ANIMAL SCIENCE

1. This corresponds to the knee of animals

a. carpals c. humerus
b. tarsals d. femur
2. This hormone is responsible for the characteristic buck odor
a. carpic hormone c. codric hormone
b. castric hormone d. centric hormone
3. This is the fluid portion of uncoagulated blood
a. serum c. globulin
b. plasma d. hemoglobin
4. This is a lymphoid organ that acts as graveyard for old or senile red blood cells
a. liver c. spleen
b. lungs d. thymus
5. This is a musculomembranous partition that separates the thoracic from the abdominal cavity
a. pleurae c. diaphragm
b. peritoneum d. mesentery
6. These teeth are absent in horse and cattle
a. canine teeth c. molar teeth
b. milk teeth d. incisor
7. This is the site of gastric juice production in chicken
a. crop c. gizzard
b. proventriculus d. small intestine
8. This is the structural and functional units of the kidneys
a. alveoli c. nephron
b. glomerulus d. nephrite
9. Gall bladder is absent in this animal
a. cattle c. horse
b. dog d. cat
10. This is the site of fertilization in chicken
a. fimbriae c. uterus
b. infundibulum d. isthmus
11. This is an animal where both testicles failed to descend to the scrotal sac
a. cryptorchid c. duorchid
b. monorchid d. anestrus
12. The average gestation period of beef cattle
a. cryptorchid c. duorchid
b. monorchid d. anestrus
13. The outer layer of the extra-embryonic membranes which is in contact with the maternal uterine
tissues
a. allantois c. amnion
b. chorion d. placenta
14. Which of these cells produce the hormone testosterone?
a. spermatogonia c. Leydig cells
b. spermatocyte d. sertoli cells
15. Which of the following accessory sex glands in male is absent in tom?
a. seminal vesicles c. Cowper’s gland
b. prostate gland d. bulbourethral glands
16. Part of the oviduct in chicken which is responsible for the secretion of albumen
a. uterus c. magnum
b. isthmus d. fimbrae
17. What hormone is responsible for broodiness in chicken?
a. prolactin c. progesterone
b. estrogen d. oxytocin
18. This hormone is responsible for the development of sperm cells in the seminiferous tubules
a. luteinizing hormone c. testosterone
b. follicle stimulating hormone d. adrenocorticotrophic hormone
19. This hormone stimulates glycogen breakdown and glyconeogenesis in the liver
a. insulin c. glucagon
b. epinephrine d. estradiol
20. This is the neuroepithelial portion of the nervous tunic of the eye
a. retina c. pupil
b. iris d. choroid
21. The auditory ossicles are found in the
a. external ear c. inner ear
b. middle ear d. auricula
22. This is a protective mechanism of animals against profound cooling
a. hibernation c. panting
b. estivation d. chilling
23. This refers to the range of environmental temperature within which the animal does not have to
adopt to the environment
a. critical temperature c. body temperature
b. comfort zone d. subnormal temperature
24. Which of the following is not a way of removing moisture or water from the animal’s body?
a. panting c. respiration
b. sweating d. none of the above
25. The average body temperature of goat is
a. 37.6 ˚C c. 39.1 ˚C
b. 38.3 ˚C d. 40.1 ˚C
26. This refers to a rise in body temperature that develops during pathological conditions
a. fever c. hyperthermia
b. hypothermia d. heat stroke
27. This is the yellow body formed from the ruptured graafian follicle
a. corpus hemorrhagicum c. corpus luteum
b. corpus albicans d. corpus anthrum
28. Phase of estrous cycle where the corpus luteum id developed and progesterone is secreted
a. proestrus c. estrus
b. metestrus d. diestrus
29. The length of estrus period of cattle
a. 30 hours c. 21 hours
b. 18 hours d. 24 hours
30. This is the muscle which retracts the testicles against the body to protect it from excessive cold
a. bulbocavernous muscle c. retractor
b. cremaster d. urethral muscle
31. This refers to animal tissues which are suitable for food
a. meat c. lean
 b. fat d. muscle
32. Which is not considered as a red meat?
a. beef c. mutton
b. pork d. none of the above
33. This refers to the meat of rabbit
a. mutton c. star meat
b. lapan d. venison
34. This refers to the meat of cattle slaughtered before one year of age
a. venison c. beef
b. veal d. mutton
35. Which of the following muscles yield the less tender meat?
a. leg muscle c. rib
b. back muscle d. rump
36. Which of the following is not affected by water or moisture content in the meat?
a. texture c. juiciness
b. color d. none
37. This is a protein that greatly influences the tenderness of the muscle after cooking
a. collagen c. reticulin
b. elastin d. myosin
38. These substances in meat are responsible for the so-called “gamey” flavor of meat of wild animals
a. nitrogenous extractives c. fats
b. sarcoplasmic proteins d. carbohydrates
39. Which is not an advantage of fasting animals prior to slaughter?
a. save feeds c. low shrinkage
b. ease of cleaning entrails d. short shelf-life
40. The water requirement for slaughtering a head of cattle or carabao
a. 30 gallons c. 15 gallons
b. 60 gallons d. 35 gallons
41. This refers to the process of making the animal unconscious prior to slaughter
a. sticking c. scalding
b. stunning d. evisceration
42. The process of wrapping the beef carcass with cheesecloth soaked in lukewarm water
a. chilling c. scalding
b. shrouding d. evisceration
43. This refers to the cutting of carcasses into standard wholesale and retail cuts
a. fabrication c. meat evaluation
b. grading d. meat chopping
44. Which is not included as a wholesale cut of the front quarter of a beef carcass?
a. ribs c. loin
b. plate d. brisket
45. Which of the following wholesale cuts of beef contains the sternum?
a. chuck c. ribs
b. brisket d. loin
46. This refers to the process of making a stable milk emulsion
a. pasteurization c. cream separator
b. homogenization d. curding
47. This cut contains part of the 13 th rib and the abdominal muscle
a. flank c. shoulder
 b. loin d. belly
48. Which is not included as primal cuts of pork?
a. loin c. shoulder
b. ham d. brisket
49. The predominant carbohydrate in milk
a. galactose c. maltose
b. lactose d. fructose
50. Milk is not rich in this mineral
a. iron c. calcium
b. zinc d. fructose
51. Strain of broiler used in the contract growing scheme of Tyson’s agribusiness ventures
a. Cobb c. Anak
b. Magnolia d. Peterson
52. Commercial broiler strains available in the market except
a. Pilch c. H and N
b. Hybro d. Starcross
53. Arbor acre is locally known as
a. Lohmann c. Magnolia
b. Ross d. Hubbard
54. The common type of house intended for broiler contract growing is
a. litter floor c. range
b. slat floor d. battery cages
55. In brooding chicks, old newspapers are used as bedding to
a. serve as litter to absorb moisture of manure
b. teach birds to recognize pictures
c. improve the walking stance of chicks for better growth
d. conserve heat for brooding as insulator
56. in raising 200 broilers in the litter floor, how many feeding trough of one meter length, both sides
can be used are required? The feeding space is 4cm/bird
a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6
57. Removal of feathers in the processing plants
a. molting c. scalding
b. plucking d. evisceration
58. The crude protein content parent stock
a. 12-14% CP c. 17-18% CP
b. 16-17% CP d. 18-21% CP
59. Gumboro disease is also known as
a. Avian Pest c. Infectious Bursal disease
b. Fowl Pox d. Marek’s disease
60. The limiting constraints why broilers cannot be extensively raised in rural areas
a. diseases and parasites c. labor requirement
b. feeds d. marketing and distribution
61. The disease commonly observed in brooding with moist or wet litter causing brooder pneumonia or
a. coccidiosis c. avian pasteurellosis
b. aspergillosis d. mycoplasmosis
62. The average bodyweight of modern broilers now is about ______ at 35-37 days
a. 2.0 kg c. 1.7 kg
 b. 1.4 kg d. 1.0 kg
63. When the FCE of broiler is 1.9, it means
a. broiler will have to eat 1 kg feed to produce 1.9 kg bodyweight
b. feeding 1.9 kg feed to produce one kg of broiler
c. the total feed intake of one broiler is 1.9 kg
d. bodyweight of 1.9 kg will be achieved by feeding only 1 kilo
64. Broilers can be raised any time of the year for about ____ per year if the duration of one cycle is 38
days, cleaning of 3 days, selling of 14 days and chick order of 7 days
a. 5 batches c. 9 batches
b. 7 batches d. 3 batches
65. The highest cost expenses aside from feeds in broiler production
a. labor cost c. chick cost
b. depreciation d. light, heat and water
66. The world-wide numbers of breeds of fowls
a. more than 300 c. more than 200
b. more than 100 d. more than 400
67. Population of small number of birds isolated within the breed that is responsible with specific
characteristics
a. breed c. cross
b. strain d. in-breed
68. Leghorn breed has plumage colors of
a. white c. silver
b. black d. all of these
69. The progeny of two different breeds or strains belonging to a single specie
a. cross c. strain
b. hybrid d. inbreed
70. Progeny of crossing between different species
a. hybrid c. mutant
b. cross d. hybrid vigor
71. The method of crossing wherein the first generation crosses are mated with their parents
a. back cross c. upgrade
b. criss-cross d. cross breeding
72. Crossing the first generation with a male belonging to each of the parent breeds alternately
a. criss-cross c. upgrade
b. back cross d. inbreeding
73. In the selection of breed, this trait is the aptitude to tolerate the environmental conditions without
drop in egg production
a. hardiness high productivity
b. low feed consumption
c. product quality
d. none of these
74. The breed of commercial hybrid layers with white eggs
a. White Leghorn c. New Hamspire
b. Barred Plymouth Rock d. Rhode Island Red
75. Example of layer from the Institute of Animal Science (IAS) strain
a. Warren c. Hissex
b. Starcross d. Golden comet
76. The red jungle fowl from east java, Burma, Thailand and Sumatra
 a. Gallus bankciva c. Gallus varius
b. Gallus soneratti d. Gallus lafayetti
77. Class of chicken based on purpose/use of breeding
a. economic c. weight
b. standard d. all of these
78. Native chickens are popular because people
a. people like the eggs of native chickens
b. people prefer the tough meat
c. maintenance costs are low
d. all of these
79. Annual egg production of native chicken
a. 50-60 eggs c. 200-240 eggs
b. 100-150 eggs d. 260-280 eggs
80. Term applied to designated mature domestic costs and hens
a. poultry c. chicken
b. fowl d. chicks
81. Young domestic ostrich in the downy stage
a. chick c. keet
b. poult d. gosling
82. A male fowl one year old or over
a. cob c. cock
b. gobbier d. drake
83. Unsexed female fowl is known as
a. capon c. poulard
b. pullet d. poult
84. Race of domestic fowls which maintains distinctive characteristics of shape, growth, temperament
and color of egg shells
a. variety c. breed
b. strain d. type
85. Poultry species having 39 pairs of chromosomes
a. chicken c. guinea fowl
b. quail d. all of these
86. Poultry species having 40 pairs of chromosomes
a. duck c. turkey
b. geese d. all of these
87. The incubation period of muscovy duck
a. 35 days c. 28 days
b. 21 days d. 24 days
88. This is the incubation period of quails
a. 16-18 days c. 26-28 days
b. 30-34 days d. 22-24 days
89. The egg weight of geese is
a. 58-60 grams c. 85-89 grams
b. 70-80 grams d. 130-200 grams
90. The egg weight of guinea fowl is
a. 40-48 grams c. 55-61 grams
b. 13-15 grams d. 17-18 grams
91. The incubation period of mallard duck is
 a. 21 days c. 35 days
b. 28 days d. 21 days
92. The incubation period of turkey
a. 17 days c. 28 days
b. 42 days d. 24 days
93. Example of toxic mineral found in paint in greater amount is
a. lead c. cadmium
b. arsenic d. mercury
94. The toxic mineral known as industrial pollutant
a. arsenic c. cadmium
b. lead d. mercury
95. The fat soluble vitamin needed in calcium and phosphorus metabolism
a. Vit. A c. Vit. E
b. Vit. D d. Vit. K
96. The vitamin necessary in all metabolism and anti-oxidation
a. Vitamin K c. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D
97. Vitamin needed only by humans, monkey and guinea pigs
a. Vitamin A c. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B1 d. Vitamin D
98. After palay milling, the level of rice barn in the palay is about
a. 3% c. 20%
b. 10% d. 17%
99. Storage of bran and rice polishing is difficult because of
a. high oil content c. to fine to become dusty
b. high silica of hull d. bulkiness of the stuff
100. In general, all grain products need this supplement
a. calcium c. magnesium
b. phosphorus d. salt
101. Wheat is scientifically known as
a. Glycine max c. Arachis hypogea
b. Triticum saticum d. Manihat utilisima
102. Cassava contains this substance that makes the taste bitter in some varieties.

a. prusic acid c. tannin

b. anti-trypsin factor d. mimosine

103. Kapok seeds can not be fed for monogastrics due to tannin. Kapok is known scientifically as

a. Helianthus anus c. Ceiba pentandra

b. Henea brasiliensis d. Arachis hypogea

104. The mineral needed in trace amount includes

a. sodium c. copper
b. calcium d. potassium

105. The mineral needed as macroelement in poultry

 a. iodine c. selenium
b. iron d. phosphorus

106. Poultry eat a daily amount of feed that is equivalent to approximately _________ percent of their
bodyweight

a. 5% c. 15%
b. 10% d. 3%

107. The percent crude protein of quail starter should be

a. 23-27% CP c. 10-14% CP
b. 18-22% CP d. 20-22% CP

108. The site of bacterial fermentation of undigested food in poultry

a. small intestine c. cloaca

b. large intestine d. ceca

109. This organ has thick glandular mucous membrane that secretes hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen

a. gizzard c. crop
b. proventiculus d. cloaca

110. The CP content of grower mash

a. 16% c. 20%
b. 18% d. 24%

111. Method of feeding grain to broiler parent stock

a. place in hopper c. place in round feeder

b. broadcast in litter d. place in automatic feeder

112. Most practical way to feed broiler

a. ad libitum c. restricted feeding

b. skip-a-day d. phase feeding

113. A disease condition is observed when

a. there are subclinical pathological processes

b. there is imbalance between infection pressure and resistance of animals
c. normal body function of tissues or organs are impaired
d. all of the above
114. This refers to the general susceptibility of animals to disease either required or genetically present
at birth/development

a. predisposition c. constitution
b. condition d. behavior
115. Diseases which are easily spread from one animal to another animal

a. contagious diseases c. acute diseases

b. zoonotic diseases d. nutritional defects

116. Pathogens which can neither be classified as plants nor animals

a. viruses c. yeast
b. bacteria d. fungi

117. Organisms that live at the expense of other live plants or animals

a. parasite c. micro-organism
b. saprophytes d. commensals

118. The process of anaerobic breakdown of carbohydrates used for the production of alcohol, vinegar
and lactic acid
a. fermentation c. symbiosis
b. bio-synthesis d. mineralization

119. The microorganism which can only be seen by an electron microscope

a. yeast c. viruses
b. fungi d. bacteria

120. Pathogenic agents can damage the tissue by loss of resistance known as

a. anemia c. immunosuppression
b. necrosis d. diarrhea

121. The science of the specific defense mechanisms of the body against pathological processes

a. immunity c. pathology
b. immunology d. enzymology

122. The disease of poultry known as avian pest

a. Gumboro Disease c. Fowl Pox

b. New Castle Disease d. Lymphoid Lenkosis

123. The basic unit of inheritance is

a. cell c. genes
 b. chromosomes d. nucleus

124. The disease that can be prevented by vaccination through the wing-web method

a. Avian Pest c. Herpes virus of turkey

b. Fowl Pox d. Infectious Bursal Disease
125. During vaccination, skim milk is sometimes added to

a. supplement the feed as protein source

b. decrease the effect of vaccination
c. increase potency of vaccine
d. improve the drinking capacity of poultry

126. Bacterial disease of poultry caused by Mycoplasma gallisepticum

a. Avian Leucosis c. Chronic Respiratory Disease

b. Infectious Coryza d. Fowl Cholera

127. Bacterial disease caused by Salmonella gallinarum

a. Fowl Typhoid c. Fowl Cholera

b. Pullorum d. Fowl Pox

128. Aspergillosis, a disease caused by Aspergillus fumigatus and also known as Brooder Pneumonia is a

a. viral disease c. protozoan disease

b. bacterial disease d. fungal disease

129. The disease characterized by swollen face of poultry

a. Coryza c. Chronic Respiratory Disease

b. Fowl pox d. Avian Pest

130. Hypodermic injection is similar to

a. intramuscular route c. per os method

b. intra ocular d. intranasal method

131. Hitcher B1 strain of vaccine is

a. Fowl Pox c. Fowl Cholera

b. Avian Pest d. Marek’s Disease

132. The vaccine usually administered in the hatchery at day-old

a. fowl pox vaccine c. La sota vaccine

b. bursal disease vaccine d. Marek’s disease vaccine
133. These antibiotics are bacteriostatic except

a. tetracycline c. bacitracin
b. erythromycin d. tylosine

134. These are bactericidal antibiotic that can kill bacteria except

a. penicillin c. neomycin
b. streptomycin d. lincomycin

135. Ectoparasites that have no wings

a. ticks c. mite
b. fleas d. house flies

136. Very small ectoparasites barely visible by the nakied eyes

a. mites c. fleas
b. ticks d. lice

137. Most endoparasites are roundworms and can be also called

a. annelids c. cestodes
b. nematodes d. trematodes

138. Tapeworms are also known as

a. trematodes c. nematodes
b. cestodes d. annelids

139. Excretion of pathogenic agents in this group is dangerous because detection to nearly impossible
and the quantity of pathogenic may be high

a. sick animals c. recovered animals

b. animals in the incubation period d. subclinical infections

140. Any disease is a stress which can have this effect

a. immunosuppression c. increased metabolism

b. decreased intestinal function d. all of these

141. Protozoans that move by making projections like amoeba are called

a. sporozoa c. flagellates
b. rhizopoda d. ciliates
142. Viral diseases can be prevented only by vaccination because

a. it is caused by viruses and no drugs exist against these diseases

b. drugs act on the enzymes by viruses use the enzyme of host
c. when a virus enters a cell, it losses its mantle of proteins
d. all of the above

143. The management problem resulting to mortalities due to lack of water and feed intake is

a. starve outs c. cannibalism

b. piling d. wet litter

144. Too high mortality in growing birds can be due to

a. disease & parasites c. poor debeaking

b. high stocking density d. all of these

145. Too much feed consumption during the rearing period can be due to

a. poor quality feed c. feed eaten by rats and mice

b. feed wastage d. all of these

146. The growing pullets has slow growth rate because of

a. high house temperature c. poor quality

b. diseases d. all of these

147. High morality in laying house can be due to

a. poor debeaking c. disease

b. high stocking rate d. all of these

148. The reason why layers have poor quality eggs

a. poor design of nest c. high temperature

b. age of birds d. all of these

149. Toxin produced from secondary metabolites of mold is

a. endotoxin c. toxoid
b. aflatoxin d. autotoxins

150. A chick can be resistant or immunologically adult at

a. 3 months c. 3 weeks
b. 9 weeks d. 6 months
151. Deficiency of this nutrient can permanently damage the immunological system of bird

a. Carbohydrates c. vitamins
b. protein d. minerals

152. Organ lesions can lower resistance like liver which can be damaged by

a. intestinal disorders c. disease and stress

b. intoxications d. all of the above
153. The meat per capita consumption in the Philippines

a. 43.1 kg c. 30 kg
b. 50 kg d. 41.3 kg

154. The Beaf Cattle production systems are composed of

a. Backyard c. Semi-commercial
b. Commercial d. all of the above

155. There are at least-accredited feedlots in the Philippines

a. 18 c. 280
b. 180 d. 80

156. The largest feedlot in the Philippines at present is

a. Monterey c. El Rancho
b. Dealco d. Del Monte

157. The scientific name of Aurochs is

a. Bos auros c. Bos taurus

b. Bos longifrons d. Bos premigenus

158. The 997,000 hectares Philippines pasture land can support

a. 500,000 A.U. c. 500 A.U.

b. 5,000 A.U. d. all of the above

159. The commercial cow-calf operations of the country are located in

a. Pangasinan c. Bukidnon
b. Masbate d. all of the above

160. The total agricultural lands devoted to crops of the country like the Riceland, cornland, coconut
farming, etc. can support
a. 10 M A.U. c. 11 M A.U.
b. 12 M A.U. d. none of the above
161. Herd division is merely grouping the cattle/buffalo according to

a. age c. size
b. purpose d. all of the above

162. The daily dry matter requirement of a 300 kg feedlot cattle

a. 0.75 c. 0.25
b. 0.50 d. 1.0
163. The total A.U. of 5 yearlings in the herd is

a. 1.5 c. 3.5
b. 2.5 d. 4.5

164. The daily dry matter requirement of 300 kg feedlot cattle

a. 7.5 kg c. 6.0 kg
b. 6.5 kg d. 9.0 kg

165. The roughage dry matter requirement of a 400 kg mature cattle with a roughage to concentrate
ratio 80:20
a. 6.4 kg c. 7.4 kg
b. 8.4 kg d. none of the above

166. What is the total number of vegetative planting materials needed for 1 ha. If the distance between
furrows is 0.7 m and 0.5 m between hills?
a. 20,000 c. 20,666
b. 25,000 d. 26,666

167. What is the total daily soilage requirement of a 180 kg young cattle if soilage contains 20% DM

a. 27 kg c. 25 kg
b. 20 kg d. 30 kg

168. This ensures the appropriate nutrition of the various age groups of the herd

a. herd division c. nutritional requirement

b. herd management d. none of the above

169. The most common and legal means of identifying beef cattle ownership

a. hide branding c. earnotching

b. horn branding d. tattooing

170. The average gestation period of beef cattle is

a. 270 days c. 290 days

 b. 283 days d. 273 days

171. Bullock is usually a stag that is used for

a. milk c. meat
b. draft d. fattening

172. Beef cattle that are common in tropical countries are

a. Bos Taurus c. Bos bubalus

b. Bos indicus d. Bos aurochs
173. Gestation period of goat

a. 165 days c. 150 days

b. 265 days d. 157 days

174. Scientific name of goat

a. Capra aries c. Capra circus

b. Ovies hircus d. Capra hircus

175. The largest part of the cattle digestive system and serve as fermentation chamber

a. omasum c. small intestine

b. reticulum d. rumen

176. The heat cycle of goat

a. 31 days c. 41 days
b. 21 days d. 11 days

177. The matured weight of a native goat is

a. 20-25 kg c. 20-30 kg
b. 15-20 kg d. 30-40 kg

178. The chromosome number of goat is

a. 54 c. 64
b. 60 d. 72

179. The chromosome number of sheep is

a. 64 c. 54
b. 44 d. 74

180. The latest breed of goat in the Philippines is

 a. Anglo-Nubian c. Boer
b. Saanen d. kiko

181. The term for female goat is

a. boe c. sow
b. doe d. dam

182. The term for male goat is

a. buck c. ram
b. boar d. stag
183. The term for female sheep is

a. doe c. ewe
b. dam d. mare

184. The term for male sheep is

a. ram c. stag
b. buck d. steer

185. The term for mother goat or sheep is

a. dam c. ewe
b. doe d. stallion

186. The term for young goat is

a. kid c. billy
b. nanny d. gouty

187. The act of parturition in goat is

a. goating c. lambing
b. kidding d. furrowing

188. The breed of goat with long pendulous ears and distinct roman nose is

a. Boar c. Toggenburg
b. Anglo-Nubian d. Kambing kajang

189. The act of parturition in sheep is

a. sheeping c. darling
b. lambing d. ewing

190. The goat is said to be

 a. grazers c. growsers
b. browsers d. boers

191. The sheep is said to be

a. grazers c. browsers
b. growsers d. bowsers

192. The first milk of goat is called

a. colostrum c. non-allergenic milk

b. fresh milk d. skim milk
193. The queen of dairy goat is

a. Queeny c. Saanen
b. Alpine d. Kiko

194. The castrated ram is called

a. wether c. bether
b. fether d. rather

195. The meat of goat is called

a. lapan c. mutton
b. chevrons d. chevon

196. The meat of sheep is called

a. lapan c. mutton
b. chevrons d. chevon

197. The rehensile organ of goat is

a. lips c. tongue
b. mouth d. teeth

198. The matured goat consumes ____________ of clean water a day

a. 1.5 liters c. 2.5 liters

b. 2 liters d. 3 liters

199. The outer term for female goat

a. nanny c. kelly
b. jenny d. golly
200. The other term for male goat is

a. billy c. timmy
b. dilly d. jonny

Practice Test in Animal Science

1. A 21. B 41. B 61. B 81. C

2. A 22. A 42. B 62. C 82. A
3. B 23. B 43. A 63. B 83. B
4. C 24. D 44. C 64. A 84. C
5. C 25. C 45. B 65. C 85. D
6. A 26. A 46. B 66. A 86. A
7. B 27. C 47. A 67. B 87. A
8. C 28. B 48. D 68. D 88. A
9. C 29. B 49. B 69. A 89. D
10. B 30. B 50. A 70. A 90. A
11. A 31. A 51. C 71. A 91. B
12. A 32. D 52. D 72. A 92. C
13. B 33. B 53. C 73. A 93. A
14. C 34. B 54. B 74. A 94. C
15. A 35. A 55. A 75. A 95. C
16. C 36. D 56. B 76. A 96. C
17. A 37. A 57. B 77. A 97. C
18. B 38. A 58. C 78. A 98. B
19. C 39. D 59. C 79. B 99. A
20. A 40. B 60. C 80. B 100. A

101. B 121. B 141. B 161. D 181. B

102. C 122. B 142. D 162. A 182. A
103. D 123. C 143. A 163. B 183. C
104. C 124. B 144. D 164. C 184. A
105. D 125. C 145. D 165. A 185. A
106. C 126. C 146. D 166. D 186. A
107. D 127. A 147. D 167. A 187. B
108. D 128. D 148. D 168. A 188. B
109. B 129. A 149. B 169. A 189. B
110. A 130. D 150. B 170. B 190. B
111. D 131. B 151. B 171. B 191. A
112. A 132. D 152. D 172. B 192. A
113. D 133. C 153. A 173. C 193. C
114. C 134. D 154. A 174. D 194. A
115. A 135. B 155. B 175. D 195. D
116. A 136. A 156. D 176. B 196. C
117. A 137. B 157. D 177. A 197. A
118. A 138. B 158. A 178.- 198. D
119. C 139. B 159. D 179. - 199. A
120. C 140. D 160. C 180. C 200. A