and with sap, an aqueous solution
insects, which in turn carry away the
transported through certain plant tissues. Resin
seeds and aid in the reproductive
differs from both gum and sap in that scientists
cycle of the plant species in question.
have not determined a physiological function for
(b) An insect species that feeds on weeds
resin.
detrimental to crop health and yield,
In the 1950s, entomologists posited that resin may
and how these insects might aid in
function to repel or attract insects. Fraenkel
agricultural production.
conjectured that plants initially produced resin in
(c) The effects of deforestation on the life
nonspecific chemical responses to insect attack and
cycles of subtropical carnivorous
that, over time, plants evolved that produced resin
plants and the insect species on which
with specific repellent effects. But some insect
the plants feed.
species, he noted, might overcome the repellent
effects, actually becoming attracted to the resin. This (d) Insects that develop a tolerance for
might induce the insects to feed on those plants or feeding on a plant that had previously
aid them in securing a breeding site. Later been toxic to them, and the resultant
researchers suggested that resin mediates the changes within that plant species.
omplex interdependence, or “coevolution,” of
plants and insects over time. Such ideas led to the Q.50) The author refers to "bacterial infections"
development of the specialized discipline of most likely in order to
chemical ecology, which is concerned with the role (a) describe the physiological function
of plant chemicals in interactions with other that gum performs in plants.
organisms and with the evolution and ecology of

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 10
 (b) demonstrate that sap is not the only Q.54) In a class of 50 students, where the number
substance that is transported through of girls is equal to that of boys, Anil, a boy,
a plant's tissues. is ranked 21 from the top. If there are 12
(c) explain how modern chemical analysis girls ahead of Anil, the number of boys in
has been used to clarify the function of rank after him is:
resin. (a) 18
(d) show that gum cannot serve as an (b) 16
effective defense against herbivores. (c) 14
(d) 12
Q.51) The author of the passage refers to Pliny
most probably in order to Q.55) A bird flies at an average speed of x km/hr
(a) give an example of how the nature of and covers a distance of 192 km in y hours.
amber has been misunderstood in the Another bird, starting at the same time as
past the first bird, travels the same distance at a
(b) show that confusion about amber has speed of (x + 4) km/hr and reaches the
long been more pervasive than destination in (y – 4) hours. The speed with
confusion about resin which the slower bird flies is
(c) make note of the first known reference (a) 15 km/hr.
to amber as a semiprecious gem (b) 12 km/hr.
(d) point out an exception to a (c) 16 km/hr.
generalization about the history of (d) Indeterminate
people's understanding of amber

Q.56) A can do 25% of a work in 25 days, B can do

Q.52) Five people are running in a race. The first 1/4 of the work in 40 days, C can do 50% of
one to finish wins a gold medal, the second the work in 50 days and D can do 1/3 of the
wins a silver medal, and the third wins a work in 30 days. Who will complete the
bronze medal. How many different work first?
arrangements of medal winners, in order
(a) A
from first to third, are possible?
(b) B
(a) 5
(c) C
(b) 10
(d) D
(c) 60
(d) 120
Q.57) The average monthly income of a person in
a certain family of 8 is Rs. 12,000. What will
Q.53) A pump can be used to fill or empty a tank. be the average monthly income of a person
The capacity of the tank is 3600 m3. The in the same family if the income of one
emptying capacity of the pump is 10 person decreased by Rs. 96,000 per year ?
m3/min higher than the filling capacity of
(a) Rs. 8,000
the pump. What is the emptying capacity of
(b) Rs. 9,000
the pump if the pump needs 12 more
minutes to fill the tank than to empty it? (c) Rs. 11,000

(a) 50 m3/min (d) Rs. 11,500

(b) 60 m3/min
(c) 70 m3/min Q.58) Five cities – A, B, C, D and E are as follows:
C is to the north of A. D is to the south of B.
(d) 65 m3/min
E is to the east of C and A is to the west of B.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 11
 If the shortest distances between D and C, Passage-1
and D and E are the same. Towards which The argument for “monetizing”—or putting a
direction is B located with respect to E? monetary value on—ecosystem functions may be
(a) North-east stated thus: Concern about the depletion of natural
(b) South resources is widespread, but this concern, in the
(c) South-west absence of an economic argument for conservation,
has not translated into significant conservational
(d) South-east
progress. Some critics blame this impasse on
environmentalists, whom they believe fail to
Q.59) The game of chuck-a-luck is played at address the economic issues of environmental
carnivals. Its rules are as follows: You pick a degradation.
number from 1 to 6 and the operator rolls
Conservation can appear unprofitable when
three dice. If the number you picked comes
compared with the economic returns derived from
up on all three dice, the operator pays you
converting natural assets (pristine coastlines, for
Rs.3; if it comes up on two dice, you are paid
example) into explicitly commercial ones (such as
Rs.2; and if it comes up on just one die, you
resort hotels). But according to David Pearce, that
are paid Rs. l. Only if the number you
illusion stems from the fact that “services” provided
picked does not come up at all, you pay the
by ecological systems are not traded on the
operator Rs. l. The probability that you will
commodities market, and thus have no readily
win money playing in this game is
quantifiable value. To remedy this, says Pearce, one
(a) 0.52 has to show that all ecosystems have economic
(b) 0.753 value—indeed, that all ecological services are
(c) 0.42 economic services. Tourists visiting wildlife
(d) 0.33 preserves, for example, create jobs and generate
income for national economies; undisturbed forests
and wetlands regulate water runoff and act as
Q.60) The household expenditure pattern of Mrs.
water-purifying systems, saving millions of dollars
Khanna is such that during the first half of
worth of damage to property and to marine
the year, total expenditure shows a 20%
ecosystems. In Gretchen Daily’s view, monetization,
increase over the previous half yearly
while unpopular with many environmentalists,
expenditure value, while the second half of
reflects the dominant role that economic
the year always witnesses a 10% decrease
considerations play in human behaviour, and the
over the previous half yearly sales value. If
this trend has continued since 2014, then in expression of economic value in a common currency
helps inform environmental decision-making
the year 2017, the expenditure in the second
half of 2017 is processes.

(a) Greater than the expenditure in first

half of 2016. Q.61) Information in the passage suggests that
David Pearce would most readily endorse
(b) Less than the expenditure in second
which of the following statements
half of 2015.
concerning monetization?
(c) More than the increase in value in first
half of 2016. (a) Monetization represents a strategy
that is attractive to both
(d) None of these
environmentalists and their critics.
(b) Monetization is an untested strategy,
Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the
but it is increasingly being embraced
following two passages and answer the items that follow
by environmentalists.
each passage. Your answers to these items should be
based on the passages only.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 12
 (c) Monetization should at present be (c) They have sometimes been charged
restricted to ecological services and with failing to use a particular strategy
should only gradually be extended to in their pursuit of conservational
such commercial endeavors as tourism goals.
and recreation. (d) They have been in the forefront of
(d) Monetization can serve as a means of publicizing the extent of worldwide
representing persuasively the value of environmental degradation.
environmental conservation.
Passage-2
Q.62) Which of the following most clearly Historians remain divided over the role of banks in
represents an example of an "ecological facilitating economic growth in the United States in
the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries.
service" as that term is used in line 20?
Some scholars contend that banks played a minor
(a) A resort hotel located in an area noted
role in the nation’s growing economy. Financial
for its natural beauty.
institutions, they argue, appeared only after the
(b) A water-purifying plant that economy had begun to develop, and once
supplements natural processes with organized, followed conservative lending practices,
nontoxic chemicals. providing aid to established commercial enterprises
(c) A wildlife preserve that draws many but shunning those, such as manufacturing and
international travelers. transportation projects, that were more uncertain
(d) A nonprofit firm that specializes in and capital-intensive (i.e., requiring greater
restoring previously damaged expenditures in the form of capital than in labor).
ecosystems. A growing number of historians argue, in contrast,
that banks were crucial in transforming the early
national economy. When state legislatures began
Q.63) According to the passage, Daily sees granting more bank charters in the 1790s and early
monetization as an indication of which of 1800s, the supply of credit rose accordingly. Unlike
the following? the earliest banks, which had primarily provided
(a) The centrality of economic interests to short-term loans to well-connected merchants, the
people's actions banks of the early nineteenth century issued credit
(b) The reluctance of the critics of widely. As Paul Gilje asserts, the expansion and
environmentalism to acknowledge the democratization of credit in the early nineteenth
importance of conservation century became the driving force of the American
economy, as banks began furnishing large amounts
(c) The inability of financial interests and
of capital to transportation and industrial
ecological interests to reach a common
enterprises. The exception, such historians argue,
ideological ground
was in the South; here, the overwhelmingly
(d) The inevitability of environmental agrarian natureof the economy generated outright
degradation opposition to banks, which were seen as
monopolistic institutions controlled by an elite
Q.64) Which of the following can be inferred from group of planters.
the passage concerning the
environmentalists mentioned in line 8? Q.65) The primary purpose of the passage is to
(a) They are organized in opposition to (a) compare the economic role played by
the generation of income produced by southern banks with the economic role
the sale of ecological services. played by banks in the rest of the
(b) They are fewer in number but better United States during the late
organized and better connected to the eighteenth and early nineteenth
media than their opponents. centuries.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 13
 (b) reevaluate a conventional (b) If people do not know for certain
interpretation of the role played by whether their actions are legal, then
banks in the American economy they might not feel secure.
during the late eighteenth and early (c) If people know for certain whether
nineteenth centuries. their actions are legal, they can feel
(c) present different interpretations of the secure.
role played by banks in the American (d) People can feel secure if they are
economy during the late eighteenth governed by laws that are not vague.
and early nineteenth centuries.
(d) analyze how the increasing number of Q.68) Consider the following statements:
banks in the late eighteenth and early
1. One proven way for a product’s
nineteenth centuries affected the
marketing to succeed is for that
American economy.
product to be the first in a particular
category.
Q.66) The passage suggests that the scholars 2. The product becomes the top product
mentioned in line 4 would argue that the because it defines the category-so
reason banks tended not to fund much so that people may refer to the
manufacturing and transportation projects particular item by its brand name
in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth rather than by its category, be that
centuries was that facial tissue or photocopies.
(a) these projects, being well established 3. As such, a brand’s success is due
and well capitalized, did not need primarily to its being first in the
substantial long-term financing from market rather than via its company’s
banks. marketing abilities.
(b) these projects entailed a level of risk Which one of the following conclusions may
that was too great for banks' be true in the light of the above facts?
conservative lending practices.
(a) Corporations stand to gain more value
(c) banks preferred to invest in other, from brand names than from the
more speculative projects that offered quality of their products.
the potential for higher returns.
(b) No amount of marketing expertise can
(d) bank managers believed that these supersede the importance of product
projects would be unlikely to ranking.
contribute significantly to economic
(c) Marketers should focus more on
growth in the new country.
creating new product categories than
on creating new products.
Q.67) Vague laws set vague limits on people’s (d) Products that are the first of their kind
freedom, which makes it impossible for have, in at least some instances, sold
them to know for certain whether their better over time than rival products.
actions are legal. Thus, under vague laws
people cannot feel secure.
Q.69) A solo dice game is played in the following
The conclusion follows logically if which
manner: one each turn, a normal pair of dice
one of the following is assumed?
is rolled. The score is calculated by taking
(a) People can feel secure only if they the product, rather than the sum, of the two
know for certain whether their actions numbers shown on the dice. On a particular
are legal. game, the score for the second roll is five
more than the score for the first; the score

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 14
 for the third roll is six less than that of the Read the following passage and answer the
second; the score for the fourth roll is eleven questions based on the passage.
more than that of the third; and the score for “Religion is not the outcome of the weakness of
the fifth roll is eight less than that of the human nature; religion is not here because we fear a
fourth. What was the score for the first and tyrant; religion is love, unfolding, expanding, and
fifth throws? growing. Take the watch – within the little case is
(a) 9, 15 machinery and a spring. The spring, when wound
(b) 15, 12 up, tries to regain its natural state. You are like the
(c) 15, 9 spring in the watch, and it is not necessary that all
(d) 10, 12 watches have the same kind of a spring, and it is not
necessary that we all have the same religion. And
Q.70) Consider the following statement: why should we quarrel? If we all had the same
"We shall go neither dancing nor for ideas the world would be dead. External motion we
swimming". call action; internal motion is human thought. The
stone falls to the earth. You say it is caused by the
Which of the following, if true, would falsify
this claim? law of gravitation. The horse draws the cart and
God draws the horse. That is the law of motion.
(a) We do not go dancing and swimming
Whirlpools show the strength of the current; stop
(b) Dancing and swimming boost the
the current and stagnation ensues. Motion is life.
immune system
We must have unity and variety. The rose would
(c) We do not go swimming and dancing
smell as sweet by any other name, and it does not
(d) We go either swimming or dancing
matter what your religion is called.

Q.71) 97 baseball teams participate in an annual

Q.73) In religion, love is not ____________
state tournament. The champion is chosen
for this tournament by the usual elimination (a) unfolded
scheme. That is, the 97 teams are divided (b) expanded
into pairs, and the two teams of each pair (c) concretized
play against each other. The loser of each (d) grown
pair is eliminated, and the remaining teams
are paired up again, etc. How many games
Q.74) You have three closed boxes of fruit. One
must be played to determine a champion?
contains just apples, one contains just
(a) 194
oranges, and one contains a mixture of both.
(b) 193
Each box is labelled -- one says "apples," one
(c) 103 says "oranges," and one says "apples and
(d) 96 oranges." However, it is known that none of
the boxes are labelled correctly. What is the
Q.72) A boy has 4 different boxes and 5 different minimum number of boxes you have to
marbles. In how many ways can he place open up to label the all three boxes
the marbles in the boxes such that each box correctly?
has at least one marble? (a) 1 box
(a) 560 (b) 2 boxes
(b) 240
(c) 2 boxes with 50% chances of error in 2
(c) 420 boxes
(d) 36 (d) All 3 boxes

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 15
Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Q.78) Find the minimum possible number of
Consider the following information and answer the cigarettes that Marco must pick up from the
four items that follow: bag in order to be sure of having picked at
least one cigarette of Marlboro.
Directions for the following question: Answer the (a) 81 (b) 91
questions on the basis of the information given (c) 101 (d) 111
below. Marco, the chain smoker, emptied some
packets of each of the five cigarette brands Directions for the following question: At a certain
Marlboro, Rothmans, Camel, Lucky Strikes and restaurant, there are 4 lights arranged side by side
Dunhill in a large bag. The following bar graph and numbered consecutively, left to right from 1 to
provides information about the number of cigarettes 4. Lights are used to signal waiters when orders are
per packet in each of the mentioned brands and the ready. On certain shift there are five waiters A, B, C,
number of packets of each brand Marco emptied in D and E.
the bag.
I. To signal A, all 4 lights are switched on.
20 18 II. To signal B, lights 1 and 2 are switched on.
18
16 III. To signal C, only light 1 is switched on.
14 12
12 10 IV. To signal D, lights 2, 3 and 4 are switched
10 8 on.
8 6
6
3 3
4 V. To signal E, lights 3 and 4 are switched on.
4 2
2
1
0

Marlboro Rothmans Camel Lucky Strikes Dunhill

Q.79) If light 3 is switched on and light 1 is
Number of Cigarettes per packet switched off, then waiter signalled is
Number of packets emptied into the bag I. B
II. D
Q.75) Find the minimum possible number of III. E
cigarettes that Marco must pick up from the Select the correct answer using the code
bag in order to be sure of having picked at given below:
least one from each packet. (a) I only
(a) 55 (b) 103 (b) II only
(c) 108 (d) 115 (c) I and II only
(d) II and III only
Q.76) Find the minimum possible number of
cigarettes that Marco must pick up from the Q.80) Your sock drawer contains ten pairs of
bag in order to be sure of having picked at white socks and ten pairs of black socks. If
least one of each brand. you're only allowed to take one sock from
(a) 55 (b) 103 the drawer at a time and you can't see what
(c) 108 (d) 115 colour sock you're taking until you've taken
it, how many socks do you have to take
Q.77) Find the minimum possible number of before you're guaranteed to have at least
cigarettes that Marco must pick up from the one matching pair?
bag in order to be sure of having picked all (a) 21
the cigarettes of at least one brand. (b) 11
(a) 55 (b) 103 (c) 7
(c) 108 (d) 116 (d) 3

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 16
Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST CODE: TS20E1061

CSAT (PAPER – II)

Full Length Test-4

 ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
Full Length Test-4
CSAT Paper-II (TS20E1061)

Q.1) Answer: (c) Q.2) Answer: (d)

Explanation: Explanation:
In the passage, five observed asteroids, refers The evident conclusion is that asteroids with
to the five asteroids whose rotation rates are diameters greater than 200 meters are
exceptions to the strict limit on the rate of multicomponent structures or rubble piles. To
rotation found in all other observed asteroids. call that conclusion into question, an
These five asteroids all have diameters smaller observation would have to suggest that
than 200 meters. The passage indicates that if asteroids larger than 200 meters across are not
such multicomponent structures. According to
asteroids were all monoliths—that is, single
the first paragraph, rubble piles cannot be fast
rocks—then their rotation rates would form a
rotators' spinning faster than once every few
bell curve when graphed, but if asteroids were
hours would make them fly apart.
piles of rubble, the tail of the bell curve
A Nothing in the passage suggests that the
indicating very fast rotation rates would be
behaviour of an asteroid 100 meters in
missing. Among asteroids larger than 200
diameter is relevant to a conclusion about the
meters, this tail is missing, and only the five
behaviour of asteroids greater than 200 meters
asteroids described as exceptions have
in diameter.
rotation rates falling at the very high end of
B Nothing in the passage suggests that the
the bell curve.
behaviour of an asteroid 150 meters in
A All that the passage states about the rotation
diameter would have any effect on a
rates of these five asteroids is that they do not conclusion about the constitution of asteroids
obey a strict limit. The passage does not rule with diameters greater than 200 meters.
out that their rates of rotation are significantly
C An asteroid 250 meters in diameter rotating at
different from one another. a rate of once per week would be rotating at a
B According to the passage, frequent collisions slow enough rate to hold together a pile of
occur among asteroids. But the passage does rubble. Thus, this observation would be
not suggest that asteroids that are of similar entirely consistent with the conclusion about
sizes, or that have particularly high rotation asteroids larger than 200 meters in diameter.
rates, will be similar in terms of the number of D Correct. Assuming that an asteroid composed
collisions that they have undergone to reach of a pile of rubble is of a great enough density,
those distinctive states. a rotation rate greater than one revolution
C Correct. The second paragraph states that every few hours would make it fly apart. So a
most small asteroids should be monolithic, 500-meter asteroid rotating at a rate of once
and the five observed asteroids are all smaller per hour—that is, faster than the crucial
than 200 meters in diameter. speed—would fly apart if it were not a
monolith. The conclusion states that all
D The five asteroids are most likely not
asteroids larger than 200 meters are
composed of fragments because, as the
multicomponent structures (that is, are not
passage states, small asteroids should be
monoliths), so the discovery of a 500-meter
monoliths.
asteroid rotating at a rate of once an hour
The correct answer is C. would call into question that conclusion.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 1
Q.3) Answer: (b) B That the bits of asteroid move slower than
Explanation: their escape velocity helps explain why the
Regarding small asteroids, the second fragments reassemble, but it does not help
paragraph states that they have feeble gravity. explain the speed with which they reassemble.
Any fragments from impacts would escape C According to the author, asteroid collisions
that gravity, and thus, the passage states, the occur frequently, but the escape velocity of the
small asteroids should be monolithic. resulting fragments does not help to explain
A Small asteroids could be few in number, but that frequency.
the passage does not offer such a prediction. D Correct. After a collision, it is the asteroid
B Correct. This prediction is offered in the fragments' failure to reach escape velocity that
second paragraph, based on the fact that small allows the fragments' gravitational pull to
asteroids do not have strong gravitational reassemble them into a rubble pile.
attraction. Any impact fragments will easily
escape the weak gravitational attraction of the Q.5) Answer: (d)
small asteroids. Explanation:
C The passage discusses large asteroids People who volunteer regularly live longer on
collisions in more detail than small asteroid average than people who do not. Doing good
collisions, but it provides no basis for work, including volunteer work, releases
predicting how often large and small asteroids endorphins, which induce a feeling of well-
will, comparatively, be involved in such being. The causal argument is that
collisions. volunteering leads to longer life. The question
D The first paragraph indicates that the rotation asked is "What additional findings would
rates of small asteroids can exceed the upper suggest that the cited evidence does not
limit on the rotation rates of large asteroids, indicate that endorphins increase longevity?"
but it does not indicate that most small The argument implicitly assumes that the
asteroids have rotation rates that exceed this reason regular volunteers tend to live longer is
upper limit. that volunteering lengthens their lives. It
further assumes that no factor that is
Q.4) Answer: (d) correlated with volunteering, other than the
Explanation: endorphin release, would plausibly explain
how volunteering could have this effect.
This question asks about the purpose of the
Findings that cast doubt on either of these
author's use of the phrase escape velocity in
assumptions would undermine the connection
the second paragraph. The author is
between the cited evidence and the conclusion
discussing what occurs after an asteroid
that endorphins promote longevity.
collision, in which a large asteroid might be
blasted to bits. The bits, according to the A Volunteering might greatly boost volunteers’
author, will move slower than their mutual endorphin levels even if the work the
escape velocity—that is, the speed at which volunteers do for a living is no different from
they would have to move to get away from other people’s work.
each other and not reassemble, under the B Even if unnaturally high endorphin levels
influence of gravity, into a rubble pile. could harm health, the levels attainable
A The author is emphasizing the asteroid bits through volunteer work may promote health.
that do not escape rather than those that do. C The argument is about an observed
Asteroids may become smaller over time, but correlation in a certain group of people (those
the fact that most bits move slower than their who regularly do volunteer work). How many
escape velocity would not help to explain this people are outside that group (i.e., do not
shrinkage. regularly do volunteer work) is independent

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 2
 of the question of what causes the observed Q.10) Answer: (d)
correlation. Even if some people volunteer Explanation:
only occasionally, volunteering regularly may To solve this question, set up a group grid
promote longevity by causing regular releases
<3 3+ Total
of endorphins.
<40
D Correct. This suggests that the initially better 40+
health of people who choose to volunteer Total 300
could fully explain the cited correlation
between volunteering and longevity. This For the number of dogs less than 40 pounds
option goes against the reverse causal that are less than 3 years in age, use the
variable x. This means that the number of
assumption of the argument.
dogs at least 40 pounds and at least 3 years
in age is 2x. Now, since the number of dogs
Q.6) Answer: (c) at least 3 years in age and at least 40 pounds
Explanation: is 6 times the number that are at least 3 years
in age and less than 40 pounds, the number
10:00 am to 3:26 pm is 5 hours and 26 minutes at least 3 years and less than 40 pounds is
of time. During this time the machine was 1
used for six periods of equal duration and five x . Next, you know that 65 percent of the
3
breaks of 10 minutes. So machine was turned dogs in the sample were less than 3 years in
on for 5h26m - 50 minutes = 4h36m. Dividing age, which is 195 dogs. Now, if you use the
4h36m by 6 periods gives us 46 minutes. So variable y for the number of dogs that are
exact duration of each period is 46 minutes. less than 3 years in age and at least 40
pounds, you can fill out the group grid.
<3 3+ Total
Q.7) Answer: (d)
<40 X 1 4
Explanation: x x
3 3
There are 4 such adjacent pairs of boys
40+ y 2x 2x + y
whose number totals 12. These are KL, MN,
Total 195 105 300
NO and XY.

This means that

Q.8) Answer: (c)
4
Explanation: x  2x  y  300
3
The milk % in the resultant mixture 10
x  y  300
40  3  75  4 120  300 420 3
=  
34 7 7 But you also know that
= 60%. x + y = 195
y = 195–x
Q.9) Answer: (b) Combining these two equations gives you
10
Explanation: x  195 – x   300
3
If we subtract Rs 6 from Rs. 1030, we will be
10
left with Rs 1024. This 1024 is equal to x – x   300 – 195
3
number of students multiplied by the equal
7
contribution by each student. Or square root x  105
3
of 1024 will be equal to number of students
x = 45
in class.
y =195 – 45 = 150
1024  32 Now you can fill in all the values in the
So number of students in class = 32 group grid

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 3
 <3 3+ Total no evidence is discussed in relation to
<40 45 15 60 any earlier theory.
C Correct. This statement properly
40+ 150 90 240
identifies how the argument compares
Total 195 105 300 the wings of bats and of Sandactylus in
order to draw a conclusion about how
Watch for trap answers. Choice (A) is the the dinosaur flew.
number of dogs that are at least than 3 years D The argument is not about how the
in age and weigh less than 40 pounds. structures in the bats developed from
Choice (B) is the number of dogs that are the structures in the dinosaurs, but
less than 3 years in age and weigh less than rather about how Sandactylus flew.
40 pounds. The correct answer is (c).

Q.11) Answer: (b) 400, 500

Explanation: Q.13) Answer: (a)
Let A’s income = 4x  A’s expenses = 4x – Explanation:
25 14
The cost price of mixture   Rs.10 / kg.
 40 
Let B’s income = 5x  B’s expenses = 5x – 50 1  
 100 
It is given that ratio of A’s expense to B’s
expense is 5 : 6 Let the cost price of the first and second
kind of tea be Rs.2x/kg and Rs.x per kg.
 4 x  25  5  24x – 150 = 25x – 250  x Applying the rule of alligarion,
5 x  50 6
= 100.
= A’s income = 4x = 400 and B’s income = 5x
= 500.

Q.12) Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Argument Evaluation
3 2 x  10
Situation: Therefore,  
The network of blood vessels in bats’ wings 2 10  x
is compared with a similar structure in the – 3x = 4x – 20
wings of the dinosaur Sandactylus to  7x = 50
explain how the dinosaur flew. 1
Reasoning: x =7 .
7
How is this argument developed? The author
So, the cost price of each kind of tea = Rs.
first shows that a physical characteristic of
bats’ wings is directly related to their style 1 2
7 / kg and Rs. 14 / kg
of flight. The author then argues that the 7 7
similar structure found in the wings of
Sandactylus is evidence that the dinosaur EXPLANATION OF QS.14 TO 16:
had a style of flight similar to that of bats. There are three vehicles Maruti, Santro & Opel
The structure of this argument is a There are two engineers, two doctors and three
comparison, or analogy, between a known teachers among them
phenomenon (bats) and an unknown one
So,
(Sandactylus).
A The evidence of the blood vessels in the 2 Engineers.
wings does not conflict with other 2 Doctors
evidence. 3 Teachers
B The evidence of the blood vessels in the • C is lady doctor and does not travel with the
wings is used to support only one pair of sisters, A & F.
theory—that Sandactylus flew by C  Doc
flapping its wings as well as by gliding;

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 4
• B is a male engineer and travels only with G Q.19) Answer: (c) 5 cm
a teacher in Maruti, so G must be female Explanation:
also
G  Teacher
Area of the piece of tin is 30 × 5 = 150 is used
B  Engg.
to make six faces of cube.
B G  Maruti 150
So, area of each face =  25
• D is male doctor 6
D  Doc As area of each square face of cube = square
• A is not an engineer and travels in Santro so of side, So side of each face = square root of
A F  Santro
25 = 5 cm
Obviously C is traveling in Opel.
C and D are doctors and can’t travel in same vehicle
so D must travel in Santro. Now we will get Q.20) Answer: (b) 10
following table. Explanation:
Vehicle Person Profession In this race order doesn't matter. The first
B Engg. three people to finish all get the same gift
Maruti
G Tea. certificate, so it doesn't matter whether the
A Tea. race places Joe, Sue and Sam, or Sam, Sue
Santro F Engg. and Joe. In fact, the second outcome is a
D Doc. duplicate of the first, because regardless of
C Doc. the order, the group of people is still Joe,
Opel
E Tea.
Sue and Sam.
The first part of a combination problem is
the same as a permutation problem. When
Q.14) Answer: (a)
the first gift certificate is awarded there are 5
possible runners who could win it. Once the
Q.15) Answer: (c)
first gift certificate has been awarded, there
are 4 runners available to win the second
Q.16) Answer: (b)
gift certificate, and so on.
Now because order doesn't matter, you
Q.17) Answer: (c)
need to get rid of the duplicate outcomes.
Explanation:
You do this by dividing by the number of
Assume the initial contributions of P, Q, R
ways to arrange the items chosen. An easy
and S to be Rs.20, Rs.30, Rs.40 and Rs.60
way to do this is to simply divide by the
respectively. Thus, the initial cost of
factorial of the number of spots you have.
manufacturing the article = Rs.150. The
change in cost = +2 - 6 - 12 + 24 = +8. Here you have three spots (there are 3
runners in the race), so divide by 3!. Thus,
8
% change   100  5.33%. the number of different groups of people
150
who could win the gift certificates is
5´ 4´ 3
Q.18) Answer (b) = 10
3´ 2 ´ 1
Explanation:
00 The correct answer is choice (B).
Time of meeting  10 hours. Distance If you are arranging items from the same
25  35
from X distance travelled in 10 hours by the source and order doesn't matter, count
train starting from X = 25 × 10 = 250 km. down and divide.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 5
Q.21) Answer: (a) passage. Choice (d), however, is directly in
Explanation: line with the author’s reasoning.
The situation is that a provincial
government plans to raise the fossil fuel tax Q.23) Answer: (d)
in order to reduce traffic congestion by Explanation:
discouraging people from driving. But The passage states that PPC listings are
sceptics point out that most people in the ranked by the size of advertisers’ bids,
province have no viable form of suggesting that a larger budget allows one
transportation other than driving. The businesses’ ad to gain precedence over those
question asked is "What would suggest that of its competitors. Eliminate choice (a), since
raising the fossil fuel tax will reduce traffic it’s too strong; you don’t know whether
congestion even though most people in the most Web users mistrust PPC ads. Cross out
province have no viable form of transportation choice (b) as well, since it goes in the
other than driving?"The sceptics point out opposite direction of the author’s logic.
that since most people in the province have Choice (c) is outside the scope of the
no way to reach jobs or stores except by car, passage. That leaves you with choice (d),
they will not be able to reduce their driving which would have to be true, given the
much even if the fossil fuel tax increases. author’s statements about ads with higher
Any evidence that raising the fossil fuel tax bids outranking other ads.
would reduce traffic congestion despite this
obstacle would help to support the plan in
Q.24) Answer: (d)
light of the sceptics' objection.
Explanation:
A Correct. If the tax will fund these public
transit improvements, then far more The statements separate the need for image
people will have a viable means of quality from portability. Choice (a) goes
transportation other than driving, beyond the information given, so eliminate
undermining the basis of the sceptics' it. Meanwhile choice (b) is too strong,
objection. because you can’t know for sure whether
B People switching to fuel-efficient cars serious photographers have image quality
would not reduce traffic congestion.
as their main concern; perhaps ruggedness
C This essentially only tends to support
or durability concerns them even more.
the sceptics' objection. Unless the plan
somehow helps to alleviate the necessity Eliminate choice (c) as well, since, like
of driving (by, for example, making choice (a), it’s beyond the information given.
alternative transportation available), the However, choice (d) is clearly supported by
information provided gives no reason to the second and third sentences, so keep it.
suppose that the higher costs would The best choice is choice (d).
significantly reduce traffic congestion.
D If residents cannot greatly change their
driving habits, then the tax will not Q.25) Answer: (d)
reduce traffic congestion. Explanation:
The passage discusses the negative
Q.22) Answer: (d) consequences of extended periods in
Explanation: weightlessness and then points out that
travel to Mars would require a highly-
The passage discusses how willingness to
extended period. Eliminate choice (a), since
reveal negative information suggests that a
the passage doesn’t give you enough
job candidate is being truthful. That said,
information to know whether proper
choice (a) is too strong, while choices (b),
training would help. Meanwhile, choice (b)
and (c), are all beyond the scope of the is too strong; it’s possible that there has been

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 6
 some progress on the artificial-gravity front. Thus, the movements of Sumit are as shown
Choice (c), like choice (a), is beyond the in Fig. (A to B, B, to C, C to D). Clearly,
scope of the passage, so eliminate that one, Sumit's final position is D which is to the
too. Choice (d) is most supported by the North-west of the starting point A.
statements and is the best answer.

Q.26) Answer: (b)

Explanation:
The statements discuss the advantages of
synthetic over standard motor oils. Choice
(a) goes beyond the information given.
Choice (b), however, has the conservative
wording you like to see in an inference
answer, so keep that one. Get rid of choice
(c), since you can’t generalize about drivers
who use certain kinds of oil. Eliminate
choice (d), since it is beyond the scope of the
statements.

Q.27) Answer: (d)

Explanation:
The statements discuss key factors to
business success, but they don’t provide
enough information to know whether choice
(a) is true. You can also eliminate choice (b),
since you can’t know that based only on the
statements. Eliminate choice (c) because it’s
too extreme. Choice (d), on the other hand, Q.30) Answer: (b) 900 sq m
is in line with the author’s statements and Explanation:
uses conservative language, so keep it. For any value of perimeter of a rectangle,
the greatest are is of a square. So if L and B
Q.28) Answer: (c) are equal, then area will be maximum. So L
Explanation: = B = 30 meters. Then area = 30 X 30 = 900
square meters
The author states that only ... the absence of
risk constitutes an investment, so anything
with a chance of financial loss would not be Q.31) Answer: (c) 12.5
an investment. Eliminate choice (a), since it’s Explanation:
too extreme, while choice (b) is outside the The present total age of the family
passage’s scope. Keep choice (c), however, = 5 × 20 = l00
since it follows the author’s reasoning.  Total age of the family at the birth of the
Eliminate choice (d), since it goes against youngest member (100 – 10 – (10 × 4)) =
what the author is saying. 50
 Average age of the family just before the
Q.29) Answer: (d) 50
birth of the youngest member =
Explanation: 4
Since Sumit's house faces towards East and = 12.5.
he walks from backside of his house, it
means that he starts walking towards West.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 7
Q.32) Answer: (d) F 5
Explanation: G 7
Let the salaries be 4x and 7x H 4
If salaries are increased by Rs. 25, then
4 x  25 3 Position-1 is tallest & 8 is shortest.

7 x  25 5
 5(4x + 25) = 3(7x + 25) Q.34) Answer: (c)
 20x + 125 = 21x + 75
 x  50 Q.35) Answer: (c)
Their salaries are 4 × 50 and 7 × 50, i.e.
Rs.200 and Rs.350. Q.36) Answer: (b)

Q.33) Answer: (b) Q.37) Answer: (b)

Explanation: Explanation:
When he climbs down 7 steps, he reaches Solve using the Pythagorean Theorem:
9th step from top. This 9th step is the middle
CD 2  AD 2  AC 2
step. So there are 8 steps below it and 8 steps
above it. Hence 8 + 8 + 1 = 17. CD 2  6 2  82
CD 2  36  64  100
Explanation of Question 34 to 36:
CD  10 m
According to instructions
Here, AB  AC  CD
ABCDEFGH are eight friends with different heights.
3 play cricket, 3 play table tennis, 2 play football. AB  8  10  18 meters
The tallest doesn't play football, shortest doesn't
play cricket. Q.38) Answer: (b)
Explanation:
H, B > F > A, D
E>B

E does not play cricket & is 2nd tallest.

D>G>A
H & D play TT

H is 4th from top in Height

G × cricket
G × Football
B × Football
Based on these instructions, if we fill up the table:

Cricket Table Football Height So, the answer is West.

Tennis
A 8 Q.39) Answer: (b) 12
B 3 Explanation:
C 1 Each edge of the large cube will have two
D 6 small cubes with two sides painted. So 6
E 2 edges X 2 cubes = 12 cubes.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 8
Q.40) Answer: (b) Add all 10 numbers that end with 3 i.e. 203,
Smita is twice as efficient as Anita 213, 223......293.
Explanation: Subtract all 10 numbers that begin and end
Anita completes 40% of the project in 12 with 3 i.e. 303, 313, 323, ...393.
days. The left over 60% of the work is
So, numbers are equal to 100+10-10 =100
completed by both Anita and Smita in 6
days.
Hence, working together, Anita and Smita Q.44) Answer: (a)
would have completed the entire project in Explanation:
 6  The author states that older students do not
   100  10 days need to ‘find themselves’ [and] are better
 60 
Since Anita, working alone, completes 40% able to focus ... than their younger peers.
of the project in 12 days, she would have That suggests that young people do need to
 12  find themselves. That supports choice (a).
taken    100  30 days to complete the
 40  You can eliminate choice (b), since it’s
entire project. beyond the scope of the statements. Choice
LCM of 10 and 30 = 30, and so let us assume (c) is too extreme; the author never mentions
that 30 units of work is required to be done. schedules. Choice (d) goes beyond the scope
Anita takes 30 days to complete the work of the passage.
and so takes I day to complete 1 unit of
work.
Q.45) Answer: (a)
When they work together, work is complete
in 10 days, which means work done in 1 day Explanation:
30 The author discusses two essential facets of
=  3 units, of which Anita does 1 units
10 newsletter investing: the quality of the
and hence balance 2 units of work would be newsletter and one’s willingness to follow
done by Smita only. So, Smita is more its advice. Neither facet depends on the
efficient. Percentage by which Smita is more other, meaning that you could be willing to
2 1 follow a low-quality newsletter and thus not
efficient than Anita   100  100%.
1 earn profits. Keep choice (a), since it reflects
In other words, Smita is twice as efficient as that logic, but eliminate choice (b), since the
Anita.
author never mentions steady or long-term
profits. Choice (c) is beyond the scope of the
Q.41) Answer: (d) FATONICR passage, as is choice (d), so eliminate both.
Explanation:
Here positions in code are being shifted
Q.46) Answer: (c)
from 123456 to 135642
Explanation:
So FRACTION becomes FATONICR
Gardner’s theory, according to the
statements, asserts that separate and distinct
Q.42) Answer: (b)
parts of the brain are used for particular
The number does not leave a remainder
when divided by 4 cognitive activities. Choice (a) is too
Explanation: extreme; you can’t know from the
If a number is divisible by a composite statements whether no correlation exists
number, example 12 and 12 = 3 X 4, then the between any two intelligences. Choice (b)
number will be divisible by both 3 and 4. goes in the opposite direction of the author’s
statements, so eliminate that one, too. In
Q.43) Answer: (b) 100 contrast, choice (c) is in line with the
Explanation: author’s logic and has moderate enough
100 numbers start with 3 i.e. 300 to 399 language (primarily) so keep it. Choices (d)

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 9
 and (e) both go beyond the scope of the eat plants. The passage provides no
passage. evidence that such responses also
combat bacterial infections.
D The second paragraph indicates that
Q.47) Answer: (a)
plant antiherbivore chemistry plays a
Explanation:
major role in the discipline of chemical
The argument brushes aside the notion that ecology, and chemical ecology concerns
the research results were manipulated, itself with coevolution of plants and
citing the breadth of the study. That insects.
suggests that a small-scale study is not The correct answer is A.
necessarily protected from bias or
tampering. Keep choice (a), since that’s in Q.49) Answer: (d)
line with the author’s reasoning, but Explanation:
eliminate choice (b), since it’s beyond the The discipline of chemical ecology, as it is
passage’s scope. Choices (c) and (d) are also described in the passage, deals with how
out of scope. plants see chemicals to interact with other
organisms—in particular, how they defend
Q.48) Answer: (a) against attack and how those interactions
Explanation: have evolved. To be studied within that
This question addresses what the discipline, a specific topic would need to
information in the passage indicates about address some aspect of that chemical
plant antiherbivore chemistry—that is, interaction.
plants' chemical defenses against herbivore A The passage provides no reason to
attacks. The second paragraph of the suppose that the topic of seeds and how
passage cites the views of variousscientists they., travel would be studied within
chemical ecology, given that it does not
regarding the possible role of resin in
discuss how chemicals might be
antiherbivore chemistry; plants could have involved in the reproductive cycle.
evolved resin specifically to repel insects. B The passage provides no indication that
A Correct. According to the second chemical ecology would be concerned
paragraph, various scientists have with how weed-destroying insects
suggested that a change in antiherbivore would aid agricultural production.
chemistry, here specifically involving C The passage provides no indication that
resin, could repel insects; alternatively, deforestation would involve plant
some insects could have been attracted chemicals or that: its effects would be
to resin, feeding more heavily on plants studied in chemical ecology.
that produced it. Other researchers have D Correct. Chemical ecology developed to
suggested that even if resin does not deal with the interdependence between
directly repel or attract insects, it may plants and insects. Insects' developing a
indirectly affect insect-feeding behavior tolerance for feeding on a once-toxic
by mediating changes in plants' plant, and the plants' resultant changes,
antiherbivo.re chemistry. is a situation of just such
B The first paragraph states that plants interdependence: plants and insects co-
produce gum in response to bacterial evolving.
infections. Although this does not rule The correct answer is D.
out the hypothesis that gum also
contributes to plants' antiherbivore
chemistry, the passage provides no Q.50) Answer: (a)
evidence that it does so. Explanation:
C According to the passage, a plant's The author mentions bacterial infections in
antiherbivore responses have developed the first paragraph as the reason why plants
to combat predators, such as insects, that produce the substance known as gum.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 10
 A Correct. The author states directly that Q.52) Answer: (c)
plants produce gum in response to Explanation:
bacterial infections. In this problem order matters, because if the
B The author states directly that sap is race places like this.
transported through plant tissues. The Joe 1st
passage does not address the question of Sue 2nd
whether bacterial infections or anything Sam 3rd
related to them are similarly That's a different outcome than if the race
transported. places like this.
C The passage indicates that rigorous Sue 1st
chemical analysis is now available, but Sam 2nd
scientists still do not know resin's Joe 3rd
function, The reference to bacterial Each ordering of the top three places is a
infections is related to gum, not resin. different outcome, so the order is important.
D The reference to bacterial infections When the gold medal is awarded there are 5
possible runners who could win it. Once the
indicates the actual purpose served by
gold has been awarded, there are 4 runners
gum; it does not function to show ways available to win the silver. Once the gold
in which gum is inadequate. and silver have been awarded, there are 3
The correct answer is A. runners available to win the bronze. The
total number of arrangements of medal
winners is 5 × 4 × 3 = 60. The correct answer
Q.51) Answer: (d) is choice (C).
Explanation: If you are arranging items from the same
The passage states generally that amber has source and order matters, count down and
been widely misunderstood but cites Pliny as multiply.
noting correctly, in the first century, that
amber resulted from a substance discharged Q.53) Answer: (b)
by trees. Explanation:
Let f m3/min be the filling capacity of the
A Pliny's observation was, according to the
pump. The emptying capacity of the
author, accurate and not a
pump = (f + 10) m3/min.
misunderstanding.
3600
B The author equates confusion about Time taken to fill the tank  minutes
f
amber with confusion about resin; the
3600
reference to Pliny does not indicate and time taken to empty the tank =
f  10
which of the two, amber or resin, has
minutes
been more widely misunderstood.
Since it takes 12 more minutes to fill the tank
C The author indicates that others, not than to empty it,
Pliny, mischaracterized amber as a 3600 3600
semiprecious gem—and when that  = 12
f f  10
mischaracterization first occurred is not
 3600f + 36000 – 3600f = 12(f2+ 10f) = 12f2+
identified.
120f  12f 2 + 120f – 36000 = 0
D Correct. Pliny's recognition that amber Solving for the positive value of f, you get f
came from a substance discharged by = 50.
trees stands, in the author's account, as The emptying capacity of the pump = 50 +
an exception to the widespread incorrect 10 = 60 m3/min
identifications of the substance. Alternatively, use options. If filling capacity
The correct answer is D. is 50 m3/min, then emptying capacity is 60

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 11
 m3/min, but it does not satisfy the equation Q.58) Answer: (c) South-west
3600 2600 Explanation:
 =12 .
f f  10 From the given data, the possible figure is as
We can check similarly for other options. follows.

Q.54) Answer: (b) 16

Explanation:
In ranks 1 to 20 from top, there are 12 girls,
so remaining 8 are boys. Anil is a boy,
himself, so the number of boys in rank after
50
him   (8  1)  25  9  16
2
As the distance between C and D, and E and
Q.55) Answer: (b) 12 km/hr D is equal, E must be towards north-east
Explanation: from B or B is towards south-west from E.
For the first bird: xy = 192;
For the second bird: ( x  y )( y  4) = 192 Q.59) Answer: (c)
 xy  4( y  x) 16 =192 Explanation:
The probability of not getting the selected
 192  4( y  x)  16  192 3
 5  125
 4(y – x) = 16 number all the three times =   
 6  216
 ( y  x)  4
Therefore, the probability of getting the
192 selected number at least once
 y  4
y 125 91
 1 –   0.42
 y  16 hours and hence x =12 km/hr 216 216
Alternatively, use options.
Q.60) Answer: (c)
Q.56) Answer: (d) Explanation:
Explanation: Let the total expenditure at the beginning of
2014 be Rs10000. Then,
100
A will complete the work in  25  100 days YEAR 1st Half 2nd half
25
2014 12000 10800
1
B will complete the work in  40  160 days 2015 12960 11664
14
2016 14000 (approx.) 12600
100
C will complete the work in  50  100 days 2017 15120 13608
50
1 Increase in expenditure in first half of 2016 =
D will complete the work in  30  90 days 14000 - 11664 = 2336
13

Q.61) Answer: (d)

Q.57) Answer: (c) Rs. 11,000 Explanation:
Explanation: This question requires an understanding of
David Pearce's view of monetization.
- Total yearly income of family
According to the passage, Pearce finds the
= 12000 X 8 X 12 = 11,52,000 idea that conservation is unprofitable to be
- Decreased yearly income of family an illusion. He argues for showing the
= 11,52,000 - 96000 = 10,56,000 economic value of ecosystems in order to
- New average monthly income of 1 make progress in conserving those
person  105600  8  12  11000 ecosystems.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 12
 A The passage attributes to Gretchen Daily D A nonprofit firm that restores damaged
the view that monetization is unpopular ecosystems would be performing a
with environmentalists. The passage valuable ecology-related service, but it
gives no reason to believe that Pearce would not itself be an example of a
would endorse the idea that natural asset providing an ecological
environmentalists currently _ find service.
monetization attractive. The correct answer is C.
B The passage gives no indication that
monetization is increasingly being Q.63) Answer: (a)
embraced by environmentalists, even if Explanation:
Pearce thinks it should be.
This question asks about Daily's view of
C The passage indicates Pearce's belief that monetization, and according to the passage,
some types of tourism are also types of she sees monetization as a practice that
ecological services that have economic reflects the dominant role that economic
value and that they should be decisions play in human behavior.
monetized.
A Correct. According to the passage, Daily
D Correct. Pearce believes that believes that economic interests are
monetization quantifies the value of the central to people's actions, and
services provided by ecological monetization of ecological services
systems—and if that value is quantified, would take that central role realistically
people are more likely to lie persuaded into account.
to conserve those systems.
B Monetization, as Daily sees it, is a way
The correct answer is D. of assigning value to conservation and
thus acknowledging its importance.
Q.62) Answer: (c) Many environmentalists, rather than
Explanation: their critics, are reluctant to embrace
Based on the passage, ecological services are monetization, according to Daily.
services provided by natural assets that C For Daily, monetization represents a
have not been converted into commercial way for financial interests and ecological
assets. Thus any example of such an interests to reach a common ground; by
ecological service requires that the area using this sommon currency, both sides
providing it is natural. can make good decisions about the
A The passage mentions resort hotels as an environment.
example of explicitly commercial assets. D Monetization, on Daily's view, would
Although some hotels might be situated help to prevent environmental
in ecologically valuable natural degradation; the passage does not
environments, any ecological services in suggest that she regards such
such cases would be contributed by the degradation as at all inevitable.
natural environments, not by the hotels The correct answer is A.
themselves.
B Water purifying is an ecological service Q.64) Answer: (c)
if it is supplied by undisturbed forests
Explanation:
and wetlands. The word plant here must
The sentence in question states that critics
mean a technological installation, not a
blame environmentalists for their failure to
botanical organism, because it is said to
address the economic issues of
supplement,.. not to be part of—the
environmental degradation.
natural processes. Thus it is not a
natural asset and therefore does not A The passage states that in the absence of
provide an ecological service as monetization, conservation can appear
described in the passage. unprofitable. But this does not mean
that the environmentalists in question
C Correct. The passage states that a
are opposed to conservation generating
wildlife preserve that creates jobs and
income.
generates income would be providing
an ecological service.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 13
 B The passage does not address the issue description of two contrasting views
of the number of environmentalists in about how banks affected the economy.
question, the number of those opposed The correct answer is C.
to them, or whether either group is
better connected to the media.
Q.66) Answer: (b)
C Correct. The passage indicates that Explanation:
critics of the environmentalists in
The question asks about information
question believe environmentalists are
implied by the passage. According to the
to blame for not using an effective
scholars' view described in the first
economics-based strategy to promote
paragraph, banks followed conservative
conservation.
lending practices: they shunned projects that
D Although it may be the case that the were uncertain and that required substantial
environmentalists in question have been investments in capital. It follows that,
prominent in publicizing worldwide according to those scholars, the reason
environmental degradation, the passage banks chose not to fund certain projects was
does not provide grounds for inferring that they entailed too great a risk.
that they have been.
A The passage indicates that
The correct answer is C. manufacturing and transportation
projects were less well established than
Q.65) Answer: (c) those the banks preferred to fund, not
Explanation: more so.
The question depends on understanding the B Correct. Because the projects were
passage as a whole. The passage describes uncertain and required a great deal of
two contrasting views about the role banks capital, banks considered them too risky
played in the economic growth of the C The passage indicates that banks
United States around the turn of the followed conservative lending practices
nineteenth century The first paragraph and avoided investments that were
describes the view that banks played only a uncertain.
small role. The second paragraph describes D The passage does not mention banks'
the contrasting view that banks played a beliefs about economic growth, and it
critical role. does not provide any basis for inferring
A The mention of banks in the South is a that the scholars in question held any
small part of a 1;rger discussion about particular views regarding such beliefs.
the role of banks in the country as a The correct answer is B.
whole.
B The passage describes two major views
Q.67) Answer: (a)
held by historians; it does not reevaluate
Explanation:
either of those views.
The argument can be analyzed as follows:
C Correct. The passage describes two
Premise: Vague laws set vague limits on
different views about the role that banks
people’s freedom. Premise: Vague limits on
played in America's growing economy.
people’s freedom make it impossible for
D The passage does not analyze any aspect
them to know for certain whether their
of the relationship between the
actions are legal. Conclusion: Under vague
increasing number of banks and the
laws people cannot feel secure. There is a
economy. It alludes to the increase in
new element in the conclusion—“cannot feel
numbers only within a broader
secure”—that must be justified. There is also

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 14
 an unconnected element in the premise— of the passage. That leaves choice (d), which
“know for certain whether their actions are has moderate enough language to make it
legal”—that will likely appear in the answer an acceptable inference.
choice. Unfortunately, four of the answer
choices contain those two elements. Only Q.69) Answer: (d)
answer choice (D) does not contain both, Explanation:
and as (D) also contains the “vague law”
10 is the score for the first roll. 15 is the score
element that appears in both a premise and
for the second roll. 9 is the score for the third
the conclusion, we can eliminate (D) for the
roll. 20 is the score for the fourth roll, 12 is
moment. Given the plethora of answers that
the score for the fifth roll.
remain in contention, first examine the
conditional structure that is extant in the
stimulus: Premises: Vague laws →Vague Q.70) Answer: (d)
limits→~Know actions are legal. We go either swimming or dancing
Conclusion: Vague laws→~Secure. Explanation:
Abstractly, this relationship is similar to: The statement meant that none of the two
Premises: A→B→~C, Conclusion: A→~D. actions were to be done. Here options a and
The relationship that must be added to the c corroborate the given statement. Option b
premise to prove the conclusion is: ~C→~D. is unrelated and out of scope by mentioning
Translating the diagram back to the terms the immune system. Only option d negates
used in our premise and conclusion, we the given statement.
need a statement like the following: ~Know
actions are legal→~Secure. Of course, the Q.71) Answer: (d) 96
contrapositive of this statement would also
Explanation:
be acceptable. Answer choice (A) is the
All teams but the champion team will lose a
contrapositive and thus (A) is correct.
game exactly once.
Answer choice (B): This answer is incorrect
because it has a different level of certainty
than the conclusion: this answer uses the Q.72) Answer: (b) 240
phrase “might not” when the conclusion Explanation:
uses “cannot.” If this flaw were corrected, Two marbles from 5 different marbles can
the answer would be correct. Answer choice be selected in 5C2i.e. 10 ways.
(C): This answer is the Mistaken Reversal of Now, the boy has 4 different boxes. So,
the correct answer. Answer choice (D): This number of ways is 10 × 4 i.e. 40.
answer was eliminated previously. Now, the remaining 3 marbles have to go in
3 different boxes which can go in 3 × 2 × 1
Q.68) Answer: (d) i.e. 6 ways.
Explanation: So, the total no. of ways = 40 × 6 = 240 ways.
The statements don’t provide enough
information to verify whether choice (a) is Q.73) Answer: (c) concretized
true, since all you know is that products first Explanation:
in their categories tend to have a marketing
The passage clearly states “religion is love,
advantage over those that come later.
unfolding, expanding, and growing.” This
Eliminate choice (b) as well, since it’s too
supports option (c).
extreme, and cross out choice (c), since it
gives advice and thus goes beyond the scope

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 15
Q.74) Answer: (a) 1 box We will consider the worst case scenario.
Explanation: Since, Marco needs to pick one cigarette
Take a piece of fruit from the box marked from each packet hence the worst case will
"apples and oranges." Suppose the fruit you be that Marco has picked all but have not
take is an apple. Then that box must be the picked a single cigarette from the Dunhill
box containing just apples. Therefore, the packet having least number of cigarettes i.e.
box marked "oranges" can't be the box 6. So, the worst case is that he has picked up
containing just apples, and it can't be the 114 cigarettes but still one packet has not
box containing just oranges either -- so it been touched. So as soon as he picks up the
must be the box containing apples and next cigarette he will be sure of having
oranges. The remaining box is therefore the picked at least one from each packet.
box containing just oranges.
If the fruit you take out is an orange, the Q.76) Answer: (b)
solution is derived in a similar fashion: the
box marked "apples and oranges" is the box Q.77) Answer: (d)
containing just oranges; the box marked
"apples" is the box containing both apples
Q.78) Answer: (b)
and oranges; and the box marked "oranges"
is the one containing just apples.
Q.79) Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Q.75) Answer: (d)
If light 1 is switched off then waiters A, B
Explanation:
and C cannot be signaled for sure. Now, if
Cigarettes/ light 3 is switched on then it can signal any
Brand Packets Total
packet of the waiters, D or E.
Marlboro 3 10 30
Rothmans 2 12 24 Q.80) Answer: (d) 3

Camel 1 18 18 Explanation: In the worst case, the first two

socks you take out will consist of one black
Lucky 3 8 24
sock and one white sock. The next sock you
Strikes
take out is guaranteed to match one or the
Dunhill 4 6 24 other.
Total 120

RAUSIAS-TS20E1061 16
 RAU’S IAS STUDY CIRCLE
OMR ANSWER SHEET Test Code:

GS BATCH : D D/MM/Y Y
Date :
INSTRUCTIONS FOR USING THE ANSWER SHEET
1. Use only BLACK ball pen on this sheet. USE BLACK BALL PEN Right Method
2. Use of PENCIL IS STRICTLY PROHIBITED. to darken Circles
3. Darken only one circle for each question. Darken completely & properly. 1.
4. Do not make any stray marks on the sheet. Rough work must not be done on
the answer sheet. Wrong Method
5. There may be more answer spaces than you need, if so leave than blank. to darken Circles
6. If your name is SACHIT A. IYER, then you should write your name in the
1.
space provided as follows : 2.
S A C H I T A I Y E R 3.

Name of the Candidate (as it appears in your I-CARD, in CAPITAL LETTERS)

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Enter
Your
SCAN
CODE

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
1 26 51 76
2 27 52 77
3 28 53 78
4 29 54 79
5 30 55 80
6 31 56 81
7 32 57 82
8 33 58 83
9 34 59 84
10 35 60 85
11 36 61 86
12 37 62 87
13 38 63 88
14 39 64 89
15 40 65 90
16 41 66 91
17 42 67 92
18 43 68 93
19 44 69 94
20 45 70 95
21 46 71 96
22 47 72 97
23 48 73 98
24 49 74 99
25 50 75 100