REGULATIONS

1) The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering
which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a
period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:

A) 15

B) 20

C) 30

2) The holder of a commercial pilot licence when as Co-Pilot performing under the supervision of a
pilot who fulfils the flying experience requirements of a check pilot, the duties and functions of a
pilot-in-command shall be entitled to be credited:

A) in full with his flight time but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a
higher grade of pilot licence

B) 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in
accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority

C) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

3) The privileges of the holder of a Private Pilot's Licence shall be to act as

A) Pilot-in-command or as Co-pilot of any aeroplane provided no passengers are carried

B) Pilot-in-command or as Co-pilot of any aeroplane and carry passengers therein without

remunerations

C) Pilot-in-command or as Co-pilot of any aeroplane employed on aerial work for remuneration

4) An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot license aeroplane for the issue of an instrument
rating, shall have completed....hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in
categories acceptable to the licensing Authority

A) 20 hours

B) 40 hours

C) 50 hours

5) An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than....hours
of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight totaling not less
than....km(....NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be
made. The hours and distance referred are:

A) 15 hours and 540km (300NM)

B) 20 hours and 540km (300NM)

C) 10 hours and 270km (150NM)

6) If any person contravenes any of the provisions of Indian aircraft Act or the rules made
thereunder:

A) The licence, certificate or approval issued to such person may be suspended or cancelled.

B) The person may be arrested and will not be eligible for bail.

C) the person may be imprisoned for up to one year or fined Rupees one crore in lieu.

7) No authorized person must be present within _____ mts of a/c while refuelling is on

A) 15

B) 30

C) 50

8) An a/c with seating capacity of 150, what is the number of flight attendants required to be carried
on the flight:

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

9) The provisions contained in the Aircraft Rules, 1937 shall:

A) Apply to all unmanned aircraft systems.

B) Apply to only unmanned aircraft systems weighing more than 500 Kgs, excluding Defence systems.

C) Not apply to the Unmanned Aircraft Systems except for those specifically provided in these rules.

10) An aircraft without registration markings can be flown only

A) If the sale deed is not yet completed

B) For purpose of test flight only, prior to purchase.

C) If specially permitted in writing by the central govt.

11) Prisoners on Board an aircraft can be carried with the permission of

A) DGCA

B) Controller of Aerodrome

C) Director General of Prison

12) A pilot can fly an aircraft which is not entered in the aircraft rating of his licence for endorsement
on his licence

A) With in 5 nm of an aerodrome

B) With in Local Flying Area of the aerodrome

C) Anywhere
13) The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air
carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the

A) Hague Convention

B) Warsaw Convention

C) Tokyo Convention

14)The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:

A) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface

B) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft

C) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

15) Which convention is considered to be a fore runner of Chicago Convention, 1944?

A) Warsaw Convention, 1929

B) Paris Convention, 1919

C) Ibero-American Convention, 1926

16) Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying
or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?

A) The Tokyo convention

B) The Montreal convention

C) The Warsaw convention

17) The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall
be that assigned by:

A) The International Telecommunication Union

B) The state of registry or common mark registering authority

C) The state of registry only

18) A company undertaking to lease aircraft in India must be approved by:

A) DGCA

B) IFSCA

C) MOCA

19) An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control
tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:

A) Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions

B) Return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course

C) Not land because the airport is not available for landing

20) If radiocommunication is established during an interception but communications in a common
language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request
the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?

A) Descend for landing

B) Descend

C) You land

21) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

A) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards

B) Crossing arms extended above his head

C) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist

22) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:

A) An area unit for the movement of aircraft

B) Need special precautions while approaching for landing

C) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed

23) The aerodrome at Calicut is not declared suitable for night operations. If the sunrise is at 0540
the earliest time by which an VFR aircraft operation at the station can take place is;

A) 0530

B) 0520

C) 0550

24) A revised estimate shall be notified if the ETA destination passed by aircraft varies by:

A) 3 minutes

B) 2 minutes

C) 5 minutes

25) What is Special VFR?

A) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without
compliance with IFR

B) A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC

C) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to
remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
26) A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air
Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or
minus:

A) 5%

B) Mach 0.02

C) %10

27) Two or more white crosses, displayed on runways and taxiways, indicate that:

A) The threshold has been displaced

B) The section of the runway or taxiway is unfit for aircraft movement

C)The runway or taxiway should be used with caution

28) When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be
informed in case:

A) Of an emergency

B) The estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes

C) The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan

29) An airborne flight plan must be submitted:

A) 30 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or advisory area

B) 10 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or advisory area

C) 60 minutes before the intended point of entry into a CTA or advisory area

30) While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100 degrees relative bearing. In
that case you should see his:

A) Red navigation light

B) Green navigation light

C) Green and white navigation lights

31) The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

A) Uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase

B) Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase

C) Uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase

32) DETRESFA is where:

A) An aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of being cleared to land

B) All answers are correct.

C) The fuel on board is considered to be exhausted

33) When a pilot raises his arms extended palms facing outwards and moves his hands inwards to
cross in front of the face this means:

A) Remove chocks

B) Insert chocks

C) Brakes released

34) A black letter "C" on a yellow background indicates:

A) The location of the control tower.

B) The location where visiting pilots should report.

C) Rest-room facilities for visiting pilots

35) If the sustained Mach number/true airspeed at cruising level varies by plus or minus _____ true
airspeed or more from the current flight plan, the appropriate air traffic services unit shall be so
informed:

A) Mach 0.2

B) 5%

C) 19 km/h

36) Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?

A) Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: required;

B) Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required;

C) Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required;

37) If you see red and white lights of the aircraft ahead, it means:

A) The aircraft is moving from left to right.

B) The aircraft is moving from right to left.

C) The aircraft is flying near parallel to you.

38) In areas where a vertical separation minimum (VSM) of 300 m (1000 ft) is applied between FL
290 and FL 410 inclusive an aircraft on a magnetic track of 350 would be expected to fly at:

A) FL 410

B) FL 405

C) FL 400

39) In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or
cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:

A) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure

B) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks

C) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure

40) ADC validity for non-schedule domestic flights is:

A) (-15) minutes to (+45) minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.

B) (+60) minutes of EOBT in RPL/FPL.

C) (-15) minutes to (+3) hours of EOBT.

41) The following airspace falls under Kolkata FIR?

A) VED

B) VEB

C) VOR

42) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic
control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are
separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified
as:

A) Airspace B

B) Airspace E

C) Airspace C

43) Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground
visibility is not less than 1500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio
receiver within class:

A) D airspace

B) D and E airspace

C) E airspace

44)An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected
occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level
aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in
the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is

A) An En-Route Met Report

B) A NOTAM

C) An AIRMET information

45) Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:

A) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth

B) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit

C) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900ft above the earth
46) Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a
navigation accuracy of:

A) Plus or minus 4 NM on a 95% containment basis

B) Plus or minus 4 NM on a 98% containment basis

C) Plus or minus 4 NM on a 90% containment basis

47) Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the
responsibility of:

A) Both air traffic services and the meteorological office

B) The meteorological office serving the aerodromes

C) The air traffic services

48) A strayed aircraft is an aircraft:

A) that has deviated significantly from its intended track or reports that it is lost.

B) that has been observed or is reported to be operating in a given area but whose identity has not
been established.

C) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track.

49) In AIP, Enroute 3.2, ATS routes are described as:

A) Upper ATS Routes

B) Air Navigation Routes

C) Non RNP routes

50) Temporary Reserved Area (TRA) is an airspace temporarily reserved and allocated:

A) through which other traffic may be allowed to transit in VMC only

B) through which other traffic is not allowed to transit without proper equipment

C) through which other traffic may be allowed to transit under ATC clearance