Ep Semi0910 Fka PDF

FAKULTI KEJURUTERAAN AWAM
SOALAN PEPERIKSAAN SEMESTER JULAI

SESI2009/2010
BIL KOD MATA PELAJARAN NAMA MATA PELAJARAN MUKASURAT
1 SAB 1023 ENGINEERING SURVEY

2 SAB 2032 / SAM 3012 MECHANICAL AND ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
3 SAB 1213 APPLIED MECHANICS
4 SAB 2112 / SAM 3123 CIVIL ENGINEERING MATERIALS
5 SAB 2223 / SAM 2213 MECHANICS OF MATERIALS AND STRUCTURES
6 SAB 3112/ SAM 41I2 CONTRACT & ESTIMATING
7 SAB 3122 / SAM 4123 / CONSTRUCTION TECHNOLOGY
SAA 3133
8 SAB 3233 / SAM 4324/ DESIGN OF STEEL AND TIMBER STRUCTURES
SAA 4244
9 SAB 3243 / SAM 3223 / THEORY OF STRUCTURES
SAA 3213
10 SAB 3353/ SAM 3313 / REINFORCED CONCRETE DESIGN I
SAA 3243
11 SAM 4113/ SAM 5113 CONSTRUCTION PROJECT MANAGEMENT
12 SAB 4133 CONSTRUCTION LAW AND CONTRACT
13 SAB 4143 CONSTRUCTION PLANT AND EQUIPMENT
14 SAB 4163 / SZW 4163 CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
15 SAB 4203 STRUCTURAL DYNAMICS AND INSTABILITY
16 SAB 4223/ SAM 4213 / STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
SAA 4214/ SZW 4223
17 SAB 4233 / SAM 5233 OFFSHORE STRUCTURES
18 SAB 4243 FINITE ELEMENT ANALYSIS
19 SAB 4293 ADVANCED SOLID MECHANICS
20 SAB 4323 PRESTRESSED CONCRETE DESIGN
21 SAB 4333 / SAM 4314 / REINFORCED CONCRETE DESIGN 2
SAA 4344 / SZW 4333
22 SAB 4383 TALL BUILDING SYSTEM: ANALYSIS & DESIGN
23 SAU 4422 REINFORCED CONCRETE DESIGN
24 SAB 4412 / SAM 5413 / CIVIL ENGINEERING INFORMATION SYSTEM
SAA 4144/ SZW 4422
25 SAB 4463 CONSTRUCTION INTEGRATED ENVIRONMENT
26 SAB 1513/ SAA 2513 FLUID MECHANICS
27 SAB 2513 / SAM 3513 / HYDRAULICS
SAA 3622
28 SAB 3613 HYDROLOGY
29 SAB 4523 COASTAL ENGINEERING
30 SAB 4613 INTEGRATED WATER RESOURCES
31 SAB 4623 HYDROLOGIC ANALYSIS & DESIGN
32 SAB 4643 ENVIRONMENTAL HYRDAULICS
33 SAB 1713 SOIL MECHANICS
34 SAB 2712 / SAM 3722 GEOLOGY & ROCK MECHANICS
SENARAI KEPERLUAN PENGGUNA BAG! BUSINESS INTELLIGENCE SYSTEM
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) FAKULTI KEJlJRUTERAAN AWAM
SOALAN PEPERIKSAAN SEMESTER JlJLAI
SESI2009/2010
BIL KOD MATA PELAJARAN NAMA MATA PELAJARAN MUKASURAT
35 SAB2722 GEOTECHNICS I
36 SAB 3712 GEOTECHNICS II
37 SAB 4713 GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING DESIGN
38 SAB 4733 / SAM 5733 / FOUNDATION ENGINEERING
SAA 4734
39 SAB 2832 HIGHWAY ENGINEERING
40 SAB 3842 TRAFFIC ENGINEERING
41 SAB 4813 ADV ANCE HIGHWAY ENGINEERING
42 SAB 4823 HIGHWAY & TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
43 SAU 4812 FUNDAMENTAL PRINCIPLE OF HIGHWAY ...
44 SAB 2912 WATER TREATMENT
45 SAB 2922 WASTEWATER ENGINEERING
46 SAB 4913 / SAM 5913 / ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT
SAA 3922
47 SAB 4923 ADVANCED WATER WASTEWATER TREATM...
48 SAB 4943 / SAM 5943 / INTRODUCTION TO MULTICIPAL SOLID WASTE
SAA4954
49 SAB 4973 INDUSTRIAL & HAZARDOUS WASTE
50 SAB 4983 WATER QUALITY MANAGEMENT
51 SAU 4912 PRINCIPLE OF ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEE ...
30000010208711
SOALAN PEPERIKSAAN
SEMESTER JULAI
2009/2010
FAKULTI KEJURUTERAAN AWAM

UTM
SAB l023l r
UTM
l",l(ttl/I' "I'
C,nIEn~ll",,,riltg
Ul'llVEAsrn TEKMOlOGl MAlUS1A
FINAL EXAMINATION
SEMESTER I, SESSION 2009/2010
COURSE CODE SAB 1023
COURSE ENGINEERING SURVEY
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES:
ANSWERS ALL QUESTIONS IN SECTIONS A AND B.
WARNING!
Students caught copying/cheating during the examination will be liable for
disciplinary actions and the faculty may recommend the student to be expelledfrom
the study.
This examination question consists of (13) printed pages only.

SAB 102312 .
SECTION A (60 marks)
1. Which of the followings describes the effects of parallax?
A. The cross-hairs are not in focus resulting in wrong staff readings.

B. The images of the staff and cross-hairs appear to be on the same plane thus
giving accurate readings.
C. Any errors in levelling the instrument are automatically corrected by
parallax.
D. The presence of parallax will facilitate collimation error evaluations.
E. Non-verticality of staves can be ignored in the reduction of the levels.
2. Why is it necessary to keep the backsight and foresight distances approximately

equal?
A. To minimise the random errors in reading the leveling staves.

B. To eliminate the systematic errors in the level.
C. To facilitate arithmetic checks.
D. To avoid making gross errors in booking the staff readings.
E. To ensure the difference between the foresights and backsights is zero.
3. Which of the followings is not a source of random error in levelling?
A. Staff not vertical

B. Instrument out of level
C. Collimation error
D. Unstable change points
E. Reading error
4. If the backsight to a staff held on a bench mark (RL 29.663 m) reads 2.543 m,
what would the reduced level of a foresight point with a staff reading of 3.221 m
be?
A. 32.206 m
B. 27.120m
C. 28.985 m
SAB 102313
D. 23.899 m
E. 35.427 m
5. What is the purpose of correcting the calculated (computed) reduced levels in a

level book?
A. To eliminate the effects of gross errors in the staff readings.

B. To minimize the systematic errors that were present in the instruments.
C. To divide equally systematic errors to all staff readings.
D. To distribute the random errors that had occurred.
E. To produce an error free staff observations.
6. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of observing angles
in both faces when conducting a traverse?
A. Observing angles in both faces will minimize the time taken in calculating
the required angle.
B. The angle obtained in face left differs by 1800 against those obtained in
face right.
C. Observing angles in both faces will eliminate gross errors of the telescope.
D. The collimation line will be truly vertical if angles in both faces are
observed.
E. Gross errors can be detected if angles are observed in both faces.
7. The horizontal circle reading to a forward station was observed as 348 0 34' 35".
Calculate its bearing if the horizontal circle reading to the back station was 1170
11' 33". The back bearing to the back station is given as 277 0 21' 50".
A. 128 0 36' 58"

B. 231 0 23' 02"
C. 148 0 35' 38"
D. 45 0 58' 48"
E. 128 0 36' 58"
SAB 1023\4
8. Angles are adjusted (corrected) before further calculations are made. Which one
of the following statements is correct about angle adjustments?
A. Angle corrections are only valid if the angular misclosure is less than ± 2'
45".
B. Angles are corrected based on the ratio of the misclosure and the number
of angles observed.
C. The aim of correcting observed angles is to eliminate gross errors in the
angle observations.
D. Angle corrections are applied cummulatively to each of the left hand
angles observed.
E. No corrections are needed when computing the results of a link traverse.
9. Which of the following statements is true about linear misclosures in traverse

calculations?
A. Linear misclosure can be used to determine the area of a loop traverse.

B. Systematic errors in measuring the traverse distances are calculated based
on linear misclosure .
C. The accuracy of a traverse can be assessed by computing its linear
misclosure.
D. Linear misclosure is needed when distance corrections are applied.
E. Corrections to the latitudes and departures are based on linear misclosures.
10. Which of the following statements DO NOT describe the usage of traverse in
civil engineering projects?
A. Traverse provides a framework that is referred to when measuring details

or setting out.
B. Traverse is used to determine reduced levels of points at construction sites.
C. Positions of points of interest are normally determined based on a traverse
network previously established.
D. The coordinates obtained in a traverse can be utilised to calculate the
surveyed area.
E. None of the above.
SAB 1023l 5
11. If the latitude and departure of a traverse line IS -23.556m and 89.113m
respectively, what is its bearing and distance?
A. 284 0 48' 25"

B. 104 0 48'25"
C. 345 0 11' 35"
D. 165 0 11' 35"
E. 14° 48' 25"
12. Which of the following is NOT an example of random errors in traversing?
A. Instrument is not truly horizontal.

B. Tripods are not centred accurately over the traverse stations.
C. Parallax.
D. Booking errors.
E. Aiming (targeting) errors.
13. Select the correct statement pertaining to transition curves.
A. Transition curves are fixed-radius curves.

B. The setting-out of transition curves in based on its intersection point.
C. The calculations of transition curves are easier compared to those of
circular curves
D. The use of transition curves can reduce the centrifugal forces acting on the
driver.
E. Cubic parabola is an example of spiral that be used in road curve designs.
14. Superelevations are introduced in road cunre design for the purpose of ..
A. Increasing vehicles velocity.

B. Balancing the forces acting on the vehicle.
C. Keeping the effects of centrifugal force to a minimum.
D. Widening the road.
E. Facilitating setting out the curve in the field.
SAB 1023160
15. The mInImUm required length of a transition curve IS determined by the

following variables, except ;-
A. Vehicle's speed.
B. Rate of change of radial acceleration.
C. Radius of the circular curve.
D. Superelevation.
E. Degree of a curve.
16. Which of the followings is NOT a type of transition curves?
A. Clothoid.
B. Cubic Spiral.
C. Lemniscate.
D. Cubic parabola.
E. Spiral.
17. Which of the following statements about vertical curves is FALSE?
A. Vertical curves are needed at intersection of grades.

B. A vertical curve reduces the effects of the vertical radial force.
C. A suitable vertical curve would be a curve that has a constant rate of
change of gradient.
D. Steeper grades would require longer vertical curves.
E. Several geometrical assumptions are made to facilitate calculations.
18. Which of the followings is considered when determining the length of a vertical
curve for steeper grades?
A. Sighting distance.
B. Radial force.
C. Speed.
D. Radius.
E. Rate of change of gradient.
SAB 1023 \ T
19. What is the algebraic difference of two grades -3.5% and -1.50.10?
A. 2%.
B. -2%
C. 5%
D. -5%
E. -4%
20. Calculate the offset for a point 85 m from the first running tangent of a 250 m
vertical curve that connects two grades of 4% and -2.5% respectively.
A. 0.47 m
B. 0.07 m
C. 1.33 m
D. 1.09 m
E. 0.72 m
21. Which of the following is FALSE pertaining to vertical curves characteristics?
A. The vertical line that passes through the grade intersection is the radius of
the parabolao
B. The horizontal distance is equal to the distance on the grade.
C. The offset is directly proportional to the square of the distance from the
running tangent.
D. The length of a vertical curve may initially be assumed as S=21 when
calculating the required length.
E. The maximum radial force on the curve occurs at the highest point.
22. The following list describes methods that can be applied when determining areas
from plans, except :-
A. Simpsons
B. Coordinates.
C. Trapezoidal.
D. Planimeter.
E. End-Areas.
SAB 102318
23. When determining areas of irregular figures or shapes, it is logical to divide the
area into regular and irregular shapes. Which of the following combination
describes the most suitable methods to be used?
A. Planimeter and end-areas.

B. Coordinates and planimeter.
C. Simpson and trapezoidal.
D. Planimeter and prismoidal.
E. Simpson and end-areas.
24. The area of five cross-sections (at intervals of 25m) of a proposed new road were
measured. The areas are 145m2 , 120m2 , 165m2 , 98m2 and 77m2 . Determine the
volume between these cross sections.
A. 12662 m 3
B. 10983 m 3
C. 11867 m3
D. 12350 m3
E. 12500 m 3
25. The followings are terminologies used in a mass-haul diagram analysis, except :-
A. Free-haul distance.
B. Over-haul volume.
C. Haul.
D. Waste.
E. Nett volume.
26. What corrections are applied to excavated volumes In mass-haul diagram

analysis?
A. Wastage and borrowage.

B. Haulage excess.
C. Bulkage and shrinkage.
D. Seepage.
E. Void surplus
SAB 1023 \ 9
27. Which of the following does not reflect the usage of a balancing line in mass-
haul diagram analysis?
A. To determine the optimum haulage distance.

B. To ascertain waste and borrow areas.
C. To calculate the over-haul volumes.
D. To determine the average haul distance.
E. To estimate free-haul costs.
28. Figure 1 shows a mass-haul diagram between chainages 2000m and 2600m of a
proposed road. If the balancing line is at cumulative volume -1000m3, estimate
the haul volume to the nearest 100 m 3 .
A. 4,900 m3
B. 3,200 m 3
C. 5,200 m3
D. 5,800 m3
E. 4,100 m 3
SAB 1023110
29. Estimate the over-haul distance, if the free-haul distance is given as 200 metre?
A. 30m.
B. 85m.
C.65m.
D. 115m.
E. Om.
30. Estimate the free -haul cost (to the nearest RM100.00 ) if the rate is RM1.50 per
3
m .
A. RM 7,400.00
B. RM 2,800.00
C. RM 1,500.00
D. RM 6,400.00
E. RM 4,600.00
,
SAB 1023111
SECTIONB
Q1. (a) Two straights, AI and IB, whose bearings are 49° 30' and 85° respectively
intersect at I, are to be connected by a combined curve. The chainage of I
is 4528m while its coordinates are (32482.45m N, 29982.92m E). The
design speed and radius have been fixed at 80 km/h and 300m
respectively. Adopting a rate of change of acceleration of 0.3 mls 3,
prepare the setting out table (to nearest cm) for the FIRST transition
only at 20 m intervals.
(20 marks)
(b) During setting out, it was found out that the location of the first running
tangent (T 1) is obstructed and not accessible. Supposing that the curve
could be set out from I, calculate the required bearings and distances from
I of the first four points on the FIRST transition.
(20 marks)
SAB 1023112
EQUATIONS
Traverse
latitude = distance x cos(bearing) departure = distance x sin(bearing)
. distance
Bowditch correction; latitude correction = Jlatltude x - - - -
Edistance
. distance
departure correctIOn = Jdeparture x - - - -
Idistance
Levelling
Allowable error = (±20J]) mm
Detailing
H = slope distance x cos (vertical angle) ; V = slope distance x sin (vertical angle)
Reduced Level = Station reduced level + Instrument height ± V - Height of reflector
Transition Curves
l~ =IT4
e L
= (R+s )tan-+- p
.
v3
L =-
L
s=-p
Z
radians
2 2 , P aR 24R
_ 18001 2
() =
7l:RL p
minutes eand rp are in degrees
Cicular Curves
IT; = ITz = Rtan-
e b =: 1718.9x chords
minutes
2 R
Vertical Curve s
y=(p±q)x2 •
location of highest/lowest point, x =~ I
400/ ' p+q
2
v
Curve Length, 21 = (p ± q ) - -
100f
(S = 21) h =( ~~~) ; (S > 21) h= (S-I

400
)(p + q)
(8 < 2/) h ~ ( ~6~ J[ ~2 J
Areas & Volumes
Trapezoidal: A = ~ {OJ + On + 2(02 + 0 3 + .... + On_J)}
Simpson: A = ~ {O, + On + 4L(Oodd)+ 2L(Oeven)}
d
End - areas: A = 2 {AI + An + 2(A z + A 3 + .... + A n-1 )}
Prismoidal : V = ~ {AI + An + 4L(A odd ) + 2L(A even )}

SAB 1023113
NAME
-~-
NRIC
COURSE CODE
SECTIONS
ACADEMIC STAF
OBJECTIVES QUESTIONS
Ql. A B C D E Q16. A B C D E
Q2. A B C D E Q17. A B C D E
QI0. A B C D E Q25. A B C D E
Qll. A B C D E Q26. A B C D E
SAB 20321 SAM 3012\1
UTM
UfIYERSI'fI TEKNOLOGIIALA'fSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB 2032 1 SAM 3012
COURSE MECHANICAL AND ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER FOUR (4) QUESTIONS ONLY, TWO (2) QUESTIONS FROM
SECTION A AND TWO (2) QUESTIONS FROM SECTION B.
2. ALL VALUES ARE AS USED IN LECTURE NOTES
3. SECTION A AND SECTION B MUST BE WRITTEN IN SEPARATE
BOOKS.
4. ALL CALCULATIONS MUST BE CLEARLY SHOWN.
WARNING!
the study.
This examination question consists of(13) printed pages only.
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SAB 2032/ SAM 301213
Q2. (a) What are the properties of air controlled by an air-conditioner.
(5 marks)
(b) Explain the operation of the cooling tower in a Centralised Air-

conditioning Plant.
(10 marks)
(c) Why are Split Units Air-conditioners more favourable as compared to

A Centralised Air-Conditioning Plant.
(10 marks)
Q3. (a) What are the uses of lift in a multi- storey building, and according to
common building by-laws when is a lift required in multi- storey
building
(5 marks)
(b) Explain the functions of the counterweight in a traction elevator
(5 marks)
(c) Fig Q3 shows a simplified traction elevator. The combined weight of

the lift car and occupants is 2500 N. Frictional forces between the lift
car and guide rails equals to one percent of the weight of the lift car. If
the counterweight is 1500 N, calculate tension in the hoist rope when,
i) the lift ascend at constant speed
ii) the lift descend at constant speed
(15 marks)
SAB 2032/ SAM 301214
PULLEYS
~
,-..o;:----~ ............
MOTOR
~HOIST
ROPE
COUNTERWEIGHT
z
LIFT CAR 2
1500 N
2500 N
FIG 03
SAB 20321 SAM 301215
Q4 (a) Sketch and explain the philosophy of the Fire Triangle in relation to
fire fighting.
(5 marks)
(b) Why is carbon dioxide gas (C02) widely used in putting electrical fire.
(5 marks)
(c) Fig Q4 shows the isometric view of power exchange block. It is

decided that the length of the building should be four times its breadth
and the height of the building should be two and half times its breadth.
Machineries installed occupy 25 % of the space in the block. Only 4
cylinders of C02 are to be used to suppressed any fire that may break.
out. Estimate the dimensions of power exchange block. (For 100% air
displacement, take the density of CO2 as 1.800 kg/m 3 and each
cylinder holds 882.9 N of C02 )
(15 markY)
Fig. Q4
SAB 20321 SAM 3012/6
to .~
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./
/
V
V V
• V V k' . . . .
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.05 .to .r .4 .s .• .• l. 2 3 4 S •
loss Of Head In Metres
HEAD LOSS THROUGH sroPVALYES

SAB 20321 SAM 301217
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Loss 01 Head III Metres
HEAD LOSS THROUGH STOPVAtVIS

SAB 2032/ SAM 301218
Loss Of Pressure Newton I Melre' Per Melre Run

1 10 20 50 100 200 soo 1000
50 T
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_000 I _0002 _0005 .COl .C02 .oos .01 .02 .05 .1 .2 .6 .6 .• I.
Loss Head In Metres Per Metre Run
PIPE SIZING FOR COPPER AND PLASTIC PIPES

SAB 20321 SAM 301219
30
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20 50 \00 200 500 1000 2000 5000 10A

Loading Units
LOADING UNITS AND DESIGN FLOW RATES

SAB 2032/ SAM 3012110
SECTION B : ELECTRICAL
Ql. (i) Figure Ql(a) shows an example of a basic electrical system. Briefly,
explain the four components that make up an electrical system.
(8 marks)
Switch (Control Apparatus)
Generator Lamp Bulb

(Source) (Load Unit)
Wires (Transmission System)
FIGURE 01<a)
(ii) Figure QI(b) shows the wavefonns of an alternate current and voltage.
Give one difference between a Direct Current (DC) and an Alternate
Current (AC) supply.
(2 marks)
e
ym····..···· ..···
I• ......~ ..
, #
t (5)
(iii) If the value of Vm and 1m are 7.45 V and 350 rnA (miliampere)
respectively, calculate the value of Vnns and Inns.
(3 marks)
(iv) Based on the calculated values in (iii), find the value of real power,
reactive power and apparent power if 9 is found out to be 35° .
(12 marks)
SAB 20321 SAM 3012 \ 11
Q2. (a) Discuss briefly the main functions of transfonner.
(4 marks)
(b) Draw a figure of a basic component of a single phase transfonner and

label each component clearly.
(4 marks)
(c) There is a transfonner with Nt = 100 turns and N2 = 300 turns. A 9

ohm resistive load is connected to the secondary side. On the primary
side, there is a voltage supply of 10 V with internal resistive
impedance of 1 ohm. Based on the above
(i) Draw the circuit
(3 marks)
(ii) Calculate the effective resistance in the primary side
(3 marks)
(iii) Calculate the effective resistance in the secondary side
(3 marks)
(iv) Calculate the current in the primary and secondary side
(4 marks)
(v) Detennine the power dissipated in the secondary side
(4 marks)
SAB 20321 SAM 3012112
Q3. (a) In calculating the demand of electrical wiring, explain briefly the
following
(i) Total connected load (TCL)
(2 marks)
(ii) Maximum Demand (MD)
(2 marks)
(iii) Diversity Factor
(2 marks)
(b) The following questions are based on "Schematic single line diagram"
in Figure Q3(a) and "Diversity Factor Table" in Table Q3(a) for a
wiring of a single storey house:
(i) Explain the function ofMCB 6A at (A).
(3 marks)
(ii) At (B), MCB 20A is used instead of MCB 6A. Can MCB 6A
be used at (B). Give your reasons.
(3 marks)
(iii) Explain the function of "ELCBB SPN 40 1O.lA" at (C).
(3 marks)
(iv) What is the meaning of "2 x 16mm2 CU in PVC Conduit" at

(D).
(3 marks)
(v) By considering the diversity factors in Table Q3(a), calculate

the total maximum demand for the lightings of the single storey
house.
(7 marks)
SAB 20321 SAM 3012113
r----- 2 x 1~ CU IN PVC Conduit ,(D)

r - - - - 2 x 2.5mm2 CU IN PVC Conduit
(C) ELCB
SPN 40/0.1'" . 3 x "JeW ftghting point
2 x 65W celllng fan
6 x 20W Hghtlng point
2 x 13-' output locket
2 x 13,\ output socket
1 x 8trcondltlQrlIng unit .
FIGURE 03(8)
Load Diversity factor

Lightings 66%
Ceiling fan 70%
Air conditioning unit 100%
TABLE03(a)
SAB 1213 \ 1
f':u:ub\'uf
• UTM
•. • • CkiJE.,;_
UN/VERStTI TEkMOlOGf MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB1213
COURSE APPLIED MECHANICS
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS 30 MINUTES
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWERS FIVE (5) QUESTIONS, TWO (2) QUESTIONS FROM
SECTION A AND THREE (3) QUESTIONS FROM SECTION B.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 121312
SECTION A - ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY.
Q1. (a) A force F has a magnitude of 8 N passing through points A and B with
coordinates (0,6,5)m and (-4,0,2)m, respectively, as shown in Figure
QI(a). Find the component of F along the line joining points C and D,
with coordinates (0,3,-1)m and (6,1,2)m, respectively.
(10 marks)
(b) A bucket is positioned above an opening using a rope passing through a

pulley at B. The pulley is connected to a wall by a cable, as shown in
Figure Q1(b). Find the angle e where the force P will be exerted in the
cable to position the load 250 kg exactly above the opening. Calculate
also the tension force T in the cable AB.
(10 marks)
(20 marks)
A(O,6,S) / \ C(O,3,-1)
8(-4,0,2) I \
\
\
\
\
F=8N
z D(6,l,2)
,
\
x
9
p
\. ,oOOmm pulley
250kgPR
FIGURE 01(a)
1.2m L
FIGURE 01(b)
SAB 121313
Q2. Figure Q2 shows a 2.5 m by 1.5 m plate with a self-weight 1.2 kN is supported
by a ball and socket joint at A and two cables as shown. Detennine:
(a) The unit vectors DDB and DEC along cables DB and Be, respectively.
(4 marks)
(b) The tension in the cables.
(8 marks)
(c) The reactions at A.
(8 marks)
(20 marks)
x
y
FIGUREQ2
SAB 121314
Q3. A 50 kg cabinet is mounted on two wheels A and B as shown in Figure Q3.

The coefficient of static friction between the floor and each wheel is 0.3.
(a) When both wheels are locked:

(i) Determine the force P required for impending motion of the cabinet,
if h = 0.54 m.
(6 marks)
(ii) What is the largest allowable height h if the cabinet is not to tip
over.
(8 marks)
(b) If wheel B is unlocked, what is the force P required for impending

motion of the cabinet when h=0.S4.
(6 marks)
(20 marks)
FIGUREQ3
SAB 121315
Q4. (a) Figure Q4(a) shows a rectangular cross section with a semi circle hole.
Determine the moment of inertia of the section about the centroidal
horizontal axis.
(12 marks)
(b) From the result in (a), obtain the moment of inertia about the centroidal
horizontal axis x' of the section shown in Figure Q4(b).
(8 marks)
(20 marks)
The section properties of a semi circle with the centroid at C is given in Table
Q4.
!-.
----5---~-
I
4
l~
FIGURE 04(a)
FIGURE Q4(b)
TABLEQ4
y
SAB 121316
SECTION B - ANSWER Q5 AND TWO (2) OTHER QUESTIONS
Q5. Figure Q5 shows a steel ball hung to system of cable and a spring. The tension
in cable Be is 500 N. The original length of spring 1 is 1.0 m. At certain
point the cable holding the ball breaks. The ball falls downwards to D and roUs
to hit spring 2 at F. determine:
(a) All the forces in the cable and spring 1 before the cable breaks.
(2 marks)
(b) The stiffness of the spring and the mass of the ball.
(2 marks)
(c) The velocity of the ball when it drops at D.
(4 marks)
(d) The velocity of the ball at E if the energy lost to friction, sound and
heat is 4500 Nm.
(4 marks)
(e) If the kinetic coefficient of friction !Jk, of the flat surface is 0.35 and
assuming the stiffness of spring 2 is 4000 N/m, how much is the
deformation of spring 2 in bringing the ball to rest.
(8 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 121319
Q8. (a) Figure Q8(a) shows two blocks A and B connected by a cable through a
pulley. In addition, weight A is held by a spring with a stiffness of 550
N/m. The weights of blocks A and Bare 0.5 kN and 2 kN, respectively.
If the system is initially at rest, determine the velocity of block B after it
has dropped 1.5 m.
(14 marh)
(b) A 100 g ball is pitched with a velocity of 20 mls towards a batter. After
the ball is hit by the bat, it has a velocity of 32 mls in the direction
shown in Figure Q8(b). If the bat and the ball are in contact for 0.015 s,
determine the average impulsive force exerted on the ball during the
impact.
(6 marks)
(20 marks)
FIGURE Q8(b)
FIGURE Q8(a)
SAB 2112/ SAM 312311
F,u'nm'ur
UTM .
UPtIVEASlTl TEKNOlOGI MALAVSlA ,

"" ':"i,~,.
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB 2112/ SAM 3123
COURSE CIVIL ENGINEERING MATERIALS
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER/ NOVEMBER 2009
1. ANSWER FOCR(4) QUESTIONS ONLY.
2. ALL QUESTlONS MUST BE ANSWERED IN ENGLISH
-----,--_._.._-._-_. - - -
lYARNIIYJi.1
Students cf.-iught copyinglcheating during tile examination will be liable for
disciplinary actions and thefacu!~y may recommend the student to be expelledjrom
the study.
ThIS examination qllestion consists of (4) printed pages only.

SAB 2112/ SAM 312312
Ql. (a) Define ordinary Portland cement and explain its function in concrete
mix. Discuss with example the effect of the following properties of
cement on the strength and durability of concrete:
i) Chemical composition
ii) Fineness
iii) Soundness
(12 marks)
(b) A standard concrete mix design for concrete Grade 25 has the
following proportions:
Ordinary Portland Cement = 340kglm 3
3
Un crushed, 20mm diameter, coarse aggregate = 1098 kg/m
3
Crushed fine aggregate = 732kg/m
Water-Cement ratio = 0.57
lfthe strength of the concrete need to be upgraded to Grade 50 and the
concrete is to be used to construct a jetty in Danga Bay, select the
materials and discuss what modification need to be made on the mix
proportions to fulfill the new requirements.
(13 marks)
(2.'i marks)
Q2. (a) A sample of fine aggregate has the following properties:

Wet mass == 625.2 g
Dry mass = 589.9 g
Absorption = 1.6%
Determine the total moisture content and free moisture content of the
aggregate.
Discuss the effect of particle shape, surface texture, and gradation of

coarse aggregate on the workability and strength of concrete.
(/2 marks)
foiiovving properties of stet'!:

SAB 2223/ SAM 2213 \ 1
e U.T.M.\=-
U1iIV£.ASITI TEKHOlOGt MALAYSiA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE MECHANICS OF MATERIALS AND STRUCTURES
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWERS FIVE (5) QUESTIONS ONLY.
2. DO NOT OPEN THE QUESTION BOOK UNTIL INSTRUCTION IS
GIVEN.
3. PLEASE CIRCLE THE QUESTION NUMBERS ANSWERED ON THE
FRONT PAGE OF YOUR ANSWER SCRIPT.
WARNING!
Students caught copying/cheating during the examination will be liable jar
the study.

SAB 2223/ SAM 2213 \ 2
Ql. The copper shaft in Figure Ql is subjected to the axial loads shown. Determine
the displacement of end A with respect to end D if the diameters of each
segment are dAB = 20 mm, dBC = 25 mm, and dCD = 12 rom. Take the modulus
of elasticity of the aluminum, Ecopper, 101 GPa
Bar gangsa dalam Rajah Q1 dikenakan daya paksi seperti yang ditwijukkan.
Tentukan anjakan pada hujung A terhadap hujung D jika diameter setiap
.'legmen adalah dAB = 20 mm, d BC = 25 mm, dan dCD = 12 mm. Ambil modulus
keanjalan aluminium, Ecopper, 101 GPa.
(20 marks/markah)
~I< 3.75m >~

I 25~ I
t;q---------,P-l
lOkN 30kN
40kN
•A 25 O-k-N--....Ib--+
FIGURE 01 / RAJAH Q1
Q2. At a point in a structure subjected to plane stress, the stresses have the
magnitudes and directions shown acting on element A in Figure Q2(a).
Element B, located at the same point in the structure, is oriented at an angle 81
(between 90 0 and 1800 ) such that the stresses are as shown in Figure Q2(b).
Using Mohr's Circle:
Pada satu titik dalam satu struktur yang dikenakan tegasan .'latah, tegasan
mempunyai magnitud dan arah seperti yang ditunjukkan bertindak ke atas
elemen A dalam Rajah Q2(a). Elemen B, terletak pada titik yang .'lama dalam
struktur, yang berkedudukan pada satu sudut 8j (di amara 90° dan 180°)
dengan tegasan adalah seperti yang ditunjukkan dalam Rajah Q2(b).
Menggunakan bulatan Mohr:
a) Determine the principal stresses (0'1 and 0"2). Show them on a sketch of
a properly oriented element.
Tentukan tegasan utama (G"I dan G""1J. Tunjukkan pada lakaran elemen
pada orientasi yang betul.
(7 marks/markah)
SAB 22231 SAM 221313
b) Calculate the normal stress (J'b, the shear stress 'lb and the angle 8\.
Hitung tegasan normal (J'b, tegasan ricih 'lb dan sudut 8\.
(7 marks/markah)
c) Determine the maximum and minimum shear stresses (Tmax and Tmin).
Show them on a sketch of a properly oriented element.
Tentukan tegasan ricih maksimum dan minimum (( t"max dan Tmin ).
Tunjukkan mereka pada lakaran elemen pada orientasi yang betul.
(6 marks/markah)
(20 marks/markah)
r40 MPa
--7-> 16MPa
SOMP, 'b~
-Or_IOOMPa /kj:J
< f;;I~
1
(a) ~b)
FIGURE Q2 1 RAJAH 92
Beam ABC is suported at A and B and an overhang at BC. A uniformly

distributed load of 4 kN/m spans B-A. An L-shaped hook which has a drop
ofO.Sm and length 1m is rigidly connected at end C as shown in Figure Q3. A
point load of20 leN is applied at the end of the L-shaped hook at D.
Rasuk ABC disokong di A dan B dan terjulur di BC Beban teragih seragam 4
kN/m dikenakan sepanjang rentang B-A. Satu penyangkuk berbentuk-L
dipasang tegar di hujung C seperti ditunjukkan dalam Rajah Q3. Beban
tumpu tegak 20 kN dikenakan di hujung D.
(a) Calculate the reactions at the supports A and B,

Hitung daya tindak balas di sokong A dan B,
(4 marks/markah)
(b) Construct the bending moment diagram and shear force diagram for
the beam, indicating all important values on each diagram.
SAB 2223/ SAM 221314
Bina gambarajah momen lentur dan gambarajah daya ricih bagi

rasuk, dengan menyatakan semua nilai penting dalam setiap
gambarajah.
(16 marks/markah)
(20 marks/markah)
t
D .. "<~
C I
4~m
/
1m 2m 8 8m A
.<E: )or( >< )0
FIGURE Q3 / RAJAH Q3
Q4. The beam which is carrying its self-weight and weight of the pre-cast slab at
its side has a cross section as shown in Figure Q4(a). All this weight are the
uniform distributed load, 72 kN/m acting throughout its span as shown in
Figure Q4(b).
Rasuk yang menanggung berat sendiri dan berat papak pra-tuang di sisinya,
berkeratan seperti yang ditunjukkan dalam Rajah 84(a). Kesemua berat-berat
itu, merupakan beban teragih seragam, 72 kN/m ke atas rasuk di sepanjang
rentangnya seperti yang ditunjukkan dalam Rajah 84(b).
(a) Compute the reactions at both supports.

Kirakan tindakbalas di kedua penyokong rasuk.
(2 marks/markah)
(b) Draw the shear force diagram (SFD) and bending moment diagram
(BMD) of the beam and show the important values in the diagram.
Lukiskan gambarajah daya ricih (GDR) dan gambarajah momen
lentur (GML) rasuk tersebut dengan menunjukkan nilai nilai penting di
gambarajah.
(4 marks/markah)
(c) Compute the moment of inertia, 1, of the beam.

Kirakan momen inertia, 1 rasuk tersebut.
(4 marks/markah)
SAB 22231 SAM 221315
(d) Compute the maximum tensile and compressive bending stresses, and
draw the bending stress distribution diagram of the cross section.
Kirakan tegasan lentur tegangan dan tegasan lentur mampatan pada
titik momen lentur maksimum, seterusnya lukiskan rajah taburan
tegasan lentur yang merentasi keratan tersebut.
(5 marks/markah)
(e) Compute the shear stress at the neutral axis, the point where shear
stress is maximum.
Kirakan tegasan ricih di paksi neutral, di titik tegasan ricih
maksimum.
(5 marks/markah)
(20 markslmarkah)
200 mm 100 mm 200 mm
~I( )~I
~
Slab Pre-cast slab, thickness of 150 mm Slab
t
/\
100mm
Neutral axis 300mm

- - - - -- --------
~ - -- ~\ --------~ - - - ' - - - -
r
\11
298mm
m
\11
500mm
(a)
Beam cross section

72 kN/m
(b)
FIGURE Q41 RAJAH Q4
SAB 2223/ SAM 2213 \ 6
Q5. A truss is supported by a pin at B and a cable connected from point A of the
truss to point F on a wall. Load 20 kN is hanged at point D as shown in Figure
Q5.
Satu kekuda disokong oleh pin di B dan satu kabel yang disambung dari titik
A kekuda ke titik F di dinding. Beban 20 kN digantung di titik D seperti
ditunjukkan dalam Rajah Q5.
(a) Show that the truss is stable and statically determinate internally and
externally.
Tunjukkan kekuda adalah stabil dan bolehtentu statik dalaman dan
luaran.
(4 marks/markah)
(b) Determine the forces in the members of the truss.

Tentukan daya dalam anggota kekuda.
(6 marks/markah)
(c) Calculate the vertical deflection of point E, if the cross section of the
each member is 300 mm2 and the Young's Modulus of elasticity is 200
kN/mm 2 .
Hitung pesungan tegak di titik E, jika keratan rentas setiap anggota
adalah 300 mm 2 dan Modulus Elastik Young adalah 200 kN/mm 2 .
(7 marks/markah)
(d) Discuss briefly of the consequences if the members CA, DE and EA

are omitted from the truss.
Bincang secara ringkas kesan sekiranya anggota CA, DE dan EA
dibuang dari kekuda.
(3 marks/markah)
(20 marks/markah)
SAB 2223/ SAM 221317
T
4m
i
4m
D F - - - -.......----O:: 1
20kN
2x3m=6m
~I
'''
FIGURE 05/ RAJAH 05
Q6. The space truss in Figure Q6 has ball and socket supports at joint A, Band C
at ground level. A vertical point load, 60 kN is applied at joint E. Determine
all the member forces of this space truss.
Kekuda ruang dalam Rajah Q6 mempunyai sakang bola dan saket pada
sambungan A, B dan C pada aras lantai. Satu daya titik, 60 kN dikenakan
pada sambungan E. Tentukan semua daya anggata kekuda ruang ini.
y
(20 marks/markah)
I
t
I
I
I " \
\
I
\ I \
\
\ I
\
,\~" ' \
\
, \ \
\
\
\
\
\ \
\
\
\
4m \
\
\
\
\
\ \
\
\ \
\ \
\
\
\
fi"
\
\
4m
"
...' ,
\
~_/"", \\ 4m
-- \tc FIGURE 061 RAJAH 06
\
\
SAB 22231 SAM 221318
Q7. Shown in Figure Q7 is a 10m simply supported beam. Attached to the beam
at C is a bar of length 0.5 m. If the loads that are subjected to the beam are as
shown in the same figure,
Seperti yang ditunjukkan dalam Rajah Q7 adalah rasuk sokong mudah 10m.
Dilekatkan pada rasuk di C adalah bar dengan panjang 0.5 m. Jika beban
yang dikenakan pada rasuk adalah seperti yang ditunjukkan dalam rajah yang
sama,
a) Calculate the reactions of the beam.

Hitung tindakbalas rasuk.
(4 marks/markah)
b) Determine the deflection at point C and the slope at support A by using

the Macaulay method. (Use EI = lOx 103 kNm 2).
Tentukan pesongan di titik C dan kecerunan di sokong A dengan
menggunakan kaedah Macaulay. (Guna EI =lOx 103 kNm 2)
(16 marks/markah)
(20 marks/markah)
10 kN
5kN/m
A D
~~z B
\• . ~I_.- - - l
~I
1m 4m 5m
FIGURE 07 / RAJAH 07
SAB 2223/ SAM 221319
Q8. (a) The column shown in Figure Q8(a) has pinned ends and uses USB 305
X 127 X 48kg/m steel member. Calculate the critical load, Per, of this
column having the length, L = 7m, and E = 200GPa under the
following conditions: (i) the column buckles by bending about its
strong axis (axis 1-1), and (ii) the column buckles by bending about its
weak axis (axis 2-2).
Tiang yang ditunjukkan dalam Rajah Q8(a) mempunyai hujung pin
dan menggunakan anggota keluli USB 305 X 127 X 48 kg/m. Hitung
beban genting, Per, tiang yang mempunyai panjang, L = 7m, dan E =
200 GPa pada keadaan berikut.· (i) tiang melengkok dengan melentur
pada paksi utama (paksi 1-1), dan (ii) tiang melengkok dengan
melentur pada paksi lemahnya (paksi 2-2).
(l0 marks/markah)
(b) A horizontal beam, AB, is supported by a pinned-end column, CD. The

column is a solid steel bar (E = 200GPa) of square cross-section
having length, L = 1.8m, and side dimension, b = 50mm. Based upon
the critical load of the column, determine the allowable load, Q, if
factor of the safety with respect to buckling is n = 2.0.
Satu rasuk mendatar, AB, disokong oleh tiang bersokong pin, CD.
Tiang adalah bar keluli padu (E = 200GPa) berkeratan rentas
segiempat sama yang mempunyai panjang, L = 1. 8m. dan dimensi sisi,
b = 50 mm . Berdasarkan beban kritikal tiang, tentukan beban izin, Q,
jikafaktor keseleamatan terhadap lengkokan adalah n = 2.0.
2 (l0 marks/markah)
(20 marks/markah)
A c B
1 I
b
2 Q
Axis I I (cm4) r (em)

1-1
2-2 I 438
9485 12.5
2.68 D •
(a) (b)
FIGURE Q8 / RAJAH Q8
SAB 2223/ SAM 2213110
EQUATIONS
The symbols indicate parameters usually used.
Relations Between m, V, M
Axial Load dV dM
p dx = -Q)(X), -dx =V
Normal Stress a=-
A Elastic Curve
Displacement 1 M
-::::-
p £1
4
d v
EI dx 4 :::: -Q)(x)
EI:~ =V(x)
Bending
My
EI:~ =M(x)
Normal stress a=-
I
Geometric Properties of Area Elements
Y A=bh
Shear
I =.~bh3
V x 12
Average direct shear stress T avg = A
I = ~hb3
VQ 12
Transverse shear stress T=-
It =!bh
2
Shear flow
VQ I = ~bh3
q=rt=- x 36
I
hI ~x
1
Material property Relations
b
>1
t"-h
Poisson's ratio v = - -at-
Gl 1< 3
Glong
Generalized Hooke's Law ;rD 4
1=---
G x :::: ~ [ax -v(ay+ aJ 64
Gy
Gz
. :::: ~[ay
E -v(ax+aJ]
= ~[az-v(ax+ay)]
'I' ~
2
-a
1 Expa...boli, area
Buckling
Critical axial load P =--

cr
n 2 EI
(KLy
b~~
gb
~-3-I zero slope -a
n 2E
I< 4 >
Critical stress a cr -- - (---)2' r -- ~I/A Semiparabolic area k a >I
KL/r
SAB3112/ SAM 4112 , 1
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB3112/ SAM 4112
COURSE CONTRACT & ESTIMATING
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER ANY TWO (2) QUESTIONS IN SECTION A AND ONE (1)
QUESTION IN SECTION B.
2. THE ANSWERS FOR SECTION A AND SECTION B MUST BE MADE IN
SEPARATE BOOKLET RESPECTIVELY.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB3112/ SAM 4112 \ 2
Ql. (a) Two of the common types of tender in the local construction industry are
the open tender and direct negotiated tender.
Critically compare these two types of tender in term of the followings:
i. Participation of the contractors in the tender.
11. Strength and weaknesses of the tender.
(12 marks)
(b) A tender for the construction and completion of a four storey office
building has recently been closed. On the closing date, ten contractors
have submitted their tenders. You have been asked to evaluate these
tenders.
Explain the tender evaluation stages. You may make assumptions if
necessary.
(13 marks)
(25 marks)
Q2. (a) JKR 203 Form of Contract is the standard form of contract commonly used
by the Government agencies in the contract documents.
Based on the JKR 203 Form of Contract, explain the contractual
requirements of the following clauses:
1. Delay and extension of time.
11. Payment to contractor.
111. Defects after completion.
(12 marks)
(b) With the help of the diagram, explain the process and the contractual
responsibilities of the main parties involved in the implementation and
construction ofthe project using Design and Build procurement.
(13 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB3112/ SAM 411213
Q3. (a) Contract is an agreement that legally binds parties in the contract. It is also
essential in the construction project undertaking.
i. Discuss the elements that are normally found in a contract.
(8 marks)
11. Discuss how the contract can be discharged.
(7 marks)
(b) Discuss the various types of cost reimbursable contract.

(10 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB3112/ SAM 411214
SECTIONB
Q4. The figure Q4 shown below is one of roof beams that is to be constructed for a
school project.
a) You are required to take-off the quantities for the following:

1. Concrete.
11. Reinforcement (T16 and RIO).
iii. Formwork.
All measurements are to be clearly shown in the dimension paper and

must be in accordance with the Standard Method of Measurement for
building works.
(20 marks)
SAB3112/ SAM 411215
2T16
, ,")
~:~,
1100
.~-;--
2T18 ........
21
c......
l
200
r
I ~
2T18
3300
~ .
.1
R10-200
3300 ·1, 3300 I·

R10-200-
2T18
3300
~
21
rJ
R10-200
3300 I
01
Column 250x250 Column 250x250 Column 250x250
l
200
r
All dimensions to
Concrete
All lap
cover
length =
=-
be
25mm
640mm
in millimeters
Type of
hooks/bend
Length of
>-_·_,--.--_·_--..·...4--.··.
Links
24d
!
hookS/bendsl
-- - .._.. __.. --1
01
All hook length ... 1 5d
~ 15d Size of all columns 250mmx250mm
I
l 15d
FIGURE Q4
SAB31121 SAM 411216
b) Calculate the cost of concrete for the roof beam. The details for calculation are as
shown below.
(All works are carried out manually)
Concrete Grade 30 (lkg Cement: 1.54 kg Sand: 2.54 kg Aggregates) poured in

formwork and compacted. (cost of formwork and reinforcement are measured
separately).
DETAILS FOR CALCULATIONS
Cement (density 1400 kg 1m3) RM255.00 per tonne

3
Sand (density 1600 kg/m ) RM88.00 per tonne
3
Aggregate (density 1450 kg/m ) RM99.00 per tonne
Labour constant for mixing 2.54 hours/m3

Labour constant for carry and pour 1.54 hours/m3
Labour constant for compacting 0.87 hours/m3
Labour constant for leveling 0.55 hours/m 3
Labourer's wage for 1 day (8 hours) RM24.00
Wastage and shrinkage 50%

Profit 15%
(20 marks)
SAB3112/ SAM 411217
c) Calculate the cost of formwork for the roof beam. The details for the calculation
are as shown below.
DETAILS FOR CALCULATION
1. 25mm plywood 2.44m X 1.22 m (l piece) @ RM45.00/ sheet

11. Cost for nails and formwork oil per usage - RM5.00
111. 1 m 2 formwork requires 0.1 Om3 struts and battens.
IV. Cost for struts and battens- RM300.00/m 3
v. Sole plate, bracing, props, headtree and folding wedges per usage -
RMIOO.OO
vi. 1 carpenter fix and dismantle 1 m 2 formwork in 2 hours.
V11. Carpenter's wage per day (8 hours) - RM40.00
Vlll. The formwork can be used 4 times.
IX. The wastage for the plywood is 15%
x. Profit - 15%
(10 marks)
(50 marks)
SAB 3122/ SAM 4123/ SAA 313311
UTM
F;l(:U",' of
Ci\l1 Engl.nccring
UNlVERSm T£KHOlOGl MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB 3122/ SAM 4123/ SAA 3133
COURSE CONSTRUCTION TECHNOLOGY
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWER ANY THREE (3) QUESTIONS ONLY.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 3122/ SAM 4123/ SAA 3133 \ 2
Q1. Site preparation is a fundamental and challenging activity in the organization

and execution of construction projects. Your company was awarded a new
multi-units commercial building project in Pontian area. The location of the site
is approximately 50 meter from the sea. The site does not have significant
gradient but is mostly covered with trees and vegetation. You are required to
write a proposal regarding site preparation, which include at least three (3)
main items to consider during pre-excavation phase, and five (5) main
equipment and machineries to be used for site preparation and earthwork. You
are required to write explanation to justify the selections. Also highlights at
least two (2) steps to increase site efficiency and control.
(25 marks)
Q2. A contractor requesting your advice on the best piling method for a
construction site located nearby a hospital. He also seeks your view on the
advantages of using the suggested piling techniques in term of environmental
protection, safety, speed, economy and aesthetics value of site.
(25 marks)
FIGUREQ3
(25 marks)
Q4. Figure Q4 shows a plan and a side elevation views of Building A; a three-
storey Post Tension Precast Structure, and Building B and C; Precast Silo
Structure. In this case all the precast structures are categorised as an
SAB 3122/ SAM 4123/ SAA 313314
un
....__--lot
EXISTING TRACKS . ,..,.. .............
~
-:::J-_.'"
~ ~ "~
..... ...........
~tI~_
~
..
.. _ · \
'-'
~ NARROW Cltl6C__
; G~ ~~'h ~:;;
I BUILNG B - SILO BETVEE:N --~ .......
,."_-,'- .:,:
~.
.....
. SILO
I:
~'
I1"'JANO
I
fi::J.'..• JJUILDlHG C
BUILDING
JT~ru~
MLDIHG Itt
STRUCTURE
-
_.
ff.lRT
~ S!;g TAACKS~ SILO .
I /~g .
,
i~ ~
i ',ftt d '.. ·lE~Y HDARDINCi ..
~~D LCDE"fCtl1lOH BtxMDAAY LINE
,
~~=========------;;;:m\\:";::- r£l :~G

UJ
1 I
0\ ........ _
- _ ... ,,'"
(J(~'J"
j1
i
.~
-
...1 I
II ::.:..::
('1
~
EXISTING EJ
.. [Jl"".cr a
--0-- O 0 o 0 I
.
................-
............-<12
FIGURE Q4
SAB 3233/ SAM 4324/ SAA 424411
UTM
Fllcull\' of
eil'il EngiReering
IJN'VERsm TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE DESIGN OF STEEL AND TIMBER STRUCTURES
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER THREE (3) QUESTIONS ONLY.
2. ALL ANSWERS SHOULD BE BASED ON BS 5950 - Part 1: 2000.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 3233/ SAM 4324/ SAA 424412
Ql. A simply supported beam of 457x191x74UB grade S460 spanning 8.0 m is

shown in Figure Q1. It is subjected to characteristic dead loads only at B, C
and D. Stiff bearing lengths of 50 mm each are provided at the supports and
under the point loads.
(a) If the beam is fully restrained along its length, check the adequacy of
the beam in resisting the applied shear, moment, and bearing at support
E. Neglect the selfweight of the beam.
(21 marks)
(b) If the same beam is restrained only at supports A and E, and at the
points of loadings B, C and D, check the adequacy of the beam against
lateral torsional buckling.
(12 13 marks)
(33 13 marks)
Gk =120kN Gk = 120kN Gk = 120kN
2.0m 2.0m 2.0m 2.0m

>< >< >< )
A B c o E
FIGURE Q1
SAB 3233/ SAM 4324/ SAA 424413
Q2. A two - storey building in simple construction, carrying factored load in both
minor axis (Section 1-1) and major axis (Section 2-2), is shown in Figure Q2.
All connections, between beams to columns and between columns to bases,
are pin. Columns BF and FJ are to be designed using 203 x 203 x 46 DC in
grade S275. Column self weight is taken as 1.0 kN/m.
Based on the information given:
(a) Calculate all the forces of axial loads and nominal moments in column
BF and FJ.
(10 marks)
(b) Design column BF only by assuming the effective length LE = 0.85L.
(15 marks)
(c) If all the connections between beams to columns are replaced with
rigid connections, explain the implications to the transfer of forces
between beams to columns, and subsequently the implications to the
column design. Choose column FJ only in your explanation.
(813 marks)
(33 13 marks)
SAB 3233/ SAM 4324/ SAA 424414
30 kN/m 30kN/m 30 kN/m
;( 6m
r 6m
f 8m
't
I
"
I:
y
Section 1-1
Axis y-y
FIGUREQ2
A C
6m 6m
( "v
xI
1+1
I
I
I
Section 2-2
Axis x-x
X
SAB 3233/ SAM 4324/ SAA 424415
Q3. (a) A direct shear connection as shown in Figure Q3(a) is made of steel
grade S275. There are two interfaces and four 20 mm diameter black
bolts. The outer plates are 8 mm thick, while the inner plate is 12 mm
thick. Assume that the interfaces pass through the threaded portion of
the bolt.
(i) Check whether the mInImum and maximum end and edge
distances meet the requirements of the code.
(ii) Detennine the capacity of the connection with respect to bolt

shear, bolt bearing, and plate bearing.
(13 % marks)
4 No. 20 mm d'la bo Its

Grade 8.8
I
I
I
,, I
I
75 kN I I I I 8mm
I I I
I I
I
I
I
~
I 150 kN 12mm
,
I
75 kN I I I I 8mm
I I I I I
-- "----+-6-6- I . .
40mm
SOmm
---c----+-6-6- : I
I
I
I
40mm
I I
C5 mm-I·50 mm -I·45 mm-I
FIGURE 03(a)
SAB 3233/ SAM 4324/ SAA 424416
(b) One side of a bracket connection as shown in Figure Q3(b) is subjected

to a load P. If the bracket is partially welded on three sides with a
weld size of 6 mm E35, calculate the maximum load P that can be
applied to the joint. Steel grade of bracket and column is S275.
(20 marks)
(33 % marks)
203x203x46 UC p
I
40mm~
200 mm
15 mm
thick
40mm~ plate
30 mm 150 mm 200 mm
FIGURE Q3(b)
SAB 3233/ SAM 4324/ SAA 424417
Q4. A 16 m span plane truss placed at 6 m centre to centre is shown in Figure Q4.
The result of the internal forces based on computer analysis is also given in
Table Q4. The wind loading efect is neglected in the analysis.
(a) State two (2) advantages of using this type of truss as compared to a
beam element.
(4 marks)
(b) Explain briefly how to design the purlin that is placed on top of the top
chord.
(4 marks)
(c) Determine whether double angles 2/ 100 x 65 x 7 sections are safe for
the top chord if the loads act on the nodes. Assume the distance
between the interconnecting bolts is 700 mm and the thickness of the
gusset plate is 8 mm.
(8 marks)
(d) If the loads are located between the nodes of the top chord, explain the
necessary steps to design the chord.
(4 marks)
(e) Determine whether single angle 100 x 65 x 7 sections are safe for the
internal members.
(9 % marks)
(t) Discuss the necessary steps to design the truss, if the wind loading is
taken into account.
(4 marks)
(33 % marks)
SAB 3233/ SAM 4324/ SAA 424418
14
10
FIGURE 04 L= 16m
L1 =2m
D=3m
Table Q4: Results obtained from a computer analysis L2= 2.06m
MEMBER NODES AXIAL LOAD (FACTORED,KN)

TENSION COMPRESSION
BOTTOM CHORD 1--2 0
2--3 99,53
3--4 128.47
4--5 128,07
5-6 128,07
6--7 128.47
7--8 99,53
8-·9 0
INTERNAL 2--18 102.59
SLOPE MEMBER 3--17 35,55
4--16 -0,5674
5--15 -18,11
5-13 -18,11
6--12 -0,5674
7--11 35,55
8--10 102.59
INTERNAL
9--10 -85,32
VERTICAL MEMBER
8--11 -49.77
7--12 -21,33
6--13 0,4012
5--14 36.22
4--15 0,4012
3--16 -21,33
2--17 -49,77
1--18 -85.32
TOP CHORD 10--11 -111.28
11-·12 -131.91
12--13 -133.56
13--14 -118,63
14--15 -118,63
15--16 -133.56
16--17 -131,91
17--18 -111,28
SAB 32331 SAM 43241 SAA 4244 \ 8
14
IS 13
Q 18
10
1m t f---_~_ _~-~""----.:>Il.-------I<:..---.v--------"""'----___l
4 5 6 7 8 9
L..
FIGURE Q4 L = 16 m
Ll = 2 m
D =3 m
Table Q4: Results obtained from a computer analysis L2 = 2.06 m
MEMBER NODES AXIAL LOAD (FACTORED,KN)

TENSION COMPRESSION
BOTTOM CHORD 1--2 0
2--3 99.53
3--4 128.47
4-5 128.07
5--6 128.07
6--7 128.47
7--8 99.53
8-9 0
INTERNAL 2--18 102.59
SLOPE MEMBER 3--17 35.55
4--16 -0.5674
5-15 -18.11
5-13 -18.11
6--12 -0.5674
7--11 35.55
8-10 102.59
INTERNAL
9--10 -85.32
VERTICAL MEMBER
8--11 -49.77
7--12 -21.33
6--13 0.4012
5--14 36,22
4--15 0.4012
3--16 -21.33
2--17 -49.77
1--18 -85.32
TOP CHORD 10-11 -111.28
11--12 -131.91
12--13 -133.56
13--14 -118.63
14--15 -118.63
15--16 -133.56
16--17 -131.91
17--18 -111.28
SAB 3233/ SAM 4324/ SAA 4244110
(a)
II t T
I ]
t o
o
o
If)
II
t 20~m x 50 mm
If)
~
t o
o
o
PI
f-~-~---~
t
----- ----------
4000 mm
~ -~-- ~-------
~1--t
Plan View
/ 25 mm x 200 mm plank nailed
/ to the secondary beam
(b) ...--_Jt:Z.---, r----,11..------.,11,--------,11'..-----.,
FIGURE 05
SAB 3243/ SAM 3233/ SAA 3213 \ 1
UTM
Facult'i of
Civil Engineering
UNIVERSlTl TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE THEORY OF STRUCTURES
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWERS FOUR (4) QUESTIONS ONLY.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 3243/ SAM 3233/ SAA 321312
Q1. (a) Using the slope deflection method, determine the moments at supports B
and C (see Figure Qt). Assume that supports A, B and C are rollers and
support 0 is pinned. E1 is constant.
Dengan menggunakan kaedah cerun pesongan, tentukan nilai-nilai
momen di sokong B dan C (lihat Rajah Ql). Anggap sokong A, B dan C
sebagai rola dan sokong D sebagai pin. E1 adalah malar.
(15 marks/markah)
(b) Draw the shear force and bending moment diagrams for the beam and
indicate important values.
Lukiskan gambar rajah daya ricih dan gambar rajah momen lentur
untuk rasuk tersebut dengan menunjukkan nilai-nilai yang penting.
(10 marks/markah)
(25 marks/markah)
4kN/rn
-~--12rn-......
FIGUREIRAJAH 01
SAB 3243/ SAM 3233/ SAA 321313
Q2. A frame structure shown in Figure Q2 is subjected to a uniformly distributed

load of 10 kN/m and a point load of 60 kN. The supports at A and E are
pinned and the support at F is fixed.
Struktur kerangka yang ditunjukkan dalam Rajah Q2 ditindaki oleh beban
teragih seragam sebesar 10 kN/m dan beban titik sebesar 60 kN Sokong A
dan E adalah pin dan sokong F adalah dUkat tegar.
(a) By using the moment distribution method, determine the bending

moments acting at each joint. Assume that the modulus of elasticity, E,
and the moment of inertia, I, are constant for all members of the frame.
Dengan menggunakan kaedah agihan momen, tentukan momen lentur
yang bertindak pada setiap sendi. Anggapkan modulus keanjalan, E,
dan momen sifat tekun, L adalah malar untuk semua anggota kerangka
tersebut.
(18 marks/markah)
(b) Draw the bending moment diagram for the frame.

Lukis gambarajah momen lentur untuk kerangka tersebut.
(7marks/markah)
(25 marks/markah)
60kN
10 kN/m
D
c
4m
6m
1_. 4._5_m .I_.__3_m .I_.__3_m_~.1
FIGUREIRAJAH 02
SAB 3243/ SAM 3233/ SAA 321314
Q3. Figure Q3 shows a plane truss with pin supports at A and B. The truss
supports horizontal point loads of 20 kN at C and E. The area of cross section,
A, and the modulus of elasticity, E, are constants.
Rajah Q3 menunjukkan sebuah kekuda satah yang disokong pin di A dan B.
Kekuda tersebut menanggung beban-beban ufuk 20 kN di C dan E. Luas
keratan rentas, A, dan modulus keanjalan, E, bagi semua anggota adalah
malar.
(a) Answer the following questions:

(i) Prove that the truss has one degree of external redundancy.
(ii) Why is it that the vertical support reaction at B cannot be taken as
the redundant reaction to obtain the member forces of the truss
using the unit load method.
Jawab soalan-soalan berikut:

(i) Buktikan bahawa kekuda ini mempunyai satu darjah lebihan
luaran.
(ii) Mengapakah tindak balas tegak di B tidak boleh di pilih sebagai
tindak balas lelebih untuk mendapatkan daya-daya dalam
anggota kekuda tersebut menggunakan kaedah beban unit.
(4 marks/markah)
(b) Determine the axial forces in all members of the truss by taking the
horizontal support reaction at B as the redundant reaction.
Tentukan daya paksi bagi semua anggota kekuda ini dengan
mengambil daya tindak balas ufuk di sokong B sebagai tindak balas
lelebih.
(21 marks/markah)
(25 marks/markah)
SAB 3243/ SAM 3233/ SAA 3213 \ 5
20kN ~
3m
20 kN _----tC.(:po ~D
3m
Ao--------~
W/A 4m
I~
FIGUREIRAJAH 03
SAB 3243/ SAM 3233/ SAA 321316
Q4. Figure Q4 shows a parabolic two pin arch ABCD with pin supports at A and
D, and loaded as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia at any section
varies with sec a where a is the angle of inclination of the tangential line with
respect to the arch. Determine,
Rajah Q4 menunjukkan gerbang dua engsel berbentuk parabola ABeD yang
disokong pin di A dan D, dan dikenakan beban seperti yang ditunjukkan.
Nitai momen sifat tekun pada sebarang keratan berubah terhadap sek a,
dengan a ialah sudut k?condongan garis tangen terhadap gerbang. Tentukan,
(a) the horizontal and vertical reactions at supports A and D.

tindak balas ufuk dan tegak pada sokong A dan D.
(J 8 marks/markah)
(b) the bending moment values at points B and C.

nitai-nitai momen lentur pada tiNk B dan C.
(7 marks/markah)
(25 markslmarkah)
The parabolic equation for an arch (persamaan parabola untuk gerbang)

4hx
y=7(L-x)
20kN/m
h=5m
._._._._._ _.•.•...•.•...•.•.•.......•. _.......•.•.•. _.......•.•
20m I~ 6m
FIGUREIRAJAH Q4
SAB 3243/ SAM 3233/ SAA 321317
Q5. Figure Q5 shows a beam supported by a roller at B and fixed at F. There is an

internal hinge at D.
Rajah Q5 menunjukkan satu rasuk yang di sokong rola di B dan di sokong
tegar di F Terdapat satu sendi dalaman di D.
(a) Draw the influence diagram for the following functions

(i) the vertical. support reaction at B.
(ii) the shear force at C.
(iii) the bending moment at C.
(iv) the shear force at E.
(v) the bending moment at E
Lukiskan gambar rajah garis imbas untuk
(iii) tindak balas tegak di B.
(iv) daya ricih di C
(v) momen lentur di C
(vi) daya ricih di E
(vii) momen lentur di E.
(20 marks/markah))
(b) If live loads in the form of a series of point loads and uniformly
distributed loads as shown in Figure Q5 move from A to F, determine
the maximum shear force occurring at E.
Jika beban hidup yang terdiri daripada beban titik bersiri dan beban
teragih seragam seperti yang ditunjukkan dalam Rajah Q5 bergerak
dari A ke F, apakah nilai maksimum untuk daya ricih di E.
(5 marks/markah))
(25 marks/markah)
10 kN 20 kN 15 kN
1_11 2m 1m
4kN/m FIGUREIRAJAH Q5
Li-LU
2m
~ F~~
A
----~--
~
...
C D
--.-011.~---lo----m
E
~
2m 2m 2m 2m 2m
SAB 3243/ SAM 3233/ SAA 321318
Q6. Figure Q6 shows a frame with fixed support at A and F is subjected to point
loads at Band D. Determine the collapse load P for this frame. Then, calculate
the value of the bending moment at B.
Rajah Q6 menunjukkan sebuah kerangka yang di sokong tegar di A dan F
dikenakan beban titik di B dan D. Tentukan beban runtuh P bagi kerangka ini.
Seterusnya, dapatkan nilai momen lentur di B.
(25 marks/markah)
2P
L L
P - - " r " + . . .- - - -.... ~
B D E
3Mp
Mp L
2L 2Mp F
FIGUREIRAJAH Q6
SAB 3243/ SAM 3233/ SAA 321319
Q7. The cable shown in Figure Q7 supports a girder weighing 10 kN/m. The
lowest point C on the cable is located 7.5 m below A and 4.5 m below B. The
cable is supported by a driven pulley at A and a roller at B. Determine the
Kabel yang ditunjukkan dalam Rajah Q7 menanggung galang yang
mempunyai berat 10 kN/m. Kedudukan titik terendah C adalah 7.5 m di bawah
A dan 4.5 m di bawah B. Kabel tersebut disokong oleh takal pandu di A dan
sokong rola di B. Tentukan
(a) tension force in the cable at points A, Band C,
daya tegangan dalam kabel di A, B dan C
(l5marks/markah)
(b) internal force in the anchorage cable and the reaction force on tower at
A,
daya dalam kabel penambat dan daya tindak balas pada menara di A,
(5 marks/markah)
(c) internal force in the anchorage cable and the reaction force on tower at
B.
daya dalam kabel penambat dan daya tindak balas pada menara di B.
(5 marks/markah)
(25 markslmarkah)
A
Kabel Penambat
(Anchorage Cable)
Kabel Penambat
(Ancborage Cable)
lOkN/m
30m
.1
Menara (Tower) Menara (f ower)

Pelican B (Detail B)
Peri c an A (Detail A)
FIGUREIRAJAH Q7
SAB 32431 SAM 32331 SAA 3213 \ 10
FORMULAEIFORMULA
wkN/m
wkN/m
IA
~
~
The modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia of beam are E dan 1
K=4EI/L
B
K=4EI/L K=3EI/L
D
K=O
~ ~ WA:; W/A.
Modulus keanjalan dan momen sifat tekun rasuk adalah E dan 1
R =_-==L=:-F----:'u:--L_I_A_E
B
r
Lu LI AE
2
SAB 3353/ SAM 3313/ SAA 324311
UTM
Facultf uf
U\'i1 Engineering
UNIVERSln TEKNOlOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB 3353/ SAM 3313 /SAA 3243
COURSE REINFORCED CONCRETE DESIGN I
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN SECTION A AND ONLY ONE (1)
QUESTION IN SECTION B.
2. ALL SOLUTION MUST BE IN ACCORDANCE WITH BS 8110: PART 1:
1997 (AMMENDMENTS 2005/2007)
WARNING!
disciplinary actions and the faculty may recommend the student to be expe/ledjrom
the study.

SAB 3353/ SAM 3313/ SAA 324312
SECTION A : ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
Q1. Figure Q1 shows part of the first floor plan of a reinforced concrete office
building. During construction, slabs and beams are cast together. The overall
thickness of the slab is 125 mm and the dimension of the beams are as given in
the diagram. The finishes, ceiling and services form a characteristic dead load
of 1.25 kN/m 2 . The characteristic imposed load is 2.5 kN/m 2 • A 3.0 m high
brickwall weighing 2.6 kN/m 2 is placed over the entire span of all beams. The
construction materials consist of concrete class C25/30, high yield steel for the
main reinforcement and mild steel for links. For durability consideration, a
nominal cover of 30 mm is required. As an initial estimates, assume the size of
the main bars and links are 25 mm and 8 mm respectively. Based on the
information provided,
(a) Calculate the design load carried by beam B/I-3.
(15 marks)
(b) Sketch the bending moment and shear force diagrams of beam B/l-3,
and show all the important values.
(5 marks)
(c) Design all the main reinforcement and links that are required to resist the
bending moment and shear force obtained from (b)
(15 marks)
(d) Show the elevation and cross-section views of the reinforcement and
links in the beam.
(5 marks)
(40 marks)
SAB 3353/ SAM 3313/ SAA 324313
250 x 450
All dimensions in mm
FIGUREQI
SAB 3353/ SAM 3313/ SAA 324314
Q2. Figure Q2 shows the layout plan of beams and slabs for the first floor of a
reinforced concrete building. The concrete for the slabs and beams are poured
together and the overall thickness of slab is 125 nun. The floor is to be
designed to carry an imposed load of 3 kN/m2 plus floor finishes and ceiling
loads of 1.5 kN/m2 • The characteristic strength for concrete and steel
reinforcement are 25 N/mm2 and 500N/mm2, respectively. The nominal cover
is 25 mm.
U sing the design data provided,

a) Calculate the design load acting on the slab and sketch the bending
moment diagram in the Y-Y direction. Show all the important values.
(10 marks)
b) Design all reinforcement required for Pl. Assume bar size of 10 nun
(15 marks)
c) Show/sketch the reinforcement details in slab PI in section and plan

VIew.
(5 marks)
(30 marks)
SAB 3353/ SAM 3313/ SAA 324315
I 7000 7000 7000 T 7000 I

I T I
II
- -
II
1'1
II
1'1
-:~
1'1
-
-1
o
o
o Ii II'
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II
Ii
(() 'I iii III
II
~.
- h .1,
1'1
@ 'I'
..JJ. -b, ,J..:" 'I'
.!J - ,11
o
I'I r
drop 5{fmm II'I,III ,
drop 50mm 'II
I,l
.J
drop 50mm III
II
jT
)'
o
o
II @
P1
1,1
IIIIf
II
III
to \: II
'I'
II
i -
'I'
~ L 1i ~ 11 - -j
II
II drop
.1
75mm III drop J II
75mml
III l
o
o
CJ
(()
I: III
II :1
;;;~; ~-=
"fFIl --=-=-=-
----- ~
.-. -
1'1
- -- -
-=-=..=-
--
!i
1T ~ ,- ,...--i
o ~-ll
~
_ -
_ II T
II :1
o Iii II
o
(()
II!
'II
II II
I
III
,=' ,.Jl!. - Jil -
,!l 1-.
-
FIGURE Q2
SAB 3353/ SAM 3313/ SAA 324316
SECTION B: ANSWER ONE (1) QUESTION ONLY
Q3 (a) BS8110 restricted the depth of neutral axis not greater than O.5d In
order to derive the section design fonnula in Clause 3.4.4.4. Using
appropriate diagrams discuss how the variation of x/d ratio influence the
behavior of beam at ultimate limit state.
(4 marks)
(b) Figure Q3 shows section of a simply supported upstand 'L' beam. The
beam reinforced with 2T20 and 6T20 at the compression and tension
zone respectively. The nominal cover is 25mm and concrete used is
Grade C30 concrete. Based on the infonnation given:
2T20
Q
If)
~.
I()
M-_ _ R10-125 ol[)

.,.....
'--------------i
FIGUREQ3
(i) Detennine the maximum moment of resistance of the concrete

according to BS811 O.
(3 marks)
(ii) Sketch the stress and force distribution of the beam's cross
section at the ultimate limit state and show all the important
values.
(5 marks)
SAB 3353/ SAM 3313/ SAA 324317
(iii) Determine the moment of resistance of the beam
(6 marks)
(iv) Determine the maximwn shear force given by the section
(6 marks)
(v) If the beam carries characteristic dead load (excluding self

weight) of lO.OkN/m and characteristic imposed load of
8.0kN/m determine the maximwn span length of the beam to be
safe in bending.
(6 marks)
(30 marks)
SAB 3353/ SAM 3313/ SAA 324318
Q4. (a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of prestressed concrete

compared to reinforced concrete. Focus your discussion on;
Manufacture
Flexure strength
Deflection
Forms of construction that favours prestressed concrete the most.
(8 marks)
(b) Explain where losses come from in prestressed concrete. Describe in

technical terms which prestress losses occurs immediately at transfer,
and which one develops over time. Why it is advantageous to the
flexural capacity that losses should be kept at a minimum?
(6 marks)
(c) The prestressed concrete beam shown in Figure Q4(a) is post-tensioned

using 4 nos. of tendon. The beam is simply supported over a span of 20
m and carries a service load (excluding the beam self weight) of 20
kN/m. Each tendon is stressed up to 2500 kN at service with an
eccentricity as shown in Figure Q4(b). The prestress force losses 10%
and 18% of this value at transfer and service, respectively. The
characteristics strength of concrete at service and transfer is 50 and 36
N/mm2, respectively. Sketch the stress distribution during transfer and
service at the support and mid-span by noting the important values. Also,
determine the class of the beam.
(16 marks)
(30 marks)
SAB 3353/ SAM 3313/ SAA 324319
:<E< . . ;8:. . ;0. . ; 0 ---7>:

- -- -- --
Area of concrete
-- --
A= 172 x 104 mm2
( 400 Moment of inertia

> I xx = 15.382 x lOll mm4
2000
._.- - _. _.- - Centroid

._._.
400
1• •
30~~~
• •
1500
(a) Beam cross section at mid-span
-'-'-'-'---'-'-'-l~O~'-'-'-'-'-'-'-'-'-
t 300
20m
(b) Tendon layout along beam span (Side view)
FIGURE 04 (All units in mm unless stated)

Table 1: Cross Sectional Area Based on Size and Number of Bars
6 28.3 56.6 8Ll. 9 113 141 170 198 226 18.9

8
50.3 101 151 201 251
302 352 402
25.1
10
78.6 157 236 314 393
471 550 629
31.4
12
113 226 339 453 566
679 792 905
37.7
16
201 402 603 805 1006
1207 1408 1609
50.3
20
314 629 943 1257 1571
1886 2200 2514
629
25 491 982 1473 1964 2455

2946 3438 3929
78.6 I
32 805 1609 2414 3218 4023

4827 5632 6437
I
100.6 II
40 1257 2514 3771 5029 6286

7543 . o2.
88_ . ~Q.0~7
_ .1 _}~s. ~._..I
Table 2: Cross Sectional Area for Every 1 m Width and Various Spacing
[:i!l!i~.'f':~.;[~.4.Y~.~1i.~~.Fj1;:r~R;'tJ:i
~~'"7'
,JU~I
lJmmti:ft~ I: E'~Q~~;:; ~±~ ·f~;::?7S:i0~~;t:;;.::2t:i'):;~.~:3!;.!.Ji2.:::.~'2fi:~

I
6 566 377 283 226 189
162 141 113
94
"~i
" ~ .~,f rt
! 8 I 1006 670 503 402 335

287 251 201
168
I 10 i 1571 1048 786 629 524

449 393 314
262
. 12 I
2263 1509 1131
905 754
647 566 453
377
16 4023 2682 2011 1609 1341

1149 1006 805
670
20 6286 4190 3143 2514 2095

1796 1571 1257
1048
It_Uf~Y:
6548 4911 3929 3274
2806 2455 1964
1637
10728 8046 6437 5364

4598 4023 3218
2682
16762 12571 10057 8381

7184 6286 5029
4190
SAB 4113/ SAM 51131_1
UTM
Facultv of
Ci~il Engineering
UNIVERSln TEKNOlOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAM 4113/ SAM 5113
COURSE CONSTRUCTION PROJECT MANAGEMENT
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.

2. THIS EXAMINATION PAPER CONSISTS OF 40 OBJECTIVES
QUESTIONS.
3. THE ANSWER SHEET ATTACHED ON PAGE 14.
4. PLEASE MARK BLACK EACH ANSWER.
5. ONE (1) MARK FOR EACH QUESTION ACCEPTS STATED ON
PARTICULAR QUESTION.
6. THE ANSWER SHEET HAS TO BE RETURNED WITH QUESTIONS
PAPER.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 4113/ SAM 5113 \ 2
Q 1. Which of the following project may be not classified under construction?
A. Construction material retail database development for supplier

company.
B. Railway project between Kuala Lumpur and lohor Bahru.
C. Hydro- lectric Power plant project.
D. Develo ment of an oil rig platform.
Q2. Which of the following may be considered in the future measurement of

project perfo ance during construction stage?
A. Modul rization and Environment.

B. Cleanli ess and IT usage.
C. Safety d Environment.
D. Enviro ent and Building Information System.
Q3. Which of the fi llowings do not represent the role of a client project manager?
A. Manag the production of the required deliverables on daily basis.

B. Manag project risks, including the development of contingency plans.
C. Mainta n and produce the Project plan as required.
D. Monito overall progress and initiating corrective action where
necess y.
Q4. Which of the following statements IS not true on the failure of project
planning?
A. Failure to develop and implement sound strategies.

B. Not reI ing on experience.
C. Failure to see planning as a rational process.
D. Lack 0 commitment in planning.
Q5. Which of the followings statements are representing the role of client in
project manag ment?
I. Make cisions on project issues or exception report that are beyond

the Proj ct Manager's authority.
II. Approv building plan.
SAB 4113/ SAM 511313
III. Monitor events which may affect the progress of the project.
IV. Ensure that the project conform to the required quality.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. All the above
Q6. Risk arises primarily from uncertainty. A good project manager can reduce
risk by:
I. Adhering to a policy of open communication.

II. Resolve interpersonal conflict.
III. Ability to detect uncertainty.
IV. Limiting the resources that maximise the project profit.
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. All the above
Q7. Among the activities during the preliminaries stages of project development
life cycle are:
I. Clearly defined objective and dimensions of scope.

II. Project organisation.
III. Overall details schedule construction activities.
IV. Project budget.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. All of the above
Q8. What are the advantages of matrix organisation?
I. Reduced conflicts of organisation line for project manager and

functional staff.
II. Resource utilisation is more effective and broadens.
SAB 4113/ SAM 5113 \ 4
III. Encourage knowledge development among individual project and

functional unit.
IV. Information transformation is more accurate in single reporting.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. All of the above
Q9. Effective organisation will materialise the project objectives with the
following statement except:
A. Effective responsibility delegation.

B. Good relationship among workers.
C. Supported with efficient communication system.
D. A leader will interfere the personal problem of individual.
QI0. To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to

predict project duration. The manager does this by analyzing the sequence of
activities with the least amount of scheduling flexibility. What technique is
used by the manager?
A. Gantt Chart
B. Line of Balance
C. Critical Path Method
D. Cumulative curve technique
Ql1. Process of breaking down the project into the lowest level of activity IS
known as:
A. Work breakdown structure

B. Assigning the logical relationship
C. Sorting the activities
D. Leveling the activities
SAB 4113/ SAM 5113[5
Q12. The probable reasons why Arrow Diagram technique has not been used by
project planning software are:
I. It is very expensive to develop project schedule software this

technique
II. Unable to show lag relationship
III. Has limitations to show logical relationship
IV. Unable to show critical path
V. Very complicated technique
A. I, III, V
B. II, III, IV
C. II , III
D. I, IV, V
Q13. Which of the following situations represent the rationale application of Gantt
Chart technique
I. Detail work schedule prepared by the contractor during for the

construction stage during pre contract stage.
II. Schedule prepared by the project manager which clearly indicate the
critical path which to be used for the payment purposes.
III. Contractor submission of a general schedule for construction phase
during the tendering stage.
IV. A project schedule prepared by the contractor for the purpose to
support the evidence that the delay not caused by them.
V. Client preparing a general work schedule showing important
milestones of the project from the preliminaries stage.
A. I, II,
B. III, V
C. I, II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV, V
SAB 4113/ SAM 511316
Q14. Activity X is connected by two nodes i.e. node number 10 and 20. The
duration for X is 15 days. The ES for node 20 is 35 and LF is 45 whilst for
node 20 the ES is 50 and LF is 60. There are other activities connected to
these two nodes. What is the total float for activity X?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10
(2 marks)
Q15. ActivityXasinQ14
A. is on the critical path.

B. has a lag.
C. is progressing well.
D. is not on the critical path.
Q16. Which of the following statement(s) best describe Precedence Diagramming

Method network.
I. It is an Activity on Arrow.
II. It has four (4) types of relationship.
III. It allows overlapping in activities.
IV. It may start and finish with several activities.
A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
Table Q17-20 shows a list of activities for a small project. The project starts on
Thursday 1 October 2009. Assume six (6) working days a week except Sunday.
SAB 4113/ SAM 511317
Table Q17-20
DURATION
ACTIVITY PREDECESSORS
(DAY)
A 4 -
B 5 A(SS+3)
C 7 A
D 8 A
E 6 B
F 5 B(FS+2); C(SS+4); D(FF+5)
G 5 D
H 6 E; F(FS-l)
I 7 F; G(FS-2)
J 7 H; I
Based on the above information answer question Q 17 until Q20.
Q17. When is the completion date of the project?
A. 4 November 2009
B. 6 November 2009
C. 5 November 2009
D. 3 November 2009
(5 marks)
Q18. How many paths does this network diagram has
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Q 19. Determine the free-float of Activity F
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
SAB 4113/ SAM 5] 1318
Q20. Determine the critical path of the schedule
A. A-B-F-I-J
B. A-C-F-I-J
C. A-D-F-I-J
D. A-D-CI-I-J
Q21. Which of the following(s) is/are important in labour resource management
I. To address of labour shortage

II. To increase productivity
III. Increase the dependency of local labour
IV. Smooth flow of construction project
A. I
B. I & III
C. I, II & III
D. I, II & IV
Q22. Managing resources is important in a construction project. The profit of the

project can be optimised by the following strategies.
I. Minimizing material wastage

II. Bank loan as a working capital for the project
III. Reduce labour force in all activities
IV.
A. 1&11
B. I, II & III
C. I & IV
D. I, III & IV
Q23. Construction wastes are due to
I. Error in ordering
II. Double handling
III. Loose materials
IV. Poor recycling of waste materials
SAB 4113/ SAM 511319
A. I
B. 1& III
C. II & IV
D. I, II & III
Q24. Which of the following situation requires resource allocation?
A. When several activities being delayed

B. When time is limited
C. When resource is limited
D. When material is unavailable
Q25 Which of the following conditions are related to the labour smoothing
process?
I. Earliest Start - Total Float activities

II. Latest Start - Free Float of activities
III. Peak and Trough
IV. Sequence of work activities
A. I, II & III
B. I, II & IV
C. I, III & IV
D. II, III & IV
Q26. Labour resource leveling analysis may result in one of the following:
A. Shortened the project duration

B. Reduced quality of project
C. Extended the project duration
D. Maximized material usage
Q27. Which of the followings are the appropriate actions to control wastage on site?
I. Double handling of materials

II. Bonus for wastage reduction
III. Extra quantity of order
IV. Employ skill workers
SAB 4113/ SAM 5113110
A. I and II
B. II, III and IV
C. II and IV
D. All the above
Q28. A contractor may conduct time-cost trade-off analysis based on the following
reasons, except.
A. Penalties and bonuses

B. Weather considerations
C. Release or freeing the resources
D. Maximize profit
Q29. Which of the followings describe the cost element III time-cost trade-off
analysis?
I. Indirect cost is directly proportionate to time

II. Direct cost is the cost of resources to execute an activity
III. Direct cost is directly proportionate to time
IV. Indirect cost is an overhead cost
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. II, III and IV
Q30. A task duration may be crashed by doing the followings, except.
A. Working the tasks on multiple shifts

B. Bringing more productive machineries
C. Putting more gang of workers on the job
D. Using more costly materials
SAB 4113/ SAM 5113111
Based on the information below answer question Q31 until Q36.
Syarikat UPIT Sdn. Bhd. plan to bid a 6-month project contract with an estimated cost
of RM500,000. The company will add another 10% of the estimated cost as a markup
bid price. Monthly pay estimates will be submitted early of the month for work
completed as the last day of the preceding month, with payment anticipated 30 days
later. Under the term of contract, the owner will retain 10% of the first 50% of the
contract amount. Expected monthly costs are shown in Table Q31-36 below:
Table Q31-36
Month 1 2 3 4 5 6
Estimated Cost (RM'OOO) 50 100 100 100 100 50
Q31. What is the contract value of the project?
A. RM200,500
B. RM201,500
C. RM202,500
D. RM203,500
Q32. What is the total cost of all the works that are scheduled to be completed up to
the end of the sixth month of the project?
A. RM450,000
B. RM500,000
C. RM550,000
D. RM600,000
(2 marks)
Q34 What is the maximum cash requirement for the company to carry out the
project?
A. RM202,003
B. RM204,518
C. RM207,052
D. RM208,605
(3 marks)
.
C. Identifying significant deviations from the schedule estimates in the
project plan
D. Identifying significant deviations from the actual cost and the budgets
in the project plan
Q38. Which of the following indicate the correct order of project control cycle?
A. Monitor - Compare - Plan - Action

B. Plan - Action - Monitor - Compare
C. Plan - Monitor - Comnare - Actinn
SAB 4113/ SAM 5113113
Q39. Site safety policy shall comply primarily with the following:
A. National safety law and regulations
B. Board of director instruction
C. Employers and employees agreement
D. CIDB green card policy
Q40. Best practice for a sustainable Malaysian construction industry include the
following, except:
A. Minimize the use of "green" building materials
B. Accelerate research and development in construction technology
C. Enhancing buildability
D. Establish code of conduct
SAB 4113/ SAM 5113114
NAME
f--.
ICNO.
COURSE CODE
SECTIONS
ACADEMIC STAF
OBJECTIVES QUESTIONS
Ql. A B C D Q21. A B C D
Q2. A B C D Q22. A B C D
QI0. A B C D Q30. A B C D
Ql1. A B C D Q31. A B C D
QU. A B C D Q32. A B C D
Q20. A B C D Q40 A B C D
SAB 4133\1
' LKlJlt\ (If
UTM
UNlVEASfTI TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA I
C'1111::nl!UWCIIllJ:;
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CONSTRUCTION LAW AND CONTRACT
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER FOUR (4) QUESTIONS ONLY, TWO (2) FROM EACH PART.
2. ANSWER FOR EACH PART MUST BE MADE IN SEPARATE ANSWER
BOOK.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 4133 \ 2
PART A
Q1. (a) Contractors are carrying some form of legal liabilities in performing
their works. These liabilities include those which are explicitly stated
such as contract and statutory obligations. The implicit liability may
cover areas such as tort.
Discuss the tort liabilities of contractor as an occupier and employer.
(7 marks)
(b) The second step to the establishment of negligence is to prove the

breach of duty of care.
Discuss the principles that can be used to determine the duty of care
has been breached or not.
(8 marks)
(c) The courts have been hesitant to impose a duty of care on the
defendant when the damage suffered by the plaintiff is in the form of
pure economic loss. Pure economic loss may be incurred as a
consequence of professional negligence which different principles are
considered in addressing pure economic loss.
What is pure economic loss? What is professional negligence which

may result in pure economic loss being recoverable?
(10 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 413313
Q2. Contract may be defined as 'an agreement enforceable by law'. The legislation
governing contracts is the Contract Act, 1950 (Act 136) (Revised 1974). The
act outlines important matters related to contract such as the basic elements of
contract, discharging contract and privity of contract.
(a) The parties entering into a contract should be competent to contract.

What is competent as provided in Section 11 of the Contract Act 1950?
(6 marks)
(b) In relation to the law of contract, write short comments on the validity
of the contract for the following scenarios:
(i) 'A' is persuaded to enter the contract of surrendering his

property to B'. 'A' who has been ill and physically incapable
for the past three years. As a result, he is now depending on
'B' .
(ii) C is illiterate and was convinced by B to enter a contract which

he believes to sell a house for RMlOO,OOO. But the actual
selling price stated in the contract is RM30,000.
(ii) K agreed to buy a 4 hectare land which is planted with palm oil
at a price of RM200,OOO. The land is situated in remote area.
As the payment been made, K found out that the land was
actually a barren land.
(10 marks)
(c) Discharging contract is important in order to free the parties from the
contract's terms and obligations. It could pose negative and positive
impact on parties in the contract.
Discuss three ways upon which the contract can be discharged and the
impact of the ways of discharging on parties in the contract.
(9 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 413314
Q3. Trespass is a form of wrongful intentional tort. Intentional tort includes a

wrong act of neglecting and disturbing one's privacy and rights to goods and
land of others.
(a) 'A man's home is his castle' signifies the importance of protecting
interest in land. The law prohibits any physical interference in respect
of land possession.
Discuss situations or acts that can be termed as trespass to land
(10 marks)
(b) Interference with goods may be defned as a wrongful and direct

interference with goods that are in the possession of another. The act
may include 'detinue' and conversion.
Highlight three (3) main differences between the 'detinue' and

conversion
(10 arks)
(c) Critically present one of the defence that according to your opinion
would be the best defence to intentional tort.
(5 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 413315
PARTB
Q4. The common work programme submitted by the contractor is in the form of
bar chart or network diagram. Standard Forms of Contract such as PAM 98
Form and CIDB Form have specific clause on work programme.
(a) Describe the purpose of submitting work programme.
(5 marks)
(b) Outline the contractual requirements for the preparation of work

programme.
(10 marks)
(c) Assuming that the work programme submitted by the main contractor
was checked and subsequently approved by the client. While doing the
construction work it was discovered that in many occasions the
contractor failed to comply with the work programme.
Analyse the above problem and discuss the remedies that can be taken
by the client.
(10 marks)
(25 marks)
Q5. (a) It is known that the Superintending Officer has been given the
authoritative power under the contract. Discuss the authoritative power
of the SO with regard to the following matters:
1. Variation of works
11. Defects after completion
iii. Discharge of workmen
(9 marks)
SAB 413316
(b) Critically comments on the possible causes of the following problems

and suggest actions that need to be taken by the Superintending Officer
when the following problems arise.
I. Discrepancy in the contract drawings

ii. SO's representative made a wrong decision
111. Contractor refuse to follow the SO instruction
IV. Nominated sub-contractor does not receive payment
(16 marks)
(25 marks)
Q6. (a) Clause 51 of JKR 203 Standard Form of Contract deals with
termination of contractor's employment. Discuss four (4) defaults by
the contractor, which may lead to the determination of his
employment.
(12 marks)
(b) In a project where you were appointed as the Superintending Officer,

serious defects were discovered six months after the project was
completed. After several reminders issued to the contractor no efforts
to rectify the defects had been made. Due to this problem, the client
decided to terminate the contractor's employment.
Analyse the above situation and critically comments on the decision

made by the client.
(13 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 4143 \ 1
UTM
f.trult.. of
Ci"il E~illatlll1!:
UHIVERSITl TEKHOlOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CONSTRUCTION PLANT AND EQUIPMENT
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER FOUR (4) QUESTIONS ONLY.
2. QUESTION Q1 AND Q2 MUST BE ANSWERED ON SEPARATE
ANSWER SHEET.
WARNING!
, the study.

SAB 414312
Ql. (a) An area of 87, l20ft2 needs to be stripped off its topsoil. The average
swell for this type of soil is approximately 12%. In your equipment
garage, you have the following machineries:
A bulldozer with S-blade (lOft x 4ft) and 3 shanks ripper (6ft wide and
2ft deep)
A scraper with a loading capability of 6yd 3/hr and average traveling
speed of 20mph
A front-end loader with 3yd3 SAE bucket
Five(5) dump trucks with l2yd 3 capacity
For an average hauling distance of 480ft to a stockpile storage yard,

propose the best equipment or combination of equipments for
transporting the topsoil. Make good assumptions whenever required.
Justify your answer by showing all calculations.
(25 marks)
Q2. (a) Compare three(3) important types of soil volume.
(6 marks)
(b) A dragline is to be used to dig loamy sand from a ditch. The total
volume of soil in the ditch is approximately l60,000yd3. A:D factor for
the machine is approximately 90%. The dragline is using dump trucks
as haulers. If the average cycle time of a hauler is approximately 9
minutes for a return trip, recommend the bucket size of the dragline,
the optimum number and hauling capacity of dump trucks to be used
for the job. How many days to complete the whole process?
(19 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 414313
Q3. (a) A plant-hiring company is updating it's inventory of air filter. From
the inventory the current stock of air filter is 30 units and immediate
demand is 5 units. Its forecast of demand is 8 units. Determine the
safety stock that has to be maintained.
(5 marks)
(b) Determine the cost per hour of owning a 2m3 hydraulic backhoe during
the third year of its life, given the following information. The declining
balance method of depreciation is to be used for the machine and
straight-line depreciation for the tyres.
Information:
Purchase price RM350,000
Resale value RM80,000
Useful life of machine 8 Years
Interest charged on borrowed capital 10% p.a.
Fuel consumption 10 liter/hr
Cost of fuel RM2.50/liter
Oil and grease 15% of fuel cost
Maintenance 8 % of purchase price
Insurance and tax 2% of purchase price
Average working time per year 250 days
Purchase price for a set of tyres RM3,000
Useful life of a set of tyres 2 years
(20 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 414314
A construction company has successfully secured a construction contract

which requires the use of a 40-ton capacity, strut-jib and a crawler mounted
crane. An eight-year working life can be assumed which indicates that an
attractive rate of return may be achieved by purchasing the crane. The crane
must be capable of conversion to a dragline crane and cost less than
RM450,000. Four manufacturers have been identified in making a crane which
may be suitable for the specified duties. They are Kato ST, Hitachi 8H,
Komatsu 10D, and Liebher SD (see Table Q4).
By using the systematic plant selection method, advise the purchasing

manager in deciding which crawler mounted crane to purchase.
Table Q4
KOMATSU LIEBHERSD
Components KATO 5T HITACHI9H
10D
Base machine RM380,000 RM370,000 RM415,OOO RM39S,OOO

Cat head boom Included Included Not available Not available
Taper top boom RM33,000 RM3S,OOO Included Included
Fly jib RM25,000 RM28,OOO RM29,OOO RM29,000
Power lowering Included RM12,135 Included Included
equipment
Safe load
RM22,000 RM23,OOO RM25,OOO RM25,OOO
indicator
Hook block RMI5,OOO RM15,OOO Included Included
2.5 yd3 dragline

RM12,500 RM11,500 RMI2,OOO RM12,OOO
bucket
(25 marks)
SAB 414315
Q5. A contractor is engaged to carry out a large earth-moving work for the
construction of a section of a new highway. Fill materials can be supplied
from two (2) borrow pits 1 and 2 which are located 3 km from the works.
However, there are unsuitable materials such as top soil and loamy sand
which must be removed.
Justify the most efficient method of carrying out the work if the cost is to be
minimised.
( 25 marks)
SAB 4163/ SZW 416311
Fa<:utlVof
UTM
1
C1"11 E~inecnn~
OH1VERsm TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB 4163/ SZW 4163
COURSE CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
PROGRAMME SAW/SZW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
2. ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS FROM EACH SECTION (A) AND (B).
3. ANSWER SECTION (A) AND (B) IN A SEPARATE BOOKLET.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 4163/ SZW 416312
Section A: Answer any two (2) questions from this section.
Q1. (a) Explain the Bingham model of fresh concrete and state the requirements
for pumpable concrete.
(10 marks)
(b) A technical assistant on site complains about a case of concrete which

fails to pump. He tried various ways to overcome the problem which
includes adding more water and reducing the pipe length but to no avail.
Diagnose the problem and suggest the appropriate solution based on the
understanding of the "upper limit" and "lower limit" of pumpability.
(15 marks)
(25 marks)
Q2. (a) Explain what is meant by DURABILITY of concrete.
(5 marks)
(b) Identify five (5) major types of concrete deterioration due to durability
problem. Select any two and discuss the causes, symptoms and
protection.
(20 marks)
(25 marks)
Q3. Describe in details the following topics:

(a) Light Weight Concrete (LWC).
(b) Factors influencing shrinkage and creep of concrete.
(c) Self Compacting Concrete.
(d) Effects ofpozzolan in the behaviour of fresh and hardened concrete.
(e) Effects of microstructures on the durability of concrete.
(25 marks)
SAB 4163/ SZW 416313
Section B: Answer any two (2) questions from this section.
Q4. A multi storey building has been proposed to be built at a site within a city
centre. The building will be based on reinforced concrete structure with the feu
> 40MPa. An ordinary Portland cement and uncrushed aggregates has been
selected to be used in this construction. Following the DOE Method, design a
concrete mix required for the foundation of the structure and explain on any
decision made on the requirements selected in designing the concrete mix.
(25 marks)
Q5. A high strength concrete is normally classified for concrete with feu> 50MPa
and a high performance concrete is defined as concrete that can sustain in the
aggressive environment. Discuss and explain how these two types of concrete
can be produced and why both concretes are needed.
(25 marks)
Q6. A newly built reinforced concrete structure has been found to experience
major cracks at a few of its primary beams and horizontal cracks at the floor
slab. Diagnose the cause of the problems and explain the diagnosis process
that is needed to be carried out in providing the solution. Suggest the
application ofthe possible repair methods.
(25 marks)
SAB 4163/ SZW 416314
Table 1. Concrete mix design fonn

Jo'b title ••..•••••.•..••••••••••••.••.•••••• _•....•:•..•.
Rderence
Scage Item or calculation Values
1.1 Characteristic strenlth Sp«ified --f. N/mmZac ..,..1{'~a~

: _ . LProportion defec:tive ' ;
,
~~:
...
rlg'3 _ ____---------N/mmZor no data ~/mm~
1.2 Standard deviation
i
x N/mm J
1.3 Marsin CI (k • !. •
0('. \
Specified \N/mm J
......' ~~ : '
C2 + N/mm J
Sp«ified OPC/SRPC/RHPC
Crushed/uncrushed
.Crushedluncn,f$bed
....~?' , . /i.
---.."-.,------J u~ ~.I~« 'Olu·1

Table 2, Fig 4 . ,'.I
Specified
2 Specified Slump mm orVebe time _ _..,- _

/ mm
Specified I
3 C3 +
Specified _ k g l mJ
Specified ___ kgtm'
use 3.J if ~ 3.2 j.
use 3.3 if > 3.1
3.4 . Modified rree-wilter/cement ratio
4.1 Relative density of _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _-:-_ _ known/assumed·

aggregate (SSD)
4.2 Concrete density Fig 5
------...,kg/m ~
4.3 TOlal aggregate content C4

---- = ---.,.-... :kg/m
.S 5.1 Grading or fine
agsregate
Percentage passing 600 ,.m sieve
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _-,
--------------- 0;;
lr':
5.2 Proportion of fine Fig 6
aggregate
S.3
Flo< ......." ....",," }
cs - - { x kg/m
S.4 Coarse ~"regate content .
Cement "'acer Flne aggregate Co.~e .•gg~e~ace (kg) 0 r

Quaniilies Ckgi (kg or L) (kg) to mm' 20 mm '40 mm
per ~~ (10 nearest 5 kS)

per trial mix o f m '
IIclI\> in ilalics ;1re oplional Jimilinlp'ulues Ihat may br ~cifie!l. (Sec SeClion 7)
I N/mm' • I MN/m l = I MPa (see footnote 10 Section 3).
ope - ordinary Portland cement; SRPC .. sulphale-resistlng Ponland cement; RHPC .. rapid-hardening Poriland cement.
Relali\·~ d~nsilY .- spl:cific gravity (see (ootnote to Para 5.'1). 550 = based on a saturaled surracc-drf basis.
SAB 4163/ SZW 416315
10 ,
E
E 8
I
A; s for less I.
2
vi 6
i
/ . than 20
results
.
V
c'
.g ':1 .
10
'>CLl 4
B:minimums
-0
-0
iO 2
'0
// for 20 or
more resulfs
2
C
(/) 0
Q
V 10 20 30 40 50 60~
I 70
Flgure:3 Relationship bel\\'een slandard deviation and
characteristic strength
Characteristic strength (N/mm 2 1
Starting line
using' data
from Table 2
: "
FIII~re 4 Relationship between

o L.....:...--~.,.....-!-t't- compressive ~trenBth and
0.3 0.4 , ':":. .:J 0.6 0.1 0.8 0·.9 free-water/cement ratio
F .E: wat~r/cement ratio
SAB 4163/ SZW 4163 \ 6
·TabJe 2 A,pproximale compressive strenglhs (N/mm 2)

of c'oncrete mixes made with. a frec.waler/
.ccme.nt. ratio of 0..5.
Type of Compressive strengths (N/mm%)

Type of coarse Age (days)
cement aggregate 3 7 28 91
.. ~
Ordinary
PortJand
(OPC)
or
Une[ushed 22 30 42 49
suJphate-
resisting
Crushed 27 36 49 56
.Portland
. (SRPC)
.Rapid-
hardening
Uncrushcd 29 37 48 54
POrlland
(RHPC) Crushed 34 ; 43 55 61
I N/mm J = I MN/m J = 1 MPa (see footnote on earlier page).
Table J Approximate frec-:waler contenls. (kg/m 3)

required to give various levels ·of workability
Slump (mm) Q..iQ .1Q.30. J.(J.~

Vebe tlme(s) ::0:1:2 6:-# ' . 3'~(i
,'" "
.
'
..'\"'
Maximum Type of
size aggregale
aggrega'le(mm)
Uncrushed 225
10
Crushed 250
Unerushed 19.5
20
Crushed i25
Uncrushed 115 .140:.' .. 175

- 40
€ r ushed 155 175·· 205
Note:' When coarse and line aggregates of difrlm:nt types

arc used. the free-water. content is estimated by "the
expre~sion '
whe~e WI free-water content appropriate [0 type

of fine aggregate
and W. = frec-water content appropriate to type'
. of coarse aggregate.
SAB 4163/ SZW 416317
...
Il
;;; _,2900 1-,-,--~-+-,:::::=","""",:--+---+_...=::::.......,::-+----+----j----t-:R:-e-;Ia~, t:":"iv"'":"'e-:d"-e-n-%!i:7t -y - '"';t-i
o
.E i
', cOr'flbin,ed 'aggregate
~. I ., lon, satura,ted and
surface'dry basis)
~!fl;;~" •
~,.; :;,.;
2.9
g i ,': ;.
'824001--------+--:=......=---+----lr--:"""'-.......:
2.8
I 'I,
.. ~.,: i: ...' ., 2.4

j
!
2100L--+~__L. L_o_ --L---L--~...J-----'-----L....----'----'
100 120 140 160 180 200 220 240 260 280
j"
Free-water content (kg/m J )
Figure 5 Estimated wrl densil~:of fUli y compaeled concrete
.; i..:', ,',
. .... ,., . '\. :.
., Maximum aggregate size: '10mm
, .:',:. r (i I 1. ... ~I
"'" i : ' ,: ,;Slump:.0·10mm , ' . 10·30mm 30-60mm 60-180mm

:;" . 'V~b~ time:,.~12s' 6·12.5 3-65 '1' 0-35
8Q "",.,-,-,'-,.....,.,..".....,.,......,--,...,...............
d:
#. 70
j
Ql
oJ
III
!>' :~, .1
k
C>
Cl
'60
0.
Cl
III
Ql
50
;§
'0' .40 I-:"....::..-.'--~
c:
.g
(;
0.
o
It
10 L..--J._--'-''---............
0.2 < 0.4 0.6 0.8 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 0.2 0.4 -0':6 0.8 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8
. Free-water/cement ratio
F1,ure 6 Recommtrldcd proponions of fine auresale according 10 perCtrllase passing a 600 I'm sieve
SAB 4163/ SZW 416318
Maximum aggregate si~e: 2Cm~
, ~Slump: 0-10ml"!, \10-30illm, 30-t30mm. 60·180mm

Vebe time: >12s 6-12s 3-6s b-3s
80 r-----r---r---,--,
~
70 f----j.--+-~o.....f--I
...a:
III
~ 60 1-----"f----"f---I1-1
OJ
OJ
III
Q)
;§
....o
c:
.g
L
o
a.
o
c:
10 '----'-'-----'---,a-....
0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 0;2 0,4 0.6 0.8 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 0.2 0.4 10.6 0.8
Free-water/ce'me'nt ratio
Figure 6 (continued).
Maximum aggregate size: 40mm

. ~
Slump: O:JOmm 10-30mm 3q~60mm 60-180mm

Vebe tim~: >12$ , 6-125 3-65, 0-35
, .
~
701---+--+---+--I
2l
III
OJ 60 t--"--If-----i'-'---I-l
~
OJ
OJ
III
Q)
~
'0
,I:
.g
(;
a.
o
c:
0.4 '0.6_ 0.8 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8
Free-water/cement ratio
SAB 420311
UTM
Facultv of
Civil En~incenn~
UNIVERsm TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB4203
COURSE STRUCTURAL DYNAMICS AND INSTABILITY
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWER THREE (3) QUESTIONS ONLY. AT LEAST ONE (1)
QUESTION FROM EACH SECTION.
SECTION A : STRUCTURAL INSTABILITY
SECTION B : STRUCTURAL DYNAMICS
WARNING!
the study.
This examination question consists of seven (7) printed pages only.

SAB 4203 \ 2
SECTION A
Q1. Determine the buckling load of the fixed-free stepped column shown in Figure
Q1. Assume the modulus of elasticity, E, is constant. Use second order
differential equations in the calculation.
(33 marks/markah)
p
FIGURE Ql
Q2. The plane frame ABC shown in Figure Q2 is pinned at joint A and fixed at C,
and carries a load lW at B, inclined 45° from the horizontal. Show that the
frame would become elastically unstable at a value of the load factor 1 of
between 9.00 and 9.50.
(33 marks)
6m >
3m
W= 1400 kN
C E = 210 kN/mm 2
FIGURE Q2
SAB 4203\4
SECTIONB
Q4. The Steel Portal Frame shown in Figure Q4 supports a machine that generates a
dynamic horizontal force of F(t) = 450 sin (?iJ t) N, which vibrates at different
excitation frequencies, OJ. Youngs Modulus E = 200 kN/mm 2 .
Determine the damping ratio of the system for the following excitation
frequencies :
(a) OJ = OJn
(15 marks)
(b) OJ = 0.1 rad/s
(9 marks)
(c) ?iJ = 3.3 rad/s
(9 marks)
(33 marks)
20 kNfm
4m
D
60mm
120mm
(b) column cross section
8m
( )
(a) Structure
FIGUREQ4
SAB 4203\5
Q5 Figure Q5 shows a single degree of freedom system which has a weight W =

600kN. The dry friction unit is 12% of the weight and the natural period, Tn,
is 0.3 seconds.
(a) If the system is pulled to an initial displacement of 5 cm, then it is

released, determine
1. The displacement amplitude after four (4) complete cycles
11. Number of cycles until this system comes to rest.
(15 marks)
(b) If the system s subjected to a harmonic force with amplitude Fa = 200kN

and the period T = 0.4 sec, determine the displacement amplitude for this
system.
(18 marh)
(33 marks)
W=600kN
FIGUREQ5
SAB 420316
Q6 Figure Q6 shows a cantilever frame with the mass lumped at nodes Band C.
Axial deformations are to be neglected. If the stiffness matrix of the system
for the displacement vectors u] and U2 is
K = 6E1_[
7L3
8 -3]
-3 2
(a) Determine the free vibration equation of motion

(10 marks)
(b) If given the natural frequencies are
(01 = 0.6987 ~ E1 and (02 = 1.874~ £1

mL 3 mL3
Determine the modes of the system (eigenvectors) and sketch the two
respective modes.
(23 marks)
(33 marks)
c
2m m
B Ul
EI
u2
H=5m
EI
m=20 kN/g
E=200 kN/mm 2
A
6 4
1=2xlO mm
L-5m
( )
FIGUREQ6
SAB 420317
EQUATIONS
Second order differential equation y" + k 2 Y = F(x)

Standard solution for second order differential equation
y = y, + yP
Yc = Asinlex+ Bcoslex
yp = a l + a 2x + a 3 x 2 + a 4x 3 if F(x) is a polynomial function
Y p = C sin 7rX + D cos 7rX if F(x) is a trigonometric function

I I
Fourth order differential equation i V

+ k 2 y" =0
Standard solution for fourth order differential equation
y = A sin lex + B cos lex + Cx + D
Force-Displacement equations for stability analysis
Truss
tA}~El
MB L rc r: I::]
Beam and frame
FAL s q !:J. AIL
-s q
MA £1
q r -q rc BA
=
FBL L -s -q s -q !:J.BIL
MIJ
q rc -q r BB
Conventional Force-Displacement equation
Beam andframe
12 6 12 6
-
3 2 3
FA L L L L2 !:J. A
6 4 6 2
- -
MA
L2 L L2 L BA
=£1
FB 12 6 12 6 !:J. B
3 2 3
MB L L L L2 BB
6 2 6 4
2
- -
L L L2 L
SAB 4223/ SAM 4213/ SAA 4214/ SZW 422311
Faculnof
UTM
. . .
UNIVERSIT1 ltKNOlOGI MALAYSIA

Civil Eft~';lIc('ring
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB 4223/ SAM 4213/ SAA 4214/ SZW 4223
COURSE STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
PROGRAMME SAW/SZW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWERS THREE (3) QUESTIONS ONLY.
WARNING!
the study.
This examination question consists of (9) printed pages only

SAB 4223/ SAM 4213/ SAA 4214/ SZW 422312
Q1. Figure Ql shows a frame structure subjected to point loads of 30 kN and 20

kN. Support A is a fixed while support D is a roller. Show that the frame
structure is statically indetenninate to the first degree. Assuming the reaction
at support D as a redundant and by using flexibility method, detennine the
member end moments for the frame structure. Assume £1 is constant for all
members. Effect of axial forces can be ignored.
30kN
Ale
......1-........- - - - - - - - - - - - - . " --7 20 kN
Sm
/,
"/
D "/
4m 4m
FIGUREQl
SAB 4223/ SAM 4213/ SAA 4214/ SZW 422313
Q2. Figure Q2 shows a truss, which has pin supports at node 1, node 3 and node 4.
The truss is subjected to point loads, 40 kN and 20 kN at node 2 and recorded
10 mm in settlement at node 1. Modulus of elasticity, E and cross sectional
area, A for all members are 205 kN/mm2 and 125 mm2, respectively. By using
stiffness method, determine all the unknown displacements and reactions. If
the allowable normal stress in all member is 175 N/mm2, state by calculation
which member is consider safe. The solutions must be provided in accordance
with the origin, nodes, members, and degree of freedom numbers as shown in
the figure.
---x
-------4 m-------1
FIGUREQ2
SAB 4223/ SAM 4213/ SAA 4214/ SZW 422314
Q3. A beam which is fixed at node 1 and free to move in vertical direction at node
3 is subjected to a point load of 5 kN as shown in Figure Q3. Moment of
inertia for member 1 is twice of member 2. The whole beam is made by the
same material. The member directions and degree of freedom numbering
system are shown in the figure. By using stiffness method, determine all
unknown nodal displacements and rotations, and moment at node 1. Effect of
axial forces can be ignored. Then, sketch the deformed shape of the beam.
1
(33 /3 marks)
5 kN 3
5
1 4
"\
6
0~)
1--1
i2
1
1
1('1~
:;~I
~)
"
17,,~
~_/
/
J
.
/
21 ~ (3'\
! !
, '
_
~-, - .. /
~_.I
4m 2m
.f :f
FIGURE Q3
SAB 4223/ SAM 4213/ SAA 4214/ SZW 4223 \ 5
Q4. (a) Discuss four factors that influence the accuracy of the results in the finite
element method.
(8 marks)
(b) With an appropriate example, describe the meaning of each element

below:
(i) One-dimensional element
(ii) Two-dimensional element
(iii) Three-dimensional element
(9 marks)
(c) A compound bar shown in Figure Q4 carries the axial nodal forces of 4
kN at node 2 and 2 kN at node 3. Node 1 is a rigid support. Modulus of
elasticity, E of all members is 40 kN/mm2 • The length, Land cross
sectional area, A of the members are shown in the figure. By using two
node line element for each member, calculate the displacement at node 2
and node 3.
4kN 2 kN
L- 200mm L "'250mm
A -150 mm 2 A- 100 mm 2
( ) ( )
FIGUREQ4
SAB 4223/ SAM 4213/ SAA 4214/ SZW 422316
GENERAL EQUATIONS
Flexibility method
fa =: ~
L [2 -1] for beams and frames
6El -1 2
T
FXR =bX f bR or TJ fTR = K XR
Fxx =b/fb x or TJfTx = K xx
FRR =b uT fbfi or TJ fT R = K RR
T
F/IX=b R fb x or TJ fT x = K/IX
or
or
r=FR or tl=KR
n[F" ;:]{;}
rx FXR
or
tl x =[K"
{A} K ~: ]{;}
XR
Q=[bR bx J{ ; } or F=[TR Tx]{~}
b=b R -b x F;; FXR or T = TR TxK-;~K,'(R

Q=bR or F=TR
If rx;t: 0, Q=bR + b x F;; rx or tl x ;t: 0, F=TR +TxK~tlx
SAB 4223/ SAM 4213/ SAA 4214/ SZW 422317
Truss analysis using the stiffness method
or
A = kosO =.Y F - Y N or
Y Y L
AB
AxA y
A2
y
- AxA y
_ A2y
or
or I'
i B
= AE
L
[-A
x
SAB 4223/ SAM 4213/ SAA 4214/ SZW 422318
Frames and beams analysis using the stiffness method
For beams and frames without axial and shear effects
Az Bz
Nz Fz
or 4EI 2EI]
K~ ~l 4~1 :
k=2EI[2 IJNZ
L 1 2 F:z [
Member stiffness matrix for frames in global system
Nx or Ax Ny or Ay Nz or Az Fx or Bx F, or By fi or Bz
( AE .{ + 12El
L JJ
.??)
Y
( AE _ 12EI}U'
L t x Y
_ 6El A
L2 Y
_( AE .{ + 11£1
L JJ
.??)
y
-( ~f_1~I)AAy _ 6EI Ay
L2
( ~E_l~I)A~ ( A~ ..12 + 12E! ..12 )
L Y i! x
6EI A
L2
_( AE _11£l)AA
L JJ )
_( AE i + 12El A;)
LYE
6~A
L2
_ 6EI ~ 6El A 4EI
- 6El Ay _ 6E!A -
2El
I! L 2
L L 2 L2 x L
k or K' =
_ ( AE J,,? + 12El ..12) _( A~_11£l)AAy 6E/ A
(~.{+ 1~/ ~) ( AE _ 11£l)AA 6El A
L x L3 Y L JJ x L2 Y L JJ Y L2 Y
_( AE _12El}U' _( AE i + 11£1 A; ) _ 6El A ( AE_I2EI}A ( AE i + 12El ..12) _ 6El A

L J} x Y L Y J} L2 LEx Y LYE x L2 x
_ 6El A 6El A 2El

- 6El A _ 6E/ A 4EI
- -
L2 Y L2 L L2 Y L2 x L
[Q,Qu HK"
K
K" r.]
K D 21 22 k
or ['}[K" K" W.]
Fu K 21 K 22 ~K
Ax Ay 0 0 0
-Ay Ax 0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0 0 0
[T]=
0 0 0 Ax Ay 0
0 0 0 -Ay Ax 0
0 0 0 0 0 1
{q} = [k' ][T][D] or f = k T Li. for frames

{q} = [k'J[T][DJ=[k] [D] or f - K'Li. for beams
SAB 42231 SAM 4213f SAA 4214f SZW 422319
Member stiffness matrix for frames in local system
AE
AE
- 0 0 --
AE
0 0 ~-
0 0 -AE
- 0 0
L L L L
12E/ 6E/ 12E/ 6E/ 12E/ 6E/ 12E1 6E1
0
Jl L 2
0 --T L
2
0 L) 2
L
0
L
3 2
L
6E/ 4E/ 6E/ 2E/ 6E/ 4E/ 6E/ 2E/
0 0 0 - 0 -
k'= L2
~
L -7 ~
L or k = L2 L L2 L
AE AE AE AE
- 0 0 - 0 0 -- 0 0 - 0 0
L L L L
12E/ 6E1 12E1 6E/ 12E/ 6E1 12E/ 6E/
0 -/3- -? 0
LJ -7 0
L
3 -IF 0
J} -7
6E1 2E/ 6E/ 4E/ 6E/ 2E/ 6E/ 4E/
0 - 0 0 - 0 -
7
~
L L 2
L 13 L L 2
L
Fixed-end moments
2
For unifonn distributed loads, i f = ± wL f12
.
For pomt loads,
.£
M = ± Pab 2IL 2 or ± Pa blL
2 2
Finite Element Method

Lagrange function
SAB 4233/ SAM 5233 \ 1
UTM
hewn' of
wil Engin~ering
UNIVERSIl1 TEKNOLOGI MAlAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE OFFSHORE STRUCTURES
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWER FIVE (5) QUESTIONS ONLY.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 4233/ SAM 523312
Ql. (a) Describe any two (2) of the following tenns;

1. Compliant structures
ii. Dry Tree
iii. FSO
(4 marks)
(b) Explain why subsea system including wet tree becomes preferable for oil
and gas production in shallow water?
(6 marks)
(c) MOPU such as jack up platfonn is classified under removable offshore

structures. Justify the utilization of MOPU in offshore oil and gas production
and explain its major advantages.
(10 marks)
(10 marks)
Q2. (a) Describe any two (2) of the following topics;

1. Temperature variation
ii. Extreme water level
Ill. Return period
(3 marks)
(b) Describe three types of vertical motion experienced by structures during

transportation from fabrication yard to offshore installation site (please use
diagram or sketches where necessary).
(3 marks)
(c) Explain the effects of marine growth towards structure reliability.

(4 marks)
(d) Given wave period, T = 8 seconds, water depth, d = 120 m, wave elevation at
the crest, '1 = 4 m, calculate the wave length and wave celerity. Also
calculate the horizontal and vertical components of local acceleration and
velocity at a point of 10m to the seabed at the crest position.
(10 marks)
(10 marks)
SAB 4233/ SAM 5233 \ 3
Q3. (a) Discuss the differences between T-joint and V-joint.

(3 marks)
(b) Explain the following phrase - 'Steel section with good weldability'
(4 marks)
(c) Outline the fundamental concept of dynamic load

(5 marks)
(d) Evaluate the purpose of eccentricity limitation of steel joints?

(8 marks)
(20 marks)
Q4. (a) Discuss the advantages of a portal frame system for topsides design against a
truss system.
(5 marks)
(b) Explain how rhomboid system for horizontal bracing can improve the
potential of high strength steel for use in topside construction.
(5 marks)
(c) A construction of an offshore 3-legged steel jacket sub-structure for a living

quarters module is being completed at a fabrication yard in Lumut
fabrication yard. The structure will be installed in a 45m water depth area of
50km distance from Miri, Sarawak for an existing gas field. Explain each of
the items (i) and (ii) below. (Please use diagrams or sketches where
necessary.)
1. Quality control and quality assurance (QA & QC) in fabrication,

assembly & erection in construction;
11. Pre-service analysis, engineering procedures and considerations of

offshore installation for a jacket sub-structure using launching and self
floating upending method.
(10 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 4233/ SAM 523314
Q5. (a) Describe three (3) types of offshore foundation system. Please use diagram or
sketches where necessary.
(4 marks)
(b) Outline three (3) aspects of stability during the upending and positioning of
offshore jacket sub-structure before the piles are driven. Explain why the
function of a mat-mud is very important in the foundation stability. (please
use diagrams or sketches where necessary.)
(6 marks)
(c) A gas production facility is being developed at about 200km distance from
Pulau Labuan in a 550m water depth region for a gas field. An integrated
topside production and processing modules is being fabricated in Johor and
due to be installed on a 4-column Tension-Leg Platform (TLP) structure.
Evaluate suitable methods for the topsides installation work. The evaluation
should illustrate and compare at least two (2) types of installation methods
comprising engineering, mobilisation, efficiency and economic
considerations for the operations (please use diagrams or sketches where
necessary.)
(10 marks)
(20 marks)
Q6. (a) Explain about two (2) of the following topics on structural integrity of
pipelines;
1. Main causes of structural failures
n. In-line intelligent (ILl) pigging inspection
Ill. Corrosion monitoring in pipeline system
(4 marks)
(b) One of the important components in the structural integrity management

system is a mitigation and prevention process to reduce both the likelihood
and consequences of incidents or failures. Describe two (2) possible
approaches in mitigation and prevention in offshore structures or pipelines.
(6 marks)
(c) Propose and evaluate three (3) possible methods for repair and strengthening
that can be carried out for a damaged tubular bracing of an offshore jacket
structure after a dropped object accident.
(10 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 4233/ SAM 523315
EQUATIONS
2
L == gT
27r
tanh [2ml]
L
~ == [COSh[k(Z + d)]]r; _ Z
p,g cosh(kd)
C =nC !2 [1 + sinh(47rd
47rd / L ]C
g / L) COSh(?7r[Z + d])
u
H gT L.
smO
2 27)
:=-------
v L Sinh(
Sinh(27r[Z + d])
gtdl L
a =- - -coso
L Jgd
v L cosh (2ml)
C:=
T
:=
T
r
0:= kx- OJ(
T ~(2;;[
k := 27r
L Q(H) == 1- P(H) == Number of value ~ H
OJ
27r
== _.
N
T
C== gT tanh(2ml)
27r L
gT
C:=- ==1.56T
27r
r; == Hcos( 27lX _ 2m)

2 L T
T 1
-R= = -
r; == acosO r Q(H)
SAB 424311
Fanlh, of
UTM
UNIVERSITI TEKNOlOGI MALAYSIA
Civil E!1~mt"t'rm1;
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE FINITE ELEMENT ANALYSIS
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER THREE (3) QUESTIONS IN ENGLISH ONLY.
2. DRAW THE NEEDED FIGURES AND WRITE THE STES CLEARLY.
WARNING!
Students caught copyinglcheating during the examination will be liable for
the study.

SAB 424312
ANSWER THREE (3) QUESTIONS ONLY.
IQI. <aJ Using direct method of finite element formulation and beam element,
calculate the stiffness matrix (K] for the steel beam shown in Fig.Q 1.
Determine the vertical displacement v and rotation 6 at nodal points 2
and 3. Assume linear elastic material with the following properties and
data in your calculation:
2
Modulus of elasticity E = 200GPa, cross-sectional area A = 6650 mm ,
moment of inertia 1= 118.6 x 106 mm4 , and uniformly distributed load
30000N/m.
(20 marks)
(b) Explain briefly, what do you understand by isoparametric formulation

in finite element method?
(13 mark)
(33 mark)
,OONim
~ I I II m II II II I I
~ \\ \ \
~
Fixe(I~ 1J
~ IJ
)}), I I II
)}), Iii )~
~
~ I II r~) )~)
••
r· 3
~~
, / ,/.(//
~ Rollfor SlIl)l)ort
/~-- 5.0 In - - - + - 2 . S I n --1
Fig.Ql
SAB 424313
Q2. (a) Fig.Q2(a) represents a 2D linear quadrilateral Serendipity parent

element in local coordinate system and Fig.Q2(b) represents the
corresponding distorted element in global (x,y) coordinate system.
Using isoparametric mapping, determine the global coordinates that
correspond to ~ = +1 and TJ = +0.75 on the parent element. Note:
Coordinates in global coordinate system are in em.
(20 marks)
(b) What are the three basic conditions / fundamental requirements which
must be considered in solving a linear, elastic isotropic structure
problem using finite element technique
(13 marks)
(33 marks)
y
(5, or)
(-1,1) (1.1) 3
..4.,...-----------4
3
'1 y.
'I (1,4) ~~
(o.o~~
1 2
(-1,-1) (1.-1) L.... ~ ) X
Parent eleInent
Distorted eleInent
(Parent domain)
(Global dOinain)
Fig.Q2(a)
Fig.Q2{b)
SAB 424314
Q3 (a) Explain briefly, the method of formulating finite element problems

based on the "Minimum Total Potential Energy Principals" in
continuum structures. Show that the expression for stiffness matrix in
the above mentioned case is [K] = Iv [B]T [D] [B] dv
(20 marks)
(b) What are the basic steps in solving a structural engineering problem
using finite element method? Explain briefly.
(13 marks)
(33 marks)
Q4 (a) Using two-dimensional linear quadrilateral elements, the stress

analysis of a thin plate has been carried out. The nodal stresses (jz and
the coordinates of the nodes for a particular element are shown in
Fig.Q4. Calculate the stress value at point A, which has a local
coordinate ofx = 3.0 mm and y = 2.0 mm.
Note: Use local coordinate system.
(16 marks)
(b) Explain briefly, what do you understand by plane stress modeling of

structures in finite element method and when it is possible to model a
structure as a plane stress case? Show that the stress and strain are
related by {G (x,y)} = [D] {f:(x,y)}. Derive elasticity matrix [D].
(17 marks)
(33 marks)
SAB 424315
30 N/mm2
Icr - /
I /
/
I /
/
I
~I
20 N/Iron 2
~
Q)I
b 11 -+- ..
~I
~_--
I Elelllent
I
ilC-----------~~---""''---__7
I ~ 9 Iron - - - - >
/A!,==--------. ..... /
"7
1 L - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -7 x
Fig.Q4
Q5 (a) For a quadratic quadrilateral two-dimensional element shown in

Fig.Q5(a), derive the equations for shape functions in terms of natural
coordinates:
(i) At nodal point j
(ii) At nodal point 0
(13 marks)
(b) Specify the types of modeling / idealization for the solution of

problems shown in Fig.Q5(b), Fig.Q5(c), and Fig.Q5(d). Write down
the boundary conditions for each one of them.
(10 marks)
(b) The region shown in Fig.Q5(e) is discretized into linear quadrilateral

elements. Label the nodes efficiently and in a desirable manner to
minimize the bandwidth of the resulting system of algebraic equations
(stiffness matrix). Calculate the bandwidth. Assume two degrees of
freedom per node.
(10 marks)
(33 marks)
SAB 424316
1\ 0
In
1)
L, .., 1
1 k J
Fig.Q5(a)
~udl
wind load
~
I I
[ J
I \
I I
i \
I \
I \
I \
/ \
/ \
/ \
I \
/
Concrete chimney
Fig. Q5 (b)
SAB 424317
Load is variable in radial direction but

constant in circumferential direction
I
I
A A
Sec. A-A
Simply supported circular slab with a central
hole subjected to transverse load
Fig.Q5(c)
q/m (varying loads)
C antill2'vl2'l" b l2' <lm
Fig.Q5(d)
SAB 424318
Fig.Q5(e)
SAB 426311
UTM
brull\ of
Civil EII~in"l'rllll:
UNIVERsm TEKNOLOGI MALAYS1A
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE STRUCTURAL WIND AND EARTHQUAKE
ENGINEERING
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
2. CANDIDATES ARE PERMITTED TO REFER TO REFERENCE
MATERIALS
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 426312
Q1. A water tank structure, shown in Figure Q I is located at a site where firm
ground exists and located 30 miles (48 Ian) from the active fault. The depth of
the epicenter is 18.75 miles (30 Ian). The water tank is also exposed to 150 kN
horizontal force from the wind at the top and the horizontal earthquake ground
motion at the base. With given modulus of elasticity, E= 29,000 ksi, moment of
inertia, 1= 40 in\ and damping ratio of 5%, please answer the following
questions.
(a) Calculate the top displacement, base shear and base bending moment of
the water tank structure under the wind load.
(7 marks)
(b) Estimate and plot the "ground spectrum" needed to design for the
structure with probable maximum earthquake of MMI = VII in the four
way log graph.
(8 marks)
(c) Calculate the top displacement, base shear and base bending moment of
the water tank structure under the earthquake load. (Please use the ground
spectrum obtained from Question Q1(b)).
(7 marks)
(d) Please compute the value of wind force needed to produce the same water
tank response as under the earthquake force from question Q 1(c).
(8 marks)
(30 marks)
SAB 426313
Wind Load
=150k ,..---.....,
==*1 w= 1200 kips
E = 29,000 ksi
I = 40 in4
~ =5%
I"l//////////.-It
~
Earthquake Load
FIGUREQI
SAB 426314
Q2. A 10 storey building with dimensions and properties given in Figure Q2 is

subject to wind loads. Assume the total stiffness along the height of concrete
columns from bottom to the top floors have the properties of elastic modulus(E)
4
is 29,000 ksi, and the moment of inertia (I) is 20 in . The structural damping
factor for the building is 5%.
(a) Calculate the wind pressure and the wind load distribution for design wind
speed of 100 mph, along the building height using UBC-94.
(15 marks)
(b) Compute the dynamic wind pressure due to actual wind speed of 50 mph
and compare with the design value in Question Q2(a). Assume the
building period using the simple formulation by referring to the number of
storeys.
(20 marks)
(35 marks)
40 ft
E = 29,000 ksi
1 = 20 in4
10 @ 12 ft
S =3%
v//.///////////////,),
FIGURE Q2
SAB 426315
Q3. A two storey building with properties as shown in Figure Q3 is subject to

earthquake load.
(a) Find the natural periods and the mode shapes of the building using the
structural dynamic concepts.
(15 marks)
(b) Calculate the the horizontal distribution load along the height of the
building, the total base shear and base moment using UBC-94, mC-2000
and Eurocode 8.
(20 marks)
(35 marks)
W=800 kips
/'\
... ,--
.,"" --. -- • :r.- ... ,·,,6
2nd floor
50 ft
W=800 kips
151 floor
r° -
ft
,1/
FIGURE 03
SAB 4263/6
SAB 429311
I bruit) oj
UTM
UNIVERSITI TEKNOlOGI MALAYSIA
i (ilil E!ll!in('t'nt~
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE ADVANCED SOLID MECHANICS
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 429312
QI. Use indicial notation to prove the following vector identity:
vxw·Y=o
(25marks)
Q2. The characteristic equation of a stress state is given as:
Show the derivation of the above equation.
(25 marks)
Q3. Prove that two arbitrary principal stress vectors, say T1 and T are orthogonal
to each other if the corresponding principal values al and a2 are distinct.
(25 marks)
Q4. In an experimental investigation, displacement gradient tensor have been

measured and given as the followings:
aUi]_ [1";3 ";30

Determine:
[ax.) - 0 0 ~]
(a) The strain tensor and the rotation tensor
(4marks)
(b) The principal strain invariants
(7 marks)
SAB 429313
(c) The principal strains
(7 marks)
(d) The principal strain directions
(7 marks)
(25 marks)
Q5. The strains at a point in a deformed steel part are shown as:
30 10
Eij = [ 10 35 25]
o x 10- 6
25 0 20
The isotropic elastic constants and the stress components are respectively
expressed as the followings:
v = 2(A + 1l) ,
(Iij = AEkk8ij + 2ll Eij'
Given the Lame constants for the steel as I = 210 GPa and m = 80 GPa,
determine:
(a) The constitutive relation where
i-v v v
v i-v v o
v v i-v
1- 2v
A
C.IJ°kl = 2
o o
V
1- 2v
o o o
2
1- 2v
o o 2
(10 marks)
SAB 429314
(b) The stress invariants
(10 marks)
(c) The plane stress constitutive equation
(5 marks)
(25 marks)
F= 30 KN
,
,
f t= 1 mm
Xl h
..
L ~
Figure Q6
A cantilever beam shown in Figure Q6 is subjected to a point load, F::= 30 KN

at the tip. The material and geometrical properties of the beam are given as the
followings:
Length of the beam, L == 10m
Height of the beam, h = 0.5 m
Width of the beam, b = 0.2 m
Thickness of the cross section, t = I mm
Young's modulus, E == 205 x 103 MPa
Poisson's ratio, v == 0.20.
Considering the thickness of the cross section, t negligibly small compared to
the length, L and the height, h of the beam and the general solution can be
expressed as follows:
SAB 429315
(a) Show that the solution fulfills the compatibility equation
(3 marks)
(b) State the force and geometry boundary conditions
(3 marks)
(c) Solve the coefficients a, fl, and 1']
(5 marks)
(d) Giving the constitutive equation of plane stress condition:
-v
E"I] = .!.E [!vo 1 ~ ] (hi
o 2 + 2v
Determine the Ski and eiJ terms.
(6 marks)
(e) Solve the displacements Ul and U2.
(8 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 4323\1
UTM
henl'" of
Civil Enginct'ring
UNIVERSITl TEKHOlOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE PRESTRESSED CONCRETE DESIGN
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 3 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWERS THREE (3) QUESTIONS ONLY.
2. ALL SOLUTIONS SHOULD BE IN ACCORDANCE WITH BS 8110 : PART

1 : 1997 AND BS 8110: PART II: 1985.
3. THIS IS AN OPEN BOOK EXAMINATION. CANDIDATES ARE

ALLOWED TO BRING ALL
REFERENCE MATERIALS INTO THE EXAMINATION ROOM.
WARNING!
the study.
This examination question consists of (1 0) printed pages only.

SAB 432312
Q 1. A pre-tensioned prestressed concrete beam is simply supported over a span of

16 m and carries a total uniformly distributed service load of 19.5 kN/m, in
addition to its own self weight. A standard Y beam section as shown in Figure
Ql is to be used. The following information is given:
2 2
• Class 2 category;.!ci = 40 N/mm ;.!cu = 50 N/mm
• a=0.9;p=0.72;usee =250mm
• Possible strands locations are as shown in Figure Q 1
You are required to:
(a) Calculate the stress limits at transfer and service
(2 marks)
(b) Select the most suitable section for the beam. (Choose between Y2 and
Y3)
(6 marks)
(c) Determine the minimum prestressing force at mid span using the four
inequalities.
(10 marks)
(d) Calculate the number of 7-wire super strands of 12.9 mm diameter

2
= 1860 N/mm ; Aps = 100 mm2 ; 70% UTS) required at mid-span.
(/pu
(4 marks)
(e) Determine the number of strands to be debonded at the support.
(7 marks)
(f) Sketch a practical arrangement of strands at mid-span and at the

support. Do not calculate the new e values.
( 41/3 marks)
(33 1/3 marks)
SAB 432313
1JOO-- tbJ
Y 6 - - 1200 1200--(8)
Y 5 - - 1100 1100-- Q)
Y 4 - - 1000 1000-- (JJ)

Y3-- 900 900--~ + + ++
Y2-- 800 80o--CD + +
Yl-
++++++++
260-1.
210- ++++++++++
160- + + + + + +1+ + + + + +
110- ++++++++++++++
60--@ +++++ +++++
0-
750 II
40 5 C 50 5 (/) 50 40
25 25
SEC1'ON PROPER1'ES Design self weight per unit volume has been token as 25 kN/m s
Section No Depth mm Area mml Vb mm Zl mmS)( 10' Zb mm')( 10' App self wei9ht
KN/m
Y1 700 309245 255 24.78 43.24 7.73
Y2 800 339943 299 35.06 58.75 8.50
Y3 900 373525 347 47.90 76.33 9.34
Y4 1000 409990 400 63.59 95.38 10.25
Y5 1100 449339 456 82.13 116.00 11.23
Y6 1200 491572 515 103.69 137.92 12.29
Y7 1300 536689 576 128.28 161.24 13.42
YB 1400 584688 639 156.07 185.86 14.62
FIGUREQI
SAB 432314
Q2. (i) As a senior design engineer at a structural engineering consulting firm,

you are required to decide on the prestressing method (Pre-tensioned or
Post-tensioned) for the following projects. Please justify your choice.
PROJECT A
A 5-span highway bridge is to be constructed across a river in a very
remote area with a nearest town located about 100 km away. A total
number of 100 precast prestressed concrete beams; each spanning 35 m
will be used in the project.
PROJECTB
An elevated highway bridge for a new ring road is to be constructed in
the middle of Johor Bahru city. Due to some constraints, the elevated
bridge spans between 25 to 30 metres. A total number of 550 precast
prestressed concrete beams will be used in the project.
(10 marks)
(ii) Figure Q2 shows the details of a post-tensioned wide T-beam for an

elevated bridge project. Using the information given below and in the
details shown in Figure Q2, you are required to:
(a) Calculate the average prestressing force in all the

tendons taken into account only losses of prestress due
to friction and anchorage draw-in of 7 mm.
(13 1/3 marks)
(b) Determine an equivalent Tl6 closed loop link behind

the anchorage live end of Cable A. (In the drawing, 6
turns of spiral link with 16mm diameter and 50 mm
pitch were used.)
(10 marks)
(33 1/3 marks)
SAB 432315
lOCo{) -,-.
I 1770
]I
800 r+--- SHADED AREA : 8LOCKOUT .~,-----, _._.-
SECnON OF FL"'NGE AT
BOTH ENDS OF BEAM
6 TURNS OF T10mm <l FOR UFTING AND
SPIRAL PITCH 50mm, LAUNCHING PURPOSES
365mm 0.0. ~ , /." _._._
ANCHOf? TYPE 5-19

(.A.alE A
~
-~
,i ,i"
lLl1..LL11!l
!.
--- i I
C.ABLEA
!BeorinQ Plate: '1+----=::;------- _ LIvE END ,ANCHOR.<\GE
'290 rOm , 290 mm)

"l-mffT7!1fTI->-::::--:::-·--:::::::·13- ~ 6Sm!'", 'lI
L1FTltlG H':t.ES
(VSL l1'PE E TENDON
/" 1./ :J II .'1 h N
..• "' -tjr//~ (NP .
' UNIT 5-19 OR EQUIVA.LEtH)
~
~~
/
/
~
0::>
,.o
L
....CD
0/
r'C71
-+ .____---,..----.L--..-.
_~._ -' !
r
AtKHOR TYPE 5-19--.. ".., IL::::::,J
CABLE B 1 ~ ;i..:!1;7 ~- f! if ij
(Bearing Plate: """jf.L'i.jL.!lJU:
_~1t.·------~=::F::'~-·--·-'" i C:.BLE B 1 ,
~'RTENDO~4
290 rrlm )( 290 mm) '"
<:> HORb,GE
~~ / !
(82 = DEAD END 111' JnI7717--··----···==·~ <0
WE END ,..,NC
ANCHORAGE) #J ,J LI L tt U a , (VSL 1YP1E9 _. EQUIVALENT)
UNIT;)-
6 TURNS OF T16mm
CABLE 82 ----- 7 \" fI60 _I
0
DEAD HID ANCHORAGE
SPIP,Al PITCH SOmm (VSL TYPE H TENDON
365mm 0.0. ' ::;:;A.lE I : 2': UI\lIT 5-19 A.LTERN,A-TIVE
t T,'PE II OR EOUIV.A.LENT)
~CALI:. 1 . 20
FIGURE 02(a)
SAB 432316
PRESTRESSING TABLE
36m SPM~
CABLE No. OF TENDON Jp,CKING FORCE

fM'HK STRANDS UNIT (KN)
(EACH)
A 19 5-19 2651
81 & 82 19 5-19 2651
CA.BLE LOC.ATIOf\lS Ovlrl/j)
CABLE DIST. FROM SOFFIT ECCENTRICITY

MARK AT AT AT AT
SUPPORT MID SPAN SUPPORT MID SPA.N
A 1850 100
0 962
81 & 82 350 100
Wooble factor, k = 0.002/m; J.1 = 0.25
E s = 196 kN/mm 2 ; A ps = 5625.9 mm 2
FIGURE Q2(b)
Q3. Figure Q3 shows a cross section of a prestressed pre-tensioned concrete box

beam with uniform wall thickness of 150 mm on all sides. The beam contains
non-prestressed reinforcement as shown by void circles. The effective
prestressing force in the tendons is 2500 kN. The following information is
given:
• Beam:.fcu = 40N/mm 2; Ee = 28 kN/mm 2; A e = 765000 mm 2

• Prestress Steel (l5.2mm dia 7-wire standard strand):
Aps = 139 mm\ftJU = 1670N/mm2 ;Es = 195 kN/mm 2
• Non-Prestressed Steel:J;, = 460 N/mm 2; Es ::::: 200 kN/mm 2
SAB 432317
You are required to:
(a) Derive the total compressive force in the concrete if the neutral axis
depth, x is as shown in Figure Q3.
(5 marks)
(b) Derive the total tensile force in the steel at neutral axis depth equals x
as shown in Figure Q3.
(5 marks)
(c) Derive the ultimate moment of resistance for the section taking
moment about the neutral axis.
(5 marks)
(d) Calculate the ultimate moment of resistance for the section assuming a
starting value of x equals 90 mm. Increase or decrease x by 5 mm and
stop the iteration process when the percentage difference between
compressive and tensile forces is less or equals to 5%.
(18 1/3 marks)

(33 1/3 marks)
I JC "',
NIUtnII AlIIt
-- . - r-
..1§Q.. ~
r- 0
AI, cllmenllonI.'n mm. 0 rne
(Aa =.c02 mm2)
I
·~I ·
15 Nos 15.20.. T-wh
~
• • • • • • • • • • • • • St8ndIrd SInInd
(Ape =208& mm2}
FIGURE 03
SAB 432318
Q4. Figure Q4(a) shows a cross section of a simply supported bridge deck
spanning 26.6 m and its strands arrangement at mid span. The bridge is made
up of 200 mm thick cast in situ concrete slab and 9 numbers of SYI precast
pre-tensioned prestressed concrete beam. The section and material properties
together with the strands debonding table are shown in Figure Q4(b). Using
the given data, you are required to
(a) Check the value of maximum shear stress in accordance with clause
4.3.8.2 ofBS 8110
(3 marks)
(b) Design for shear at a section 4 m from the support
(15 marks)
(c) Assuming that the interface between slab and beam lies in the
compression zone, design the horizontal shear reinforcement at the
above section
(IO marks)
(d) Sketch a practical arrangement of the shear links at the considered

section
(5 1/3 marks)
(33 1/3 marks)
Data:
Total Dead load = 19.85 kN/m
Total Live Load = 37.06 kN/m
Assume constant e (= 363.3 mm) along the span
Vertical and Horizontal Shear Links:
2
fyv = 460 N/mm ; Diameter = 12 mm; Surface Type: As-Cast
p = 0.72; b v = 268 mm
SAB 432319
,240 1
1350-
1300--
(
. 0 0
l !
: 0 0 ,
1=''::'
7,300 I,aoa 1,500 i I
; I
canl8gaway ~ I FIlQCplIII . I
r
I
~
!
I
s
/
L\
---. 1]1 ! I i! I i I I I i j
, ..~
, I
i I ,,
I
i
~ :! I ! ! .1 i .i ! i I \ i
I
i
cgc
r-
'"
. I
ill I i i i
,
I I
i , I ; ! I
I i
: ,
.i
, I "71
~ll )ll
! ;
) 1......,
j
.... /
~
(,,,'1
,,)
L--.J
r.Jj (/
I
'''--...,
j
(./ '-"1 r)
i
'-"
I
I '
I' \
',,--"-~~,_
...
~
/',/-/.//
. I
-'--~ ---~.
I Lc7S .1. LC/S I ill

210---i 0000 0000 i
11lO - - ; 00000 00000 I
110 - - . 000000 000000
Cross Section of Bridge Deck "~ummnm) 5050 5@50
Arrangement of Strands in Precast Beam

At Mid Span
FIGURE 04(a)
SAB 4323 r 10
Section Properties
Section Name: SYl Debonding Table
Precast: Class 1 Pre-tensioned h= 1500 mm
fci= 40 N/mm
l
Eci = 31 kN/mm: Debonding Length Total Number Number of
feu= 50
l
34 kN/mm:
From Both Ends of Debonded
N/mm Ee =
A= 549159 mm
l
1= 1.20E+ll '11n1
.I (mm) Strands Strands
y1 = 902.00 mm.l '12 = 598.00 mm.!
1.33E+08 mm - 45 38
;
zl = z2= 2.00E+08 mm 1000
kt= 364.1 mm kb = 241.4 mm
2800 45 25
Cast in situ slab
h= 200 mm be= 1275 mn1
:
feu= 40 N/mm Ee= 31 kNlmm:
5400 45 15
Composite Section btr= 1162.5 mm
m= 0.91 h~Ol'""';' = 1700 mm
Ace-:, = 781659.0 mm
l
I~= ... : = 2.84E+11 mm
.I Properties of a Strand (15.2 mm dia 7-wire standard strand)
..,.' .--- =
_)W-..· · : too 804.0 mm Z:',>::H'r",c = 3.54E+08 o'nm"
'y:.'::'"V":, = 896.0 mm z:}::-~:, = 3.17E+08 mm'
Jj,u = 1670 Nt mm2 ;
A ps = 139 mm 2 ;
y' :.0;;:'" = 604.0 mm Zi,::S!"'" = 4.71E+03 mm "

Strands stressed to 70% UTS
FIGURE Q4(b)
SAB 4333/ SAM 4314/ SAA 4344/ SZW 4333 1 1
Focu1t\nf
UTM. • ..
UNIVERSJn TEKNOlOGI MALAYSIA

0riI~
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB 4333 / SAM 4314 1 SAA 43441 SZW 4333
COURSE REINFORCED CONCRETE DESIGN 2
PROGRAMME SAW/SZW
DURATION 3 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER ANY TWO QUESTIONS FROM SECTION A AND ANY
ONE QUESTION FROM SECTION B.
2. ALL SOLUTIONS SHOULD BE IN ACCORDANCE WITH BS 8110

: 1997
WARNING!
the study.

SAD 4333/ SAM 4314/ SAA 4344/ SZW 4333 \ 2
SECTION A
AI. The car park and the ground floor of the nearby buildings are connected by
two flights of reinforced concrete staircase shown in Figure A1. Flight 1
which consists of 10 steps, is supported by a ground beam at the lower end and
by the landing of flight 2 at the upper end. Flight 2 which consists of 10 steps
is supported by a beam at the lower end and by concrete wall at the upper end.
The overall depth of the landing and the waist for the flight is 175 mm. The
dimension of going and riser are 250 mm and 160 mm, respectively. Other
relevant dimensions are given in the figure.
Design data:
Characteristic live load = 5.0 kN/m 2
Finishes and handrails = 0.8 kN/m 2
Characteristic strength of concrete = 30 N/mm2
Characteristic strength of steel 500N/mm2
Concrete cover to main reinforcement = 25mm
(a). Sketch clear!y the longitudinal section of flight 1.
(b). Draw the idealized structure of flight 1 and 2.
(c). Draw bending moment diagrams of flight I and 2 by showing all the
important values.
(d). Design all reinforcement required for flight 2 only and show their
arrangement on longitudinal section.
(30 marks)
SAB 4333/ SAM 4314/ SAA 4344/ SZW 433313
250
Concrete wall 1
1
+ .J,..
10@250= 2500
-----(iF
I~
I
I
I
I
Ground beam - I
I 1600
.-l
r- I
I
I
I
,-------,
i i
-j Colrnnnj
~
J .1
Beam
1
10 @ 250 = 2500 1600 250
250 1600 ----1---10 @ 250 =2500 ~ I- 250
Concrete wall
Column
Section A-A
FIGURE Al
SAB 43331 SAM 43141 SAA 43441 SZW 4333 \ 4
A2. Figure A2 shows parts of first floor plan and cross-section of a reinforced
concrete building. The building has no special element to support horizontal
load from wind pressure. All beams in line 1-4 are 250 x 500 rnm, while beam
in line A-E are 300 x 600 mm. All columns are 300 x 400 mm and the column
position is shown in the figure.
From the structural analysis is was found that column C/2 from 1st. floor to
2nd. floor carries ultimate axial load of 1000 kN and ultimate bending
moments as follows:
1. Moment due to the loads on beam C/2-3 of 60 kNm at top end

(2nd. Floor) and 40 kNm at bottom end (1st. Floor)
11. Moment due to the loads on beams 21A- E are neglected.
(a) Calculate the effective height of column C/2 from 1st. floor to 2nd. floor
using Section 2.5 BS8110: 1985: Part 2.
(b) design all the reinforcements required for column e/2 from first floor to
second floor.
Data: feu = 30 N/mm2, h = 460 N/mm2, bar diameter == 20 mm,

cover to main reinforcement = 45 mm
(30 marks)
SAB 4333/ SAM 4314/ SAA 4344/ SZW 433315
Roof
t
31 00
2nd , Floor
l
4QOO
I
\jI
1st, Floor
I
5000
I
I
\j;
Gnd. Floor
CROSS-SECTION
@--T
-- --- .. -_. --. --- ----'- -. --'f- -.- --- ... -. --.- -. --. --.. --' '" -- --- --.-- -. -. -- ------.' -
g + 8H
'.
8;:
t I
4500 10
x
\0;:
)('.
+ U')::
)(1'
+
~ ~:: 0::
(8)+
N 300 x 600 N:: ~::
:::::::...-::::.---.-::::.:-::.-.- .. _. -_. --. _. ----' --. -_.. -_.. , ----..----:.-_..~~-?-~:~~.~---::: .._-_..
t t
®--+
3000
:.·:.·:.·:.·:.-?g9L~9?:::::: --
300
._ ..
~-.
x -600
-._.- - -- ----. -~-
30PO t t
®--+ :._-. _. . -:.-:. .-~-~~-.~-~~-?-.-.-_ ..-.-.-;! ~ ... -_.~?_~-~~-~? __...--' :: :--------------:~~~-~:~~~--------_.::-
4500 : + : + :: + :
® . j. L·.··.. 1 L
o 390, MQ
7000 0---7000~~7000
mm • • 10.9.'.'09
Cb
.
FIRST FLOOR PLAN
All units in mm
• Column cross-section
(300 x 400mm)
FIGUREA2
SAB 43331 SAM 43141 SAA 43441 SZW 433316
A3. Figure A3 shows the cross-section of a reinforced concrete cantilever retaining

wall, which is required to support a bank of earth 5.0 m high above ground
level on the toe side of the wall. The backfill comprise of granular soil with a
unit weight of 17 kN/m 3 and an angle of shear resistance of 30°. The
coefficient of friction between soil and concrete is assumed to be 0.5. Consider
the backfill to be level, but subject to a surcharge pressure of 15 kN/m 2 due to
the construction of a building. Assume good soil for foundation at the depth of
1.5 m below the ground level with a safe bearing capacity of 150 kN/m 2 .
Check the stability of the wall and design all the wall elements using Grade
C35 concrete, Grade 500 steel reinforcement and a concrete cover to main
reinforcement 50 mm. Sketch the detailing of the reinforcement on cross
section.
(30 marks)
1~250
5000
6q
..._------------'
(~--2-2-0-0_-~'1~(
1.. 1500 )
All units in mm
FIGUREA3
SAB 4333/ SAM 4314/ SAA 4344/ SZW 433317
SECTION B
B 1. (a) What is meant by unbraced frame. Briefly explain the method of analysis
ofunbraced frame in BS 8110: 1997.
(b) The front view of a substitute frame in a five storey reinforced concrete
building is to be constructed without any bracing structures is shown in
Figure B1(a). The beams, with a cross-section of 250 x 600 mm are
continuous over three equal spans of 8.0 m each. The columns, which are
of 300 x 400 mm cross-section are 5.0 m high for the first lift and 3.6 m
for the successive storeys. In addition to carrying certain vertical dead
and live loads, the frame also carries a characteristic wind load of 4.0
kN/m height.
From the analysis by considering vertical loads only as in clause

3.2.1.2.2, the bending moment envelope obtained for the sub-frame
consisting of the first floor beams and associate upper and lower column
is given in Figure B1(b). An analysis of vertical loads only as in clause
3.2.1.3.2(a) on the same sub-frame produces a bending moment diagram
shown in Figure B1(c).
(i) Based on clause 3.2.1.3.2(b), analyse the substitute frame in

Figure B1(a) due to ultimate horizontal loads from the wind, and
sketch the bending moment diagram in all beams and column,
showing their important values.
(ii) Sketch the bending moment diagram for the sub-frame in Figure
B1(c) for the combination of vertical and horizontal loads.
(iii) According to clause 3.2.3.2, what are the bending moment values
to be considered in the design of individual members in the sub
frame mentioned above.
(40 marks)
SAB 4333/ SAM 4314/ SAA 4344/ SZW 433318
-
,---.
~:-
:z :----:
-
.
.q-~

.::J. ~
o· .
-~ -- - :....
--
55·l 55,'
210·f 210·(
e7·~ 97'8 (b)
,
I
43'9~ 27·e 27·S 43'S)

~'3·g2
44'0 7,7 44'0
15('2
63'2 (C)
162'7
I
I
31·6 I
5·-6 3\·6 ;
f+-3'64~
FIGURE Bl
SAB 4333/ SAM 4314/ SAA 4344/ SZW 433319
B2. (a) The selection of the type of foundation required in any particular
circumstance is dependent on a number of factors. Explain in brief
those factors.
(b) A rectangular pad foundation is required to support a single column

transferring an axial design load of 1700 kN and design moment of 80
kNm. Using the data provided, design and check the base with respect
to:
1. Bending (in both directions)
11. Direct shear
iii. PWlching shear
Design data:
Size of pad foundation, (L x B x h) = 300 x 2500 x 600mm
Characteristic strength of concrete =40N/mm2
Characteristic strength of reinforcement = 500N/mm2
Net pennissible groWld bearing pressure = 200N/mm2
Column dimensions = 250 mm x 250mm
Nominal cover =50mm
Use a factor of 1.45 to change the design load to characteristic load.
(c) If the problem in (b) above is to be designed using pile foundation,

calculate the number of pile required and proposed the dimension of
pile cap and pile arrangement. Use 150x 150mm RC pile with the
capacity of 300 kN. Check the maximum service load applied on each
pile.
(40 marks)
SAB 4333/ SAM 4314/ SAA 4344/ SZW 4333\10
APPENDICES:
Table A: Sectional areas of groups of bars (mm 2)

Bar size Number of bars
(mm) I 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
6 28.3 56.6 84.8 113 141 170 198 226 255 283
8 50.3 101 151 201 251 302 352 402 452 503
10 78.6 157 236 314 393 471 550 628 707 786
12 113 226 339 452 566 679 792 905 1018 1131
16 201 402 603 804 1005 1207 1408 1609 1810 2011
20 314 628 943 1257 1571 1885 2199 2514 2828 3142
25 491 982 1473 1964 2455 2946 3437 3928 4418 4909
32 804 1609 2413 3217 4022 4826 5630 6435 7239 8044
40 1257 2514 3710 5027 6284 7541 8798 10054 11311 12568
Table B: Sectional area per meter width for various bar spacing (mm 2/m)
Bar size Spacing of bars
(mm) 50 75 100 125 150 175 200 225 250 300
6 566 371 283 226 189 162 141 126 113 94
8 1005 670 503 402 335 287 251 223 201 168
10 1571 1047 786 628 524 449 393 349 314 262
12 2262 1508 1131 905 754 646 566 503 452 371
16 4022 2681 2011 1609 1341 1149 1005 894 804 670
20 6284 4189 3142 2514 2095 1795 1571 1396 1257 1047
25 9819 6546 4909 3928 3273 2805 2455 2182 1964 1636
32 16087 10725 8044 6435 5362 4596 4022 3575 3217 2681
40 25136 16757 12568 10054 8379 7182 6284 5586 5027 4189
SAB 4333/ SAM 4314/ SAA 4344/ SZW 4333)11
,2.5 Effective column height

2.5.1 General
Simplified recommendations are given in BS 8110-1 for the assessment of effective column heights for
common situations. Where a more accurate assessment is desired. the equations given in 2.5.5 and 2.5.6
may be used.
2.5.2 Symbols
For the purposes of 2.5 the following symbols apply.
second moment of area of the section

effective height of a column in the plane of bending considered
clear height between end restraints
ratio of the sum of the column stiffnesses to the sum of the beam stiffnesses at the lower
end of a column
ratio of the sum of the column stiffnesses to the sum of the beam stiffnesses at the upper
end of a column
lesser of ac,l and a c,2
2.5.3 Stiffness of members

In the calculation of a c, only members properly framed into the end of the column in the appropriate plane
of bending should be considered. The stiffness of each member equals II lo·
2.:>.4 Relative stiffness

In specific cases of relative stiffness the following simplifying assumptions may be used:
a) flat slab construction: the beam stiffness is based on an equivalent beam of the width and thickness 0
the slab forming the column strip;
b) simply-supported beams framing into a column: a c to be taken as 10;
c) connection between column and base designed to resist only nominal moment: etc to be taken as 5;
d) connection between column and base designed to resist column moment: a c to be taken as 1.0.
2.5.5 Braced columns: effective height for framed structures

The effective height for framed structures may be taken as the lesser of:
le = lo [0.7 + 0.05 (etc,l + ad] < lo equation 3
Ie = 10 (0.85 + 0.05 ac,min) < 10 equation 4
2.5.6 Unbraced columns: effective height for framed structures

The effective height for framed structures may be taken as the lesser of:
. .
le = lo [1.0 + 0.15 (ac 1 + a c 2 )] equation 5
le = lo (2.0 + 0.3 ac,min) equation 6
SAB 4333/ SAM 4314/ SAA 4344/ SZW 4333112
2 3 4 5 6 7 B 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
50
45
I -I i
~
I
, t004
40
"-
I
"'-..~ ~
r~
~
I
I ~
35
,
~~ r-.:... ~ ~~~
...........
tv
~ 30 , .....
~
N ~,' I'Z. ~ ~,'
.......
z
25
'f-..
I
""f>( "> ~
1/ .......
!> ~."
.c
~ 20
1>-......'I ~ ,. "-' ~ r>< f'" "'- ~
1'..-/
z
~f I. K: ....~ x<
""K ~ .'X( ~ ~ r-.. ..........
15
~.,
I
~ ,='" K~ k ~
~/
'
-"""- ~ ~i'..-"'"~
--- k---
~-~
9
r
d
to--b ---1
.Asc 0
2
10
~~ - ~ '7-- s;. S ""'" P)- ~

h
-~
5
17
~---
~--
- K-\.O 1oTo lose
V '/ /
'./
("') / V / 'V ' / / ' . // ./
::r
Ql
/'
~ o 2 3 4 5 6 7 a 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
feu 30
Z l4/bh 2 N/mm 2
9 fV 460
N
CO Rectangular columns d/h 0.115
2 3 4 5 6 7 B 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
50
45
40
35
N~ 30
.......
z
25
.c
~ 20
z
15 r::c~T
t ":c 1~
10
d
o 2 •
5
("')
:::r
Ql
~
o 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 B 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
feu 30
Z l4/bh 2 N/mm 2 fy 460
9
N
to Rectangular columns d/h 0.90
SAB 438311
Fa<:uln o(
UTM
UNIVERSITI TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA

Ch'il En~m,,"';ni?
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE TALL BUILDING SYSTEM: ANALYSIS & DESIGN
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWERS ALL FOUR QUESTIONS.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 4383 2
Q1. Figure Q1 / S1 shows a few storey height of tall building reinforced concrete
structures constructed using tunnel form. Determine
(a) what is the role and behavior of frames

(5 marks)
(b) what is the role and behavior of core walls
(5 marks)
(c) what is the role and behavior of floor system
(5 marks)
in resisting the lateral and vertical load on tall buildings. Also approximately
state the percentage of lateral load that may be taken by the structural element
of (a) and (b) and also determine why. (10 marks)
(25 marks)
Rajah QI / Sl menunjukkan beberapa tingkat bangunan tinggi konkrit

bertetulang yang dibina dengan menggunakan peranca terowong. Tentukan
(a) Apakah tugas kerangka

(5 markah)
(b) Apakah tugas dinding teras
(5 markah)
(c) Apakah tugas system lantai
(5 markah)
Dalam merintang beban tegak dan datar pada bangunan tinggi. Tentukan
anggaran beban datar yang akan diambil oleh elemen struktur (a) dan (b),
serta jelaskan mengapa. (10 markah)
(25 markah)
SAB 4383 \ 3
FIGURE 01/81
SAB 438314
Q2. Figure Q2 I S2 shows four diagrams (a), (b), (c) and (d), of shear wall building
that undergo the lateral defonnation due to intense earthquake loads, and
shown at elastics, elasto-plastics, ultimate and collapse stage. Determine
(a) The plastic hinge location on each diagram

(8 marks)
(b) What are the major characteristics of collapse of shear walls as shown in
figure Q2 I S2 (d) and explain.
(5 marks)
(c) If the coupling beam are replaced with slender coupling sections, sketch the
behavior at shear wall collapse state.
(12 marks)
(25 marks)
Rajah Q2 / 82 menunjukkan empat rajah (a), (b), (c) dan (d), peringkat
dinding ricih yang tersesar kerana beban gempa bumi yang besar. Tentukan
(a) Kedudukan engsel plastic pada setiap rajah

(8 markah)
(b) Apakah ciri utama kegagalan dinding ricih rajah Q2 / 82 (d) dan
terangkan.
(5 markah)
(c) Jika rasuk pengganding diganti dengan keratan ganding langsing,
lakarkan kelakunan dinding ricih pada keadaan runtuh.
(12 markah)
(25 markah)
SAB 438315
Q)
11'1
C.
-
-ca
"o
CJ
Q)
~
-e
u ._
-..,
-
~
11'1
U
t;
-~.
-a.ca
-u
..,o
11'1
-w
ca
11'1
.
-..,
U
II 11'1
-ca
w -
FIGURE Q2 182
SAB 438316
Q3. The tall building structures must be design for fire requirement.
(a) Dtermine the provision of tall building design for fire safety.
(8 marks)
(b) Explain the general rule of tall buildings fire regulations safety in design
(8 marks)
(c) Explain what are the major different between fire load, internal explosion
load and external induced explosion on tall building design.
(9 marks)
(25 marks)
Struktur bangunan tinggi mesti di rekebentuk untuk keperluan kebakaran

(api).
(a) Tentukan keutamaan rekabentuk bangunan tinggi yang selamat

kebakaran.
(8 markah)
(b) Terangkan peraturan am keselamatan kebakaran bangunan tinggi untuk
rekabentuk.
(8 markah)
(c) Apakah perbezaan utama beban kebakaran, beban letupan dalaman dan
beban letupan luaran pada rekabentuk bangunan tinggi.
(9 markah)
(25 markah)
SAB 438317
Q4. Figure Q4 / S4 show a typical storey of reinforced concrete tall building

structures. Using the diagram, make a flowchart of step and procedures for the
computerised stiffness analysis of the buildings using wide frame analogy
method for reinforced concrete design use. Explain what if the geometrical
non-linear analysis and material non-linear analysis are to be perfonned on the
shown diagram.
(25 marks)
Rajah Q4 /S4 menunjukkan satu tingkat lazim bangunan tinggi konkrit

bertetulang. Dengan menggunakan rajah tersebut, bina carta-alir yang
menunjukkan langkah perlu untuk analisis berkomputer dengan menggunakan
kaedah kerangkan lebar yang akan digunakan dalam rekabentuk konkrit
bertetulang. Terangkan langkah tambahan sekiranya analisis tak lelurus
geometrid an analisis tak lelurus bahan dilakukan pada rajah bangunan
tersebut.
(25 markah)
SAB 438318
FIGURE 04 I 84
SAU 4422 \ ]
UTM
j .I ,'II it'. d
t'lqj LH::'j1h'( II;]:";
UIlIVERSITi IEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAU 4422
COURSE REINFORCED CONCRETE DESIGN
PROGRAMME SPA
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER ANY THREE (3) QUESTIONS ONLY.
2. ALL SOLUTIONS SHALL BE BASED ON BS 8110: PART 1
WARNING!
the study.

SAU 4422 \ 2
Q I . The failure mode of a loaded reinforced concrete rectangular beam section is

very much influenced by the ratio of the depth of its neutral axis (x) over its
effective depth (d).
a) Describe with the aid of sketches the differences between an under

reinforced failure mode as compared to an over reinforced failure
mode of a loaded rectangular section of a reinforced concrete beam.
References must be made to the relationship between the depth of the
neutral axis and the effective depth ofthe beam section (x/d ratio).
(25 marks)
b) Justify the reason why BS 8110 adopts x/d = 0.5 in the formulation of
general beam design equations.
(8 1/3 marks)
Q2. Figure Q2(a) shows a simply supported beam of 8.0 m span supporting a total
ultimate load of 25 kN/m.
a) Determine the maximum mid span sagging moment of the beam.

(8 marks)
b) Calculate the required area of bending reinforcement and

subsequently the number and diameter of reinforcement bars suitable
for both beam sections shown in Figure Q2(b).
(20 marks)
c) If given a choice between the two beam sections, which beam section
would you select and why?
(5 1/3 marks)
SAU 442213
Q3. Figure Q3 shows a section of a typical structural floor layout of a multi storey
building. A characteristic live load of 3.0 kN/m 2 is to be applied through out
the whole floor. The floor slab thickness is maintained at 150 mm while all
beams are 200 mm (width) x 600 mm (depth). An additional floor slab finishes
2
load of 1,0 kN/m is applied to all floor slabs.
2
By adopting fcu 30 N/mm , fy 460 N/mm2 fy 250 NI 2 d
reinforcement 30 mm', ' v mm an cover to all
a) Determine the b d'

B/l-2. en mg moment and shear force diagram for beam
(5 mark.'»
b) Design beam B/1-2 for bending reinforcement.
(15 marks)
c) Design beam B/1-2 for shear reinforcement.
(5 marks)
d)
Check for deflection and cracking for beam B/l-2.
(5 marks)
e) Sketch all design output
(3 1/3 marks)
SAU 4422 \ 4
1 t of an office building. An
Figure Q4 shows a. t~pic.al structu~;13 ~0~~/~20~S to be applied on ~ll slabs
Q4.
estimated charactenstlc live load 5 ~N/ 2 acting throughout the entire floor
with an additional finishes load of O. m
slab.
An slab thickness is maintained at 1~O mm thick with all beam sizes of 2~~
111m x4~~ mm,
a) Determine the bending moment and shear force diagram for slab panel
B-C/3-6.
(5 marks)
b) Design slab panel B-C/3-6 for bending reinforcement.
(15 marks)
c) Check for shear and deflection for slab panel B-C/3-6.
(10 marks)
d) Sketch all design output.
(3 1/3 marks)
Adopt fcu 30 N/mm 2, fy 250 N/mm 2 and cover to all reinforcement 25 mm

SAU 4422 \ 5
( (J ~)
, ,
40U
I
AS
',';\1,' ' i · "

.'
1
ClmerlSlons r'lm)"
SAU 4422 \ 6
! I
i .
I
I I
I I
!
i I
! ! i
! I
I I
+
! !
! I
I
i I
i I
l I
1 )
i (
~,'. ' ---1.",[1_._..._ ...._.._. _..........._._"'_"_-_.__._

_ ...... ..._....._. _....._.--_.-_-_"_
..._,. _,,_1L'j__ . · : . :.· . .....: : . :.·. .:.:·--'.:::..:.::.'----------:.:...=1'••.trl.:.
....:::..:.::.__=_-=--:.j
·=-.::.
.. ·__'
V": ~"'rl
I
I I
I I
J j ;
& h~,--:-....- .-.·- . - - - -....-.....

- .. - - -
. . . -.--
. '_"'-:..,-.-...
....- -. -.-.-...-.- ... .....-.. -::.,-:h:-. . --·------J
.. -"'---"-'---
I I
FIGURE 03
(All dimensions mm)

SAU 44221 7
'''1
!
I
J
200
SAU 4422 \ 8
Table A: Sectional areas of groups of bars (mm2)

Bar size Number of bars
(mm)
I 2 3 4
5 6 7 8 9 10
6
28.3 56.6 84.8 ] ]3
]4] 170 ]98 226 255 283
8
50.3 101 151 20]
251 302 352 402 452 503
10
78.6 ]57 236 314
393 471 550 628 707 786
'7
J_ ]13 226 339 452 566 679 792 905 ]0]8 ] ]3I
]6 201 402 603 804 ]005 ]207 1408 1609 1810 2011
20 3]4 628 943 1257 157] 1885 2]99 2514 2828 3142
25 491 982 ]473 ]964 2455 2946 3437 3928 44]8 4909
32 804 1609 24]3 3217 4022 4826 5630 6435 7239 8044
40 ]257 25]4 3770 5027 6284 754] 8798 10054 11311 ]2568
Table B : Sectional area per meter width for various bar spacing (mm1lm)
Bar size Spacing of bars
(rom) 50 75 ]00 ]25 150 ]75 200 225 250 300
6 566 377 283 226 ]89 ]62 ]41 126 113 94
8 1005 670 503 402 335 287 25] 223 201 168
10 ]57] 1047 786 628 524 449 393 349 314 262
12 2262 1508 ] ]3] 905 754 646 566 503 452 377
16 4022 2681 2011 1609 134] ] 149 ]005 894 804 670
20 6284 4]89 }]42 2514 2095 1795 ]57] ]396 ]257 ]047
25 98]9 6546 4909 3928 3273 2805 2455 2]82 ] 964 ]636
32 ]6087 ]0725 8044 6435 5362 4596 4022 3575 3217 268]
40 25]36 16757 12568 ]0054 8379 7]82 6284 5586 5027 4189
SAB 44121 SAM 54131 SAA 4144 1 siw 4422 \ 1
EKuln of
UTM
VNlVERSITl TEKNOlOGf flALAYSlA

ChI! I~flltinecft 1lJ.:
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB44121 SAM54131 SAA41441 SZW4422
COURSE CIVIL ENGINEERING INFORMATION SYSTEM
PROGRAMME SAW/SZW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWERS ALL QUESTIONS.
WARNING!
disciplinary actions and the/acuity may recommend the student to be expelled/rom
the study.

SAB 4412/ SAM 5413/ SAA 4144 / SZW 4422 \ 2
Q1. (a) Describe the differences between activity model and data model in
system development. Why do we need to model the information in
developing an information system?
Jelaskan perbezaan diantara model aktiviti dan model data didalam

proses pembangunan sistem. Mengapakah kita perlu memodelkan
maklumat dalam membangunkan sesuatu sistem maklumat?
(10 marks/markah)
(b) "Sustainable development means development that meets the needs of

today without compromising the ability of future generations to meet
their needs and taking into account environmental, socio-economic and
cultural issues. It provides ways of buildings that use less resource, less
energy, less waste and cause less pollution."
Based on the statement, how the leT can contribute towards bringing
success to the concept of sustainable development in construction
field? Explain by giving appropriate examples.
"Pembangunan lestari bermaksud pembangunan yang memenuhi

keperluan hari ini tanpa menjejaskan keupayaan generasi akan datang
memenuhi keperluan mereka dan mengambil kira isu-isu persekitaran,
sosio ekonomi dan kebudayaan. lanya menyediakan bangunan
bangunan yang menggunakan kurang sumber, kurang tenaga) kurang
pembaziran dan kurang menyebabkan pencemaran. "
Berdasarkan pernyataan tersebut) bagaimanakah leT boleh
menyumbang dalam menjayakan konsep pembangunan lestari dalam
bidang pembinaan? Jelaskan dengan contoh-contoh yang sesuai.
(15 marks/markah)
(25 markslmarkah)
SAB 4412/ SAM 5413/ SAA 4144/ siw 442213
Q2. (a) In Data Flow Diagram (DFD), why a tenninator cannot be connected
to another terminator directly?
Di dalam Gambarajah Aliran Data (GAD), mengapakah satu
terminator tidak boleh dihubungkan secara terus dengan terminator
yang lain?
(8 marks/markah)
(b) Figure Q2 shows the Level 2 and 3 of the Data Flow Diagram for ABC
System. In this system, Terminator Y is the source for Data P and the
sink for Data L, Tenninator Z is the source for Data T and sink for
Data S. Meanwhile, terminator X is the source for Data K and sink for
Data R and Data V. Draw the Level 2 for process C, Levelland Level
o (Context Diagram) of the Data Flow Diagram for the ABC System
based on Figure Q2.
Rajah Q2 menunjukkan Gambarajah Aliran Data Tahap 2 dan 3 bagi
Sistem ABC Di dalam sistem ini, Terminator Y merupakan sumber
bagi Data P dan penerima bagi Data L, Terminator Z merupakan
sumber bagi Data T dan penerima bagi Data S, manakala Terminator
X merupakan sumber bagi Data K dan penerima bagi Data R dan
Data V Lukiskan Gambarajah Aliran Data Tahap 2 bagi proses C,
Tahap 1 dan Tahap 0 (Gambarajah Konteks) bagi Sistem ABC
berdasarkan Rajah Q2 yang diberikan.
(17 marks/markah)
SAB 4412/ SAM 5413/ SAA 4144/ SZW 442214
FIGURE Q2
(25 marks/markah)
Q3. (a) Explain about the optional and mandatory relationships in Entity
Relationship Diagram (ERD). Support your answer with the
appropriate examples.
Terangkan mengenai hubungan pilihan dan mandatori sepertimana
yang ada dalam Gambarajah Hubungan Entiti (GHE). Sokong
jawapan anda dengan contoh-contoh yang sesuai.
(10 marks/markah)
(b) Briefly explain about basic attributes and additional attributes. By

referring figure Q3, analysis and complete that's ERD with the basic
attributes and additional attributes in the form of codes to make sure its
can applied to computer application such as MS Access. You may add
new entities (if required) to further clarify your answer.
Terangkan dengan ringkas berkenaan atribut asas berserta atribut

tambahan. Dengan merujuk rajah Q3, analisis dan lengkapkan GHE
tersebut dengan atribut asas berserta atribut tambahan yang
berbentuk kod bagi membolehkan ia dapat dilaksanakan ke dalam
applikasi komputer seperti MS Access. Anda boleh menambah mana
mana entiti yang anda rasa sesuai (jika perlu) untuk menjelaskan lagi
hasil anda.
(l5marks/markah)
SAB 4412/ SAM 5413/ SAA 4144 / SZW 442215
Registration Informat'lon
~'-l
Date of Registration
Expiry date of Registartion
Company Rubber Stamp
i "_ Address
.... ..
Contractor
No.jLot
[or, Road
Contractor Status
Contractor Name -+_J'' ' ' ' +-,." City
,.",., ,._,.,=~,_f ~M l~f::~ ~"' :_"",,_,,:_~_~~.

:~~:~;, J. pr:j:~~t~:;e
,
·-;;;;,:f,",' ""', , , ._.' Manage by :
I Worksin L ""-""6 Start Date

HO~~~;,NO'
I
i ! End Date
Email Project Owner
L
Project (ost I
,-..--J
FIGURE 03
(25 marks/markah)
Q4. (a) Prototypes are looking as the importance tools in designing the system.
From your knowledge, what are differences between Functional and
Screen-Only Prototype?
Model percubaan dilihat sebagai satu alat yang penting dalam
merekabentuk system. Berdasarkan kepada pengetahuan anda, apakah
perbezaan diantara Model percubaan Fungsi dan Model percubaan
Skrin?
(10marks/markah)
(b) Database provides the advantages in managing the data and

information. List all the advantages and critically discusses two (2) of
them.
Pangkalan data menawarkan kelebihan dalam pengurusan data dan
maklumat. Senaraikan semua kelebihan tersebut dan bincangkan
secara kritikal dua (2) daripadanya.
(15marks/markah)
(25 marks/markah)
SAB4463 I 1
UTM
bnltl\ (,f
Civil LlIcinenlllJ:
UNIVERSlTl TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CONSTRUCTION INTEGRATED ENVIRONMENT
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWERS 4 (FOUR) QUESTIONS ONLY
WARNING!
disciplinary actions and the faculty may recommend the student to be expelled from
the study.

SAB446312
Q1. Figure Q1 / S 1 shows a generalized Framework for Enterprise Content

Management. Give a definition and explain the use of the followings,
(a) Document Management

(5 marks)
(b) Record Management

(5 marks)
(c) Web Content Management

(5 marks)
(d) Using similar figure, give and explain the sample of document flow in one
real-life example of enterprise content management for construction
contractors office or manufacturing factory.
(10 marks)
(25 marks)
Rajah Q1 / S1 menurijukkan Kerangka Kerja Pengurusan Maklumat Serantau.

Beri definasi dan terangkan perkara yang berikut
(a) Pengurusan Dokumen

(5 markah)
(b) Pengurusan Rekod

(5 markah)
(c) Pengurusan Kandungan Web

(5 markah)
(d) Gunakan rajah yang serupa untuk member contoh dan menerangkan satu
contoh aliran dokumen sebenar Pengurusan Maklumat Serantau untuk
kontraktor pembinaan alau kilang pembuatan.
(10 markah)
(25 markah)
SAB446313
User Interface
Microsoft Web 3rd party
Office browser apps
http/web setVi ces
ECM Components
"TI
C
3
tA
S
~
~
(1)
3(1)
a.
Common Services
IWorkflow II Metadata I Pol icy I Library Svcs. I

I Search II Security I IIRM I I Collab I
Unified Storage Architecture

r ..:; c -::: :: -:::
..... ..
- -
FIGURE 01 / 81
-
SAB4463\4
Q2. Figure Q2(a) / S2(a) shows a database relational diagram for organization data
management. You are required to answer the following
(a) Complete the relational relationship of one-to-many in the diagram.

(8 marks)
(b) Complete the blank table shown by mark X, Y and Z complete with the
field or data type.
(8 marks)
(c) Identify the process of knowledge development in table stafCsalary using

knowledge hierarchy diagram as in Figure Q2(b) / S2(b)
(9 marks)
(25 marks)
Figure Q2(a)/ S2(a) menunjukkan rajah hubungan database untuk pengurusan

data organisasi. SUa jawab perkara yang berikut
(a) Lengkapkan hubungan berkaitan satu-ke-banyak di dalam rajah.

(8 Markah)
(b) Lengkapkan jadual kosong bertanda X; Y dan Z lengkap dengan jenis

data.
(8 Markah)
(c) Tentukan proses pembinaan ilmu pada jadual staff_salary dengan

menggunakan hiraki Umu seperti Rajah Q2(a) / S2(b).
(9 Markah)
(25 markah)
id_staff_salary id_~_add"ess
id_staff id_company
designation no id_barRrs
month id_staff street id_company_address
basic_salary id_company postcode bank
allowance _housing name town account_no
allowance_critical designation district date
allowance_services ~ id-~ state debit
deduction tel_office company _name country credit
bank_account_no tel_mobile email tel_office
-
bank_name teUax website teUax
~ email registration_no tel_mobile
~ x homepage header_no
ministryJinance_no
C NRIC
~
location bumiputra_status
start_date paid_capital id_orgcrization
end_date auditors l... id_company
secretary name
logo address
id_das:s
veRiele reg designation l... id_organization
class
date
photo
(/J
~
IJ:l
+:0
+:0
0\
w
Vl
SAB446316
relation to user/
p rog rn otics knowledge
(1 ppi icotion
,n
lin k, nehvork with
context / experiences
sem Oil tics information relatioll to meollina

"
.. ~
interpret
relation to othe r
synta cties data
symbols
h
structure, order .
format
relation to denominated
sigmaties symbol
object ,/ activity
FIGURE Q2(b) / SUb)

SAB446317
Q3. Figure Q3 / S3 show a Decision Support System (DSS) Framework that

supporting a business management for enterprise type of organization. By
choosing either construction or manufacturing type of business, answer the
following,
(a) Define the process of converting the Internal and External database to
become Organizational Knowledge Base
(8 mark",)
(b) Explain what is the purpose of having Knowledge-based Subsystem and

User Interface Dialog Management before reaching DSS decision
methodology.
(8 marks)
(c) If you are managing a purchasing / procurement in your organization,

which DSS Decision Methodology that you use and explain why.
(9 marks)
(25 marks)
Rajah Q3 / S3 menunjukkan Rangka-Kerja Sistem Bantu Keputusan yang

menyokong pengurusan perniagaan organisasi serantau. Dengan meimilih
samada perniagaan jenis pembinaan atau pembuatan, jawab soalan yang
berikut
(a) Tentukan proses merubah database Internal and External kepada

Organizational Knowledge Base
(8 markah)
(b) Terangkan apakah kegunaan melalui Knowledge-based Subsystem dan

User Interface Dialog Management sebelum mencapai DSS decision
methodology.
(8 markah)
(a) Jika anda menguruskan pembeliandalam organizasi anda, yang manakah

DSS Decision Methodology yang akan digunakan dan terangkan
mengapa.
(9 markah)
(25 markalt)
SAB446318
Decision Support System Components

Internal & External Organizational Other External
Databases Knowledge Sase csrs Models
t t t
1 1 !
Data Model
Management f'v1anagement
~ KnO\Nledge-based
Subsystems
/
User Interface/
Oialo!] Management
DSS Decision Methodology
I
c'".
0---0
"'-,c
) r,/ o-----'r
v
.'
o\
6
J r\·
o ;;
"'----.....,cy/'
. ~
~-~
Decision Maker
FIGURE 03 /83
SAB446319
Q4. Figure Q4 / S4 is a diagram of Knowledge and its Application in Knowledge

Management. Answer the following,
(a) Give and explain a real example of knowledge that comes from object,
individual and social system as shown in Figure Q4 / S4 (knowledge in
organizations and medium sections).
(10 marks)
(b) Network security in a part of Enterprise Knowledge Infrastructure. Suggest

and sketch an annotated the network security diagram to foster knowledge
base implementation.
(15 marks)
(25 marks)
Rajah Q4 /S4 menunjukkan Ilmu dan Penggunaannya dalam Pengurusan

llmu. Jawab soalan yang berikut
(a) Beri dan jelaskan contoh sebenar ilmu yang dating dari objek, individu
dan system social seperti Rajah Q4 / S4 (bahagian knowledge in
organizations and medium sections).
(10 marks)
(b) Keselamatan rangkaian adalah sebahagain dari lnfrastruktur llmu

Saranta. Cadangkan dan lakarkan rajah keselamatan rangkaian yang
beranotasi untuk menyokong perlaksanaan dasar ilmu.
(15 marks)
(25 markah)
SAB4463 I 10
',
Enterprise knowledge
infrastructures
,eco'bOCKI
i
.'"~ 'S.
-,~
create
i
Q
("1
~
v)
-'0'
.
"d enf'fI y
I
opply Knowledge formolize
management
retine life cycle organize
distribute shore
organization
organization
external
(internal
(eleclronicolly)
// (electronically)
inaccessible "
/
iaccessible
unsecureo
/ "secured
infonnol, ' " forrnol, Institutionalized, ~..o'
uno pprovec: opprovcc:
toci!
''\,\
\ \, '"
\-- '..\ \\ \, !
"
.
,
/
i
,/
,explicit
./"
spccitic, padicular,
"-"
",\\,"', \, \
'>~, \ \ " ,
///>;',/
, J.''/ ,¥".• '
abstract, general,
conlextuoli,ed 'E'~~, deconlextuoli,ed
~~, .... ,
object individual social system
:Af ....
~ <III
I
",//~
/
/ !
//
organizotiono I re
knowl edge as product/ intellectual
expertise source, capability,
PIOQUction foetor capital
core competence
FIGURE 04/84
SAB4463 [II
QS. Figure QS I SS is a generic diagram of Knowledge Development in

manufacturing company that strive for quality and profit in order to compete
with their competitor. The diagram shown are the distribution of resources
targeted for 5 years development. Answer the following,
(a) Explain what is the meaning of the chart shown and its effect into the
company operations.
(5 marks)
(b) Scheduled (in the form of table), the distribution of resources (in
percentage) for quality improvement in one year (targeted increase quality
of 20%). The quality improvement will take all the attribute (bubble) as
shown in Figure QS ISS.
(15 marks)
(c) If the trendline (gradient) of attribute increased from 30 degrees to 60

degrees due to surge of economic downturn, describe what are the
adjustment that have to made to question (b).
(5 marks)
(25 marks)
Rajah Q5 /S5 menunjukkan rajah am Kemajuan Ilmu pada syarikat

pembuatan yang berhasrat tinggi kepada kualiti dan keuntungan supaya ia
boleh bersaing dengan syarikat lain. Rajah ini juga adalah taburan sumber
untuk pembangunan 5 tahun. Jawab soalan yang berikt,
(a) Terangkan apakah maksud carta tersebut dan kesannya terhadap operasi
syarikat
(5 markah)
(b) Rancangkan (dalam bentuk jadual), taburan sumber (dalam peratus)

untuk penambah-baik kualiti untuk satu tahun (penambahan kenaikan
kualiti 20%). Penambaikan kualiti akan mengambil semua nilai seperti
Rajah Q5 / S5.
(15 markah)
(c) Jika garis-corak (trend-line)meningkat dari 30 darjah ke 60% kerana

kegawatan ekonomi, terangkan apakah perubahan yang harus dilakukan
pada sumber yang telah dikira pada soalan (b).
(5 markah)
(25 markah)
60 degree
Trendline
abstract 30 degree
(0<9,)
100% Trendline
sociology
organization sociological I'

75% ;org.)
-
~
C".l
~
~ 50%
sfro irjg ic.
rnanagcmcnl
osychdogy
0tJl
--
\J1
tJl
rnonag ernent
science
~
25%
~.
~
0%
intelligence
concrete
[/l
I I I I >
0% 25% 50% 75% 100% to
+:0
technology-o riented social-onented +:0
0\
\.;.)
tv
SAB 15131 SAA 2513 \ 1
C~iJ "","'~"
UTMI . .• .•.
UNIliEllsm TEkHOlOGf MALAYSfA. I

Fncult\ ilf
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE
SAB 1513/ SAA 2513
COURSE
FLUID MECHANICS
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION
2 HOURS 30 MINUTES
DATE
OCTOBER 2009
WARNING! ..
. . durin the examination wIll be lzable for
Students caught copymg/cheatmg g d the student to be expelledfrom
disciplinary actions and the faculty may recdommen
the stu y.

SAB 1513/ SAA 251312
Q 1. Figure Q1 shows a quadrant gate AB of 2 m radius used to retain water.

Determine the horizontal and vertical component of hydrostatic pressure force
per meter width of the gate. If the pivot is at B, calculate the reaction force R
at A.
Figure Ql menunjukkan sebuah pintu berbentuk sukuan bulatan AB berjejari
2 m. Dapatkan komponen daya tekanan hidrostatik ufuk dan tegak terhadap
semeter lebar pintu. Jika pintu diengselkan di B, kira daya tindak balas R di
A.
(20 marks/markah)
8rt A
........--R
FIGUREQI
SAB 1513/ SAA 2513 \ 4
Q3. (a) Derive the momentum equation given from Newton's Second Law of
motion.
Terbitkan persamaan momentum yang diberi daripada Hukum Newton
Kedua.
(6 marks/markah)
(b) Water flows in a pipe from A to B through a horizontal 60° elbow,

where B is an open end as shown in Figure Q3. The diameters at A and
Bare 0.3 m and 0.15 m respectively. The force required to maintain
the position of elbow in the y-direction is 40 kN. The pressure gauge
reading at point A is 50 kPa. Determine the flow rate in the elbow and
force required in x-direction to maintain the position of the elbow.
Neglect energy losses.
Air mengalir dalam paip dari A lee B menerusi liku 60° dalam satah
ufuk dengan B adalah hujung terbuka seperti ditunjukkan dalam
Figure Q3. Diameter di A dan B masing-masing ialah 0.3 m dan 0.15
m. Daya untuk mengekalkan kedudukan liku pada arah y ialah 40 kN
Bacaan to10k tekanan di A ialah 50 kPa. Tentukan kadar alir dalam
liku serta daya yang diperlukan dalam arah x untuk mengekalkan
kedudukan liku. Kehilangan tenaga diabaikan.
(14 marks/markah)
(20 marks/markah)
~x
FIGURE 03
SAB 1513/ SAA 2513 \ 5
Q4. (a) Determine the type of flow when an oil (specific gravity =0.86 and
3
dynamic viscosity = 0.025 kg/ms ) flows at a rate of 0.4 m /s in a pipe
of 450mm diameter.
Tentukan jenis aliran apabila minyak ( ketumpatan bandingan =0.86
3
dan kelikatan dinamik = 0.025 kg/ms) mengalir pada kadar 0.4 m /s
dalam paip yang berdiameter 450mm.
(5 mark/markah)
(b) Determine the head loss between point A and B. Point B is exposed to
atmospheric pressure.
Tentukan kehilangan tenaga diantara titik A dan B. Titik B terdedah
kepada tekanan udarakasa.
(5 mark/markah)
(c) Determine the pipe size to deliver double the flowrate of (a) for a
distance of 5000 m. The pipe is made of commercial steel. (roughness
= 0.045 mm)
Tentukan saiz paip yang diperlukan untuk menghantar air pada kadar
dua kali daripada (a) bagi satu jarak sejauh 5000 m. Paip diperbuat
daripada keluli komersil. (kekasaran = 0.045 mm)
(l0 mark/markah)
(20 marks/markah)
Level A = 40m
A
Level B = 20m
FIGUREQ4
SAB 1513/ SAA 2513 \ 6
Q5. Water is flowing in pipe 1 and 2 as shown in Figure Q5. The pipe properties
and the minor loss coefficients are as shown in Table Q5. The water level in
the tank remains constant. Calculate the flow velocity in pipe 1 and 2.
Air mengalir dalam paip 1 dan 2 seperti yang ditunjuk dalam Figure Q5.
Data bagi setiap paip dan pekali kehilangan kedl adalah seperti dalam Table
Q5. Aras air dalam tangki adalah tetap, Kira halaju aliran air dalam paip 1
dan 2.
(20 marks/markah)
TABLEQ5
I Pipe Friction {actor, { Diameter (mm) Total length (m)

1 0.0038 50 4
2 0.0045 25 10
Types of fittings Minor loss coefficient, k

Pipe entrance from tank 0.8
Gate valve (fully ol'ened) 0.12
Globe valve 10
-_ ..
--
90° elbow 1
Reducer (2: I) 0.35 for smaller diameter pipe
Globe valve
90° elbow
7m
Reducer
90° elbow
Gate valve
90° elbow
90° elbow 90° elbow O.8m

:: :... ~; .: .... '.~ ..~~
FIGUREQS
H(m) L!~ 20.0 I 16.8 14.0 1~10.0

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MOODY IJIAGRAM- BRlT'SH VERSION lltilbi.aR II, I-'
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SAB 25131 SAM 3513/ SAA 3622 \ 1
UTM
E",:uln' or
Civil E~ill~rfilll\'
IJNIVEASITI TEKtlOlOGI MAl.VS1A
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB2513/SAM3513/SAA3622
COURSE HYDRAULICS
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
WARNING!
disciplinary actions and the faculty may recommend the student to be expelledjrom
the study.

SAB 2513/ SAM 3513/ SAA 362212
Q1. (a) (i) Distinguish between hydraulic radius and hydraulic depth of an open
channel.
Bezakan di anlarajejari hidraulik dan ukur dalam hidraulik dalam
saluran lerbuka.
(4 markslmarkah)
(ii) The wetted perimeter P for a rectangular channel is given as:

Bagi sebuah saluran segi empallepal, perimeler basah P diberi
sebagai:
P = B+2y
Show that the best hydraulic section (BHS) for rectangular open
channel is B = 2y, where B is the channel width and y is the flow depth.
Tunjukkan bahawa bagi keralan hidraulik lerbaik bagi saluran segi
empallepal ialah: B = 2y, dengan B ialah lebar saluran dan y ialah
ukur dalam aUran.
(4 marks/markah)
(b) (i) Calculate the discharge of water flowing in a rectangular open channel
under uniform flow condition with the channel having bottom width of
5m, a bed slope of 0.001 and Manning's n of 0.015. The depth of flow
is 204m.
Kira kadar aUr dalam sebuah saluran segi empal lepal dengan aUran
seragam yang mempunyai lebar 5m, cerun dasar 0.001, pekaU
kekasaran Manning 0.015 dan kedalaman aUran 2.4m.
(5 markslmarkah)
(ii) Design the channel for the best hydraulic section for trapezoidal
channel with the same roughness, bed slope and discharge as the above
rectangular channel.
Reka benlukan keralan hidrauUk lerbaik unluk saluran trapezoid
dengan pekaU kekasaran, cerun dasar dan kadar aUr seperli saluran
segi empat di alas.
(7 markslmarkah)
(20 marks/markallJ
SAB 2513/ SAM 3513/ SAA 362213
Q2. (a) A broad crested weir can be constructed in an open channel to control
the flowing water. Explain the meaning of "critical weir height".
Empang berpuncak lebar boleh dibina dalam saluran terbuka untuk
mengawal aliran air. Terangkan maksud "tinggi kritikal empang".
(3 marks)
(b) Water is flowing uniformly with flow depth 1.85m in a rectangular

open channel of width 5m, Manning's n 0.017 and bed slope 1:2000.
A broad crested weir is to be constructed in this channel.
Air mengalir seragam dengan ukur dalam 1.85m dalam sebuah
saluran terbuka segi empat 5m lebar dan mempunyai Manning's n
0.017 dan cerun dasar 1:2000. Sebuah empang berpuncak lebar akan
dibina dalam saluran ini.
(i) Calculate the critical weir height.

Kira tinggi kritikal empang.
(6 marks)
(ii) If the weir height is 50% higher than the normal flow depth,
calculate the flow depth above the weir, at just upstream and at
just downstream of the weir.
Jika tinggi empang itu ialah 50% lebih tinggi dari ukur dalam
normal, kira ukur dalam air di atas empang, di hulu dan di hi/ir
sebaik sahaja empang tersebut.
(7 marks)
(iii) If the water depth at just upstream of the weir is designed to be

20% higher than the normal flow depth, calculate the required
weir height to be constructed.
Jika ukur dalam air di hulu sebaik sahaja empang direka bentuk
supaya 20% lebih tinggi daripada ukur dalam normal, kira
tinggi empang yang perlu dibina dalam saluran ini.
(4 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 2513/ SAM 3513/ SAA 362214
Q3. (a) Sketch the Discharge Curve. Explain how the effect of discharge
change due to the channel constriction.
Lakarkan Lengkung Kadar Aliran. Terangkan bagaimana kesan
perubahan kadar alir disebabkan oleh pergentingan saluran.
(4 marks)
(b) A rectangular channel of width 3.5m wide and conveys water with
discharge of 17.5m3/s at a depth of 2.0m. A hydraulic structure is
constructed at the downstream of the channel and the channel width is
reduced to 2.5m. Assume the constriction to be horizontal and the flow
to be frictionless. Determine;
Sebuah saluran segi empat 3.5m Ie bar mengalirkan air dengan kadar
alir 17. 5m 3/s pada kedalaman 2. Om. Sebuah struktur hidraulik dibina
di bahagian hilir saluran dan lebar saluran mengecil kepada 2.5m.
Anggap pergentingan ini adalah mengufuk dan tiada geseran terhadap
aliran. Tentukan;
(i) state of flow,

Keadaan aliran
(2 marks)
(ii) water depths just before, just after and at the constriction,
ukur dalam air sebelum, selepas dan di bahagian pergentingan,
(12 marks)
(iii) sketch the flow profile along the channel. Show the important
values in your sketch.
lakarkan projil aliran di sepanjang saluran tersebut. Tunjukkan
nilai-nilai penting pada lakaran anda.
(2 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 2513/ SAM 3513/ SAA 3622 \ 5
Q4. (a) (i) State clearly two applications of hydraulic jump and types of hydraulic
Jump.
Berikan dua contoh kegunaan lompatan hidraulik dan jenis-jenis
lompatan hidraulik denganjelas.
(5 marks)
(ii) Water is flowing in a rectangular open channel of width 0.6m. A

hydraulic jump occurs where the Froude number is 3. If the water depth
just after the jump is 0.6m, calculate the total loss of head and the
power dissipated at the jump.
Air mengalir dalam satu saluran terbuka segi empat yang lebarnya
0.6m. Satu lompatan hidraulik berlaku dengan nilai nombor Froude
ialah 3. Jika kedalaman air selepas sahaja lompatan ialah 0.6m,
kirakan jumlah kehilangan turus dan kehilangan tenaga pada
lompatan.
(5 marks)
(b) Water is flowing uniformly in a rectangular channel of width 3m with

normal flow depth 1.50m, Manning's n 0.013 and the channel bed slope
1:1000. A sluice gate is installed in the channel causing the water level
just upstream of the gate to rise to 2.0m. Calculate the distance from
this water depth upstream to a water depth I % greater the normal
depth. Use any method in your computations and divide the range of
depth into 4 equal parts.
Air mengalir seragam dalam sebuah saluran segi empat yang lebarnya
3m dengan ukur dalam normal aliran 1.50m, Manning n 0.013 dan
cerun dasar 1:1000. Sebuah pintu sluis dipasang dalam saluran
tersebut menyebabkan aras air di hulu sebaik sahaja pintu naik kepada
2. Om. Kira jarak dari kedalaman air ini ke satu tempat dengan ukur
dalam airnya 1% lehih tinggi dari ukur dalam normal. Gunakan
sebarang kaedah dalam pengiraan dan bahagikan sela ukur dalam
kepada 4 bahagian.
(10 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 2513/ SAM 3513/ SAA 3622 \ 6
Q5. (a) The hydraulic head loss hr, in a pipeline is assumed to depend on the
density of fluid, p (kg/m\ dynamic viscosity of fluid, 1..1. (kg/ms), pipe
diameter, D (m), pipe length, L (m), velocity, V (m/s) and roughness of
the pipe, ks (mm). Derive the appropriate dimensionless groups of this
head loss with the other variables.
Kehilangan turus hidraulik hfi dalam satu paip adalah bergantung
pada ketumpatan bendalir, p (kg/m 3), kelikatan bendalir, Ji (kg/ms),
diameter paip, D (m), panjang paip, L (m), halaju, V (m/s) dan
kekasaran paip, ks (min). Terbitkan kumpulan tanpa dimensi bagi
mengambarkan kehilangan turus ini terhadap pembolehubah yang
lain.
(12 marks)
(b) A 10km pipeline and 750mm diameter are used to convey oil (p =
850kg/m\ 1..1. = 0.008kg/ms). The design discharge is 4501/s. The
pipeline will incorporate booster pumping stations at suitable intervals.
As part of the design procedure, a model study is to be carried out. A
model scale AL = 1/50 has been selected, and water is to be used as the
model fluids. The air water has density of 1.2kg/m3 and viscosity of
1.8 x 10-5 kg/ms. Use the relationship derived in section (a) above.
Sebuah paip 10km panjang, 750mm diameter digunakan untuk
mengalirkan minyak (p = 850kg/m 3), Ji = 0.008kg/ms). Kadar alir reka
bentuk adalah 4501/s. Paip ini akan menggabungkan stesen pam pada
sesuatu sela masa. Sebagai sebahagian daripada tatacara reka bentuk,
satu kajian model akan dijalankan. Satu skala model AL = 1150 telah
dipilih, dan air digunapakai sebagai cecair model. Ketumpatan air
adalah 1000kg/m3 dan mempunyai kelikatan 1 x 10- 3 kg/ms. Gunakan
hubungan yang diterbitkan dalam (a) di atas.
(i) Calculate the water velocity so that the model is correctly

simulating the flow of oil,
Kirakan halaju air supaya model menyerupai aliran minyak,
(4 marks)
(ii) If the head loss in the model is 10m, calculate the head loss in the
prototype.
Jika kehilangan turus pada model adalah 10m, kirakan kehilangan
turus pada prototaip.
(4 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 2513/ SAM 3513/ SAA 3622 \ 7
Q6. (a) Water is flowing in a pipe system as shown in Figure S6. Table S6
shows the values of friction factor, length and diameter of each pipe.
Compute the flow rate through each pipe of the system. Assume the
initial flow rate in pipe AC (flow from A to C) and pipe AD (flow
from A to D) are 0.5m3/s and 0.8m3/s respectively. Limit your
calculations for two (2) trials only.
Air mengalir melalui sistem paip seperti yang ditunjukkan dalam
Rajah S6. Jadual S6 menunjukkan nilai-nilai bagi faktor geseran,
panjang dan diameterbagi setiap paip. Kira kadar alian melalui
sistem talian tersebut. Anggap nilai awal dalam paip AC (aliran dari A
ke C) dan paip AD (aliran dari A ke D) ialah masing-masing O.5m 31s
dan O.8m 3Is. Hadkan penggiraan anda kepada dua (2) cubaan sahaja.
(16 marks)
Table 86: Pipe network data
Pipe Diameter (m) Length (m) Friction Factor
~~~
0.3 200 0.005
0.3 160 0.005
AD 0.4 200 0.005
BC 0.3 120 0.005
CD 0.3 120 0.005
(b) If the pressure head measured at A is 200m and the pipe network is to
be considered horizontal, detennine the total head at node B.
Jika bacaan turus tekanan di A ialah 200m dan talian paip dianggap
mengufuk, tentukan turus jumlah di nod B.
(4 marks)
(20 marks)
8 f-----.......---~ 0
FIGURE Q6: Pipe network system

SAB 2513/ SAM 3513/ SAA 362218
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SAB 2513/ SAM 3513/ SAA 3622110
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SAB 3613 \ 1
UTM
hl.t\\tt\ uf
Ci.eil J£lIgtnC~rUlg
lIHlV£RSm TEKNOLOGl MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE HYDROLOGY
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWERS FIVE (5) QUESTIONS ONLY.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 3613'12
Sl (a) Maklumat hidrologi berikut yang dikutip selama 1 bulan bagi sebuah
kawasan tadahan tanah lembab seluas 40 hektar yang terdapat di
lembangan sungai Johor.
Jumlah isipadu hujan = 6.2 x 10 3 m3

Aliran permukaan masuk daripada kawasan berharnpiran =
3.1x103 m3
3
Aliran sungai meninggalkan kawasan tadahan =2.7 x 10 m 3
Aliran air bumi memasukki kawasan tadahan =1.29 x 105 m 3
Aliran air bumi meninggalkan kawasan tadahan =1.28 x 10 5 m3
Jika tidak terdapat perubahan simpanan bersih sepanjang 1 bulan
tersebut, berapakah jumlah sejatpeluhan yang berlaku untuk bulan
tersebut (dalam mm).
(4 markah)
(b) Pada permulaan suatu hari, sebuah empangan mempunyai keluasan

permukaan air 0.53 x 106 m2 dan isipadu 2.5 x 106 m 3 • Sepanjang hari
tersebut, sebanyak 58mm hujan telah turon, 100,000m3 air masuk dan
800, 000m3 air keluar telah berlaku. Jumlah sejatan potensi sepanjang
hari tersebut ialah limm. Kira isipadu air didalam empangan pada
penghujung hari tersebut.
(4 markah)
(c) Bentuk geometri kawasan tadahan merupakan salah satu faktor utama
yang boleh menentukan magnitud kadar aliran puncak. Dengan
bantuan Rajah Ie, terangkan kemungkinan bentuk kawasan tadahan
yang boleh menghasilkan hidrograf A dan B.
(2 markah)
SAB 3613 \ 3
,
B
...
J \
( \
j \
J
( \ ,
A ~ ..(.......... .....
~
, I
,,
'"
Rajah Ie
S2 (a) Jenis hujan dikategorikan dengan kaedah bagaimana lembapan udara

dinaikkan ke atas untuk pembentukan hujan. Nyatakan dua jenis
kaedah tersebut.
(2 markah)
(b) Bagi kawasan tadahan yang ditunjukkan pada Rajah 2b, anggarkan
tolok hujan X dengan rnenggunakan kaedah sukuan. Baeaan tolok
hujan lain pada kejadian hujan yang sarna ditunjukkan pada Jadual 2b.
(4 markah)
Jadual 2b: Data Hujan
Hujan
Stesen
(em)
A 2.4
B 3.3
C 3.6
D 4.0
E 5.2
F 6.1
SAB 3613 \
D
B •
•
x
•
o 1 2 3
I I I I
Rajah 2b: Kawasan tadahan menunjukan lokasi tolok hujan
(c) Berpandukan kepada data hujan tahunan yang ditunjukkan dalam

Jadual 2c, periksa keseragaman bacaan hujan pada tolok hujan A
dengan menggunakan data hujan dari tolok hujan W X Y Z yang
dijamin kesahihannya. Diketahui tolok A telah berubah kedudukan
daripada kedudukan asalnya. Dapatkan masa hila tolok itu telah
dipindahkan.
(4 markah)
SAB 361315
Jadual 2e : Data Hujan Tahunan pada Stesen (em)

Tahun W x y Z A
1977 57 51 54 63 51
1978 75 66 75 81 72
1979 81 78 75 81 75
1980 69 63 63 72 66
1981 51 60 45 63 48
1982 57 54 48 60 60
1983 63 54 60 69 81
1984 45 42 48 54 69
1985 48 42 48 54 75
1986 60 51 54 69 84
83 (a) Berikan nama alat yang digunakan untuk mengukur penyusupan,

halaju aliran sungai, ukurdalam aliran sungai, sejatan, kelajuan angin,
kelembapan udara, suhu udara maksima dan minima dan kedalaman
hujan.
(2 markah)
(b) Jadual 3b menunjukkan hujan kawasan untuk satu kawasan tadahan.

Kira kehilangan hidrologi oleh susupan menggunakan persamaan
Horton. Kadar susupan awal dan susupan akhir adalah masing-masing
16 mm/j and 5 mm/j dan pemalar Horton, k ialah 1.4 mm/j.
(4 markah)
(e) Plotkan lengkung susupan di atas hyetograf (graf hujan) dan tentukan
1. Jumlah susupan
11. Hujan bersih
(4 markah)
Jadual3b
Masa 10.00 10.30 11.00 11.30 12.00 12.30
Uam:min)
Hujan 3 22 26 18
5~
7
(mm/jam)
SAB 361316
S4 (a) Dengan rengkas tuliskan 2 (dua) anggapan untuk applikasi unit

hidrogeraf.
(2 markah)
(b) Hidrogeraf sungai yang mengalir melalui 6500 km2 kawasan tadahan
adalah seperti di dalam Jadual 4a. Data tersebut dicerap dari ribut 12
jam dengan keamatan seragam untuk keseluruhan kawasan tadahan.
Terbitkan unit hidrogeraf 12-jam untuk sungai ini.
(4 markah)
Jadual 4a
Masa (Hari) Kadaralair (m 3/s) Aliran dasar (m j / s)
I 1601 1599
2 1679 1678
3 5001 1651
4 11320 1601
5 8598 1579
6 6549 1531
7 5001 1498
8 3802 1479
9 2879 1449
10 2201 1411
11 1851 1401
12 1601 1359
(b) Jadual 4c menunjukkan hujan berkesan bagi 100 hektar kawasan

bandar. Jadual 4d menunjukkan saiz kawasan tak telap. Tentukan
hidrogeraf kadaralir untuk kawasan bandar ini menggunakan kaedah
luas masa.
(4 markah)
SAB 361317
ladua14c: Hujan Berkesan ladual 4d: Saiz Kawasan Tak Telap
Hujan Masa
(minit) Luas (hektar)
Masa Berkesan
(minit) (mm/jam) 0 0 -
0 0 3 35
3 44 6 45
6 74 9 66
9 120 12 76
12 192 15 92
15 76
18 110
18 0
(1 hektar = 1000mZ)
S5 (a) Bagaimanakan analisa penyaluran banjir digunakan dalam mereka

bentuk kolam takungan
(2 markah)
(b) Perhubungan diantara 2S/~t + 0 versus 0 (aliran keluar) diberikan

didalam ladual 5b. Tunjukkan analisis penyaluran banjir dan
hidrogeraf aliran keluar dari sebuah reservor dengan menggunakan
hidrogeraf masuk seperti didalam ladual 5c. Tentukan kadaralir
puncak aliran keluar tersebut.
(5 markah)
Jadual5b
2S/L\t+ 0 O(mJ/s)
465.6 0
536.4 37.1
664.4 105.0
825.3 192.9
1009.3 297.0
1224.3 415.0
1459.5 545.6
1715.7 687.5
SAB 3613 \ 8
Jadual5c
3
Masa (hari) Aliran masuk (m /s)
0 0
0.5 70
1.0 185
1.5 360
2.0 480
2.5 300
3.0 165
3.5 80
4.0 0
4.5 0
(c) Dapatkan persamaan lelurus bagi perhubungan aliran masuk dan keluar
didapati dari S5b bagi kolam takungan ini.
(3 markah)
S6 (a) Apakah yang dimaksudkan oleh kedalaman hujan agihan normal.
(2 markah)
(b) Jadual 6 menunjukkan satu siri data kadaralir maksimum tahunan yang
direkodkan pada Sungai 'X', dari tahun 1960 hingga 2006. Gunakan
formulae Weibull dan Gringorten untuk menganggarkan taburan
kebarangkalian kumulatif bagi data kadaralir maksimum tahunan
tersebut. Pelot dan bandingkan keputusan yang diperolehi.
(8 markah)
SAB 361319
Jadua16
Kadaralir maksimum tahunan sungai 'X'
Tahun Q (m3/s) Tahun Q (m3/s)
1960
3,322 1984
7,744
1961
2,671 1985
1,770
1962
3,088 1986
6,957
1963
2,544 1987
4,785
1964
1,222 1988
11,416
1965
11,715 1989
2,962 I
1966
16000
1990
6,064
1967
8500
1991
3,846
1968
1,574 1992
5,409
1969
14,230 1993
10,957
1970
9,001 1994
5,282
1971
5,739 1995
3,075
1972
10,263 1996
2,412
1973
11,148 1997
2,619
1974
4,785 1998
5,559
1975
5,676 1999
2,541
1976
2,717 2000
5,306
1977
2,528 2001
6,593
1978
3,277 2002
1,490
1979
10,252 2003
6,727
1980
1,709 2004
10,597
1981
2,029 2005
5,529
1982
7,186 2006
4,845
SAB 3613 \ 10
ENGLISH VERSION
Q1 (a) The following information was collected for a 40 hectares flow

through wetland in lohor River Basin over a one month period:
3 3
Precipitation on the wetland = 6.2 X 10 m
Runoff into the wetland from surrounding upland area =
3.1 X 103 m 3
3 3
Streamflow leaving the wetland = 2.7 X 10 m
3 3
Groundwater inflow to the wetland = 1.29 X 10 m
3 3
Groundwater flow out of the wetland = 1.28 X 10 m
If there was no net change in storage over the one month period, what
was the evapotranspiration for the month (in mm).
(4 marks)
6 2
(b) At the beginning of a day a dam has a surface area 0.53 x 10 m and a
volume of water stored of 2.5 x 106 m 3. During the course of that day
there is 58mm of rainfall, 100,000m3 of inflow to the dam and 800,
000m3 of outflow from the dam. The potential evaporation for the day,
as measured was 11mm. Calculate the volume of water in the dam at
the end of the day.
(4 marks)
(c) The shape of a catchment is a major factor affecting runoff peaks. With
the aid of Figure 1c describe the shapes of the catchments which
produced hydrograph A and B.
(2 marks)
Q2 (a) Precipitation is classified according to conditions that generate vertical

air motion. List two of those mechanisms.
(2 marks)
(b) For the watershed shown in Figure 2b, determine the missing rainfall
data for gage X using quadrant method. The readings of other gages
are given in Table 2b.
(4 marks)
SAB 3613111
(c) Using the annual rainfall data shown in Table 2, check the consistency
of rainfall reading at gage A for using the records at gages W, X, Y,
and Z, which has consistent records. It is known that gage A is not at
its original location. Determine when the gage was moved.
(4 marks)
Q3 (a) Give the name of the instrument used to measure infiltration,

streamflow velocity, streamflow depth, evaporation, wind speed, air
humidity, maximum and minimum temperature and rainfall depth.
(2 marks)
(c) Table 3b provides areal rainfall data over a catchment. Estimate the
hydrologic losses due to infiltration using Horton equation. The initial
and final infiltration rates are 16 mm/hr and 5 mm/ hr, respectively
and the Horton coefficient, k is 1.4 mmlhr.
(4 marks)
(c) Plot the infiltration curve on the hyetograph (rainfall graph) and
determine the
i) Total infiltration
ii) Effective or net rainfall
(4 marks)
Q4 (a) Briefly explain 2 (two) assumptions for unit hydrograph application.
(2 marks)
(b) The hydrograph of a river flowing through a 6500 k.m 2 watershed is

shown in Table 4a. The data were observed from l2-hr storm with
uniform intensity for the whole watershed. Derive] 2-hr unit
hydrograph for the river.
(4 marks)
SAB 3613112
(d) Table 4c below shows the effective rainfall of 100 hectare urban area.
Table 4d shows the size of its impermeable area. Compute the runoff
hydrograph for this urban area using Time Area method.
(4 marks)
Q5 (a) How does the flood routing analysis be used in the detention pond
design.
(2 marks)
(b) The relationship 2S/~t + 0 versus 0 (outflow) are shown in Table

5b. Demonstrate the routing analysis and outflow hydrograph from a
reservoir using the inflow hydrograph as shown in Table 5c.
Determine the peak discharge of the outflow.
(5 marks)
(c) Develop a linear equation for the relationship of inflow and outflow
obtained in S5b of the detention pond
(3 marks)
Q6 (a) What is the meaning of normal distribution of rainfall depth
(2 marks)
(b) The annual maximum peak flow for Sungai 'X' between 1960 and
2006 are shown in Table 6. Use the Weibull and Gringorten formulae
to estimate the cumulative probability distribution of annual maximum
flow. Plot and compare the results obtained.
(8 marks)
SAB 3613113
RUMUS / EQUATION
~ = -l ~N Xi 00= 1 ~( Xi
-k..J -X
-)2 ;
N k..Jl=1 n -I ;=1
X-x +0.4500
X = X +oo(0.78y-0.45) Y=
0.7800
-e< -(x-xo) / a
F(x) =exp{- exp[- (X - Xo)/ a ] } F(x)=e
-z
X-Xo F(x)=e-e z=-ln[-lnF(x)]
z=---
a
-J6oo
Xo = f-l- 0.5772a a = - - = 0.7797noo

1!
m-0.44 m-O.4
Weibull p = --.!!!.- ; Gringorten p =- - - ; Cunnane p =-
n+1 n+O.l2 n+O.2
f(t) = Jc + (fa - fc)e- kI F(t) = Jct + fo-Jc (1- e-kt )

k
- + 1 + 0 n+\
2Sn- = I n + I n+\ + (2S
-
n
- 0)
n
M At
2
Q =_ kB dh
2 fix
_ -kx+0.5M k-kx-0.5M
C1 C1 = - - -
C4 C4
O2 =C/\ + C212 + c3Q
SAB 4523 \ 1
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE COASTAL ENGINEERING
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 4523 \ 2
Ql. (a) Refer to Figure Ql(a) and Table Ql(a). The offshore wave data and their
corresponding periods as shown in Table Ql(a) are to be used to analyse
the nearshore wave climate of the Labuan shoreline which is orientated at
202° as shown in Figure Q1(a). Determine the significant wave height Hs
and the corresponding time period Ts if waves were to approach the
coastline from the 60° direction.
Rujuk Rajah S1 (a) dan Jadual S1 (a). Data air dalam serta kala setanding
yang ditunjukkan di dalam Jadual S1 (a) akan digunakan untuk
menganalisa corak ombak dekat pantai di persisiran Labuan yang
berorientasi pada sudut 202° seperti yang diberikan dalam Rajah S1 (a).
Tentukan ketinggian ombak signijikan Hs dan kala yang setanding Ts jika
ombak tersebut menghampiri pantai dari arah 60°.
(8 marks/markah)
w. P. LABUAN
~~:\-_.
')
c-'
~?' .,.... ;V
J
Kg.
't~~
pangka~.n N
Kapor
~ " JO·
FIGURE Ql(a)/RAJAH Sl(a) : Shoreline Orientation at Labuan
(b) (i) A predicted deepwater wave height offshore Labuan propagates at a

height of 4.2 m and a period of 11 seconds to a nearshore
rubblemound breakwater whose seawards facing side slopes at 1:3.
If the rubblemound breakwater has been constructed at the 2.5 m
water depth, calculate the reflected wave height that will be
generated in front of the rubblemound breakwater. Assume that the
sea bed slopes at a constant gradient of 1: 100. Neglect the refraction
effects only in your calculations.
SAB 4523 \ 3
Ombak air dalam pada ketinggian 4.2 m dan berkala 11 saat

bergerak di kawasan lepas pantai Labuan ke pemecah ombak
berjenis batu timbunan yang terletak dekat pantai dengan
permukaan struktur berkecerunan 1.' 3 ke arah laut. Jika pemecah
ombak tersebut dibina pada kedalaman 2.5 m, kira ketinggian
ombak pantulan yang akan dihasilkan di hadapan struktur itu.
Anggap bahawa cerun dasar laut adalah seragam pada 1.' 100.
Abaikan kesan daripada pembiasan ombak sahaja di dalam kiraan
anda.
(ii) If the above breakwater has been redesigned to be covered by a

tetrapod armour instead, determine what the reflected wave height
would be.
Jika pemecah ombak itu direkabentuk semula supaya lapisan
permukaan utama di lapisi dengan perisai tetrapod, tentukan
ketinggian ombak pantulan yang terjana di struktur itu.
(iii) State which type of breakwater cover would dissipate greater wave
energy and give two technical reasons why this type of cover would
be selected for construction.
Hint .' The information below could be used to assist you in

your calculations.
Cr = ~If.
b + 1/
where a = 0.60 and b = 6.6 for a rubblemound breakwater
a = 0.48 and b = 9.6 for a tetrapod armoured
breakwater
Nyatakan jenis lapisan yang lebih berkesan untuk melesapkan

tenaga ombak dan berikan dua sebab teknikal kenapa pilihan itu
adalah lebih tepat bagi pembinaan pemecah ombak itu.
Nota.' Gunakan maklumat di bawah untuk membantu pengiraan
anda
Cr = -a I I f.
b + 1/
di mana a = 0.60 dan b = 6.6 untuk pemecah ombak berbatu
timbunan
a = 0.48 dan b = 9.6 untuk pemecah ombak berlapisan
tetrapod
(17 marks/markah)
(25 markslmarkah)
SAB 4523 \ 4
Q2. (a) Define the term 'wave breaking'. Explain how wave breakers are
classified and distinguish the types of breakers that can be found in the
surf zone.
Takrif terminologi 'ombak pecah '. Terangkan bagaimana ombak
pecah dapat diklasijikasikan dan bezakan jenis-jenis ombak pecah
yang terdapat di zon surf
(5 marks/markah)
(b) Refer to Figure Q2(a), Figure Q2(b) and Table Q2(a). The annual
offshore wave rose for the Seberang Perai coastline which has an
azimuth orientated at 17 0 is illustrated in Figure Q2(a).
Rujuk Rajah S2(a), Rajah S2(b) dan Jadual S2(a). Corak tahunan
ombak air dalam untuk pantai di Seberang Perai berazimut pada sudut
17° ditunjukkan di dalam Rajah S2(a).
(i) Determine the offshore wave height for the 1:30 years return
period (that is, the H1:3o wave height) which is directed from
the 300 0 direction using Figure Q2(b).
Tentukan ketinggian ombak air dalam untuk kala kembali 1:30
tahun (iaitu ketinggian ombak H uo) yang menghentam pantai
dari arah 300° dengan menggunakan Rajah S2(b).
(ii) If the H \30 wave height from Q2(b)(i) above with a period of 5
seconds propagates towards the Seberang Perai shoreline from
the 11.8 m water depth at an angle of 3000, transform this wave
height to the breaker point in order to calculate the breaker
height and to determine the type of breaker that will approach
the beach in the area. Assume that the bed slopes constantly at
m = 0.050 and that the wave undergoes both the refraction and
shoaling processes.
Jika ketinggian ombak H uo dari S2(b)(i) di atas yang berkala
5 saat menuju ke arah pantai di Seberang Perai dari
kedalaman air 11.8 m pada sudut 300°, tentukan ketinggian
ombak di titik pecah dan jenis pemecah apabila ombak
menghampiri pantai tersebut. Anggap bahawa dasar laut di
kawasan itu condong secara beransur pada cerun m = 0.050
dan ombak terse but melalui proses-proses pembiasan dan
percetekan.
SAB 452315
(iii) Evaluate the beach state to be found in the area by using the
following equation:
Nyatakan jenis keadaan pantai yang terdapat di kawasan

terse but dengan menggunakan persamaan berikut
4
SC"'1,le
1 : 500.000
PULAU
PINANG
Sg. Juru
FIGURE Q2(a)/RAJAH S2(a) : Shoreline Alignment at Project Site

SAB 4523 \ 6
BUTTERWORTH
o
L
FIGURE Q2(b)/RAJAH S2(b) : Deepwater Wave Height within Wave Exposure

Window with Corresponding Return Period
(20 marks/markah)
(25 marks/markah)
Q3. (a) Predicted tidal information from the published 2009 Tide Tables as
shown in Tables Q3(a) and Q3(b) have been used in plans to mobilize
a team to site to collect environmental data in the North Channel in
Penang. From your knowledge on tidal fluctuations:
Rekod ramalan cerapan pasang surut daripada Jadual Pasang Surut
yang dicetak pada tahun 2009 seperti yang diberikan di dalam Jadual
S3(a) dan S3(b) telah digunakan di dalam perancangan menghantar
satu pasukan untuk mencerap data persekitaran di Terusan Utara di
Pulau Pinang. Daripada pengetahuan anda tentang pasang surut :
(i) Define the terms 'spring tide' and 'neap tide'.

Beri dejinisi terminologi 'pasang surut perbani' dan 'pasang
anak'.
SAB 452317
(ii) State when a currentmeter would be deployed to collect tidal

current reading over three days during neap tide in October
2009.
Nyatakan bila meter arus boleh di pasang untuk mencerap data
arus selama tiga hari di waktu pasang anak di dalam bulan
Oktober 2009.
(iii) Indicate when you would expect to record the maximum tidal
currents in September 2009 and minimum currents in October
2009 at Kedah Pier.
Tuliskan bila anda jangka dapat merekod arus pasang surut
yang maksimum di dalam bulan September 2009 dan arus yang
minimum di dalam bulan Oktober 2009 di Kedah Pier.
(iv) Sketch to show how you could relate a point at -0.17 m

sounding depth on the seabed in the area in relation to the
Admiralty Chart Datum and Land Survey Datum. Take ACD
to be 1.42 m below LSD.
Lakarkan bagaimana titik di dasar laut pada aras -0.17 m
kedalaman perum dapat dirujuk terhadap Datum Carta
Admiralti dan Datum Survei Dara!. Anggap ACD berada 1.42
m di bawah LSD.
(v) Calculate the water depth at a point which is at the 0.23 m

sounding depth when MHWS prevail in the area. Assume that
Land Survey Datum (LSD) is 1.42 m above the Admiralty
Chart Datum (ACD).
Kira kedalaman air di titik 0.23 m kedalaman perum apabila
paras air laut berada pada MHWS. Anggap bahawa Datum
Survei Darat berada 1.42 m di atas Datum Carta Admiralti.
(l0 marks/markah)
(b) A deepwater wave with a height of 2.65 m, a period of 5 seconds, a

celerity of 10.8 mls and a length of 129 m is directed towards the
Seberang Perai shoreline with its crest travelling parallel to the seabed
contours as it moves shorewards. Neglecting the effects of reflection
from the beach, calculate the total energy per 100 m crest width
delivered to the Seberang Perai shoreline over one day by the given
wave.
Ombak air dalam setinggi 2.65 m, berkala 5 saat, selaju 10.8 m/s dan
panjang 129 m menghentam pantai di Seberang Perai dengan puncak
ombak itu bergerak selari dengan kontur dasar laut ketika
SAB 452318
menghampiri pantai. Dengan mengabaikan kesan pantulan dari pantai

di Seberang Perai itu, tentukan jumlah tenaga ombak yang bertindak
ke atas sepanjang 100 m lebar puncak dalam tempoh satu hari.
(15 marks/markah)
(25 markslmarkah)
Q4. (a) Sketch the after-effects of constructing the following hard structures in
order to stabilize an eroded shoreline:
Lakarkan kesan daripada pembinaan sfruktur berikut yang digunakan
untuk menstabil pantai yang terhakis :
(i) a series of groynes

satu siri benteng hakisan
(ii) a series of offshore detached breakwaters

satu siri pemecah ombak terpisah di lepas pantai
(4 marks/markah)
(b) Explain the following terms:

Terangkan terminologi berikut:
(i) a storm profile

profit ribut
(ii) a dissipative beach

pantai peresap
(iii) 'significant erosion' as specified in the NCES category of

erosion
'hakisan signifikan' seperti dinyatakan untuk kategori hakisan
di dalam NCES
(iv) 'short term strategy' as understood in coastal erosion

management
'strategi jangka pendek' seperti difahamkan didalam bidang
pengurusan hakisan pantai
(8 marks/markah)
SAB 4523 \ 9
(c) A deepwater wave 3.0 m in height with a corresponding period of 5

seconds travels from the 60° direction on a nearshore slope (m = 0.050)
towards the Labuan shoreline shown in Figure Ql(a). The shoreline is
orientated at the 202° angle and the wave breaks at the 1.5 m water
depth. Calculate the annual longshore sediment transport rate
3
(m /year) by using the CERC Formula and sketch the direction and
estimated transport rate of littoral transport to be found along the
shoreline.
Note: The CERC formula is given by:
QI = (5.1 X 103)cb Hbs2.5 sin (2 Ub) (m 3/day)
Ombak air dalam setinggi 3.0 m yang bel'kala 5 saat menghampiri

pantai di Labuan dari arah 60 0 di atas cerun dekat pantai (m = 0.050
seperti yang ditunjukkan di dalam Rajah Sl (a). Pantai itu yang
berorientasi pada sudut 202 0 pecah pada kedalaman 1.5 m. Tentukan
kadar tahunan pergerakan sedimen persisir (m 3Itahun) dengan
menggunakan Formula CERC dan lakarkan arah dan kadar hanyutan
pesisir di pantai itu.
Nota: Formula CERC diberikan oleh :

QI = (5.1 X 103)cb H b/ 5 sin (2 Ub)
(13 markslmarkah)
(25 marks/markah)
SAB 4523\10
WAVE STATISTICS
MAXIMUM WAVE HEIGHT
MARSDEI'J SQUARE :2554 2555 2564 2565

STARTI NG DATE : 01-01-1960 ENDING DATE: 01-01-1978
NO. OF OBSERVATIONS: 90
CHOSEN DIRECTION : 60 [045 - 075 Degrees]
CHOSEN DIRECTION : JAN FEB MAC APR MAY JUN JUL AUG SEP OCT NOV DEC
MAXIMUM WAVE HEIGHT WAVE PERIOD

YEAR METERS SECONDS
1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5
1960 1.5 1.5 1 8.5 6.5 6.5
1961 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 6.5 6.5 6.5 4.5 4.5
1962 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 8.5 8.5 8.5 6.5 6.5
1963 2.5 2.5 2.5 2 2 6.5 6.5 6.5 8.5 6.5
1964 2.5 2.5 2 2 2 8.5 8.5 8.5 8.5 6.5
1965 3.5 2 2 2 1.5 6.5 10.5 6.5 4.5 4.5
1966 2 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 6.5 8.5 6.5 6.5 6.5
1967 35 2.5 2 2 2 8.5 6.5 12.5 10.5 8.5
1968 1.5 1 1 1 1 4.5 4.5 4.5 4.5 4.5
1969 4 2.5 2.5 2 4.5 10 7 9
1970 2.5 2 1.5 1.5 1.5 7 4.5 12 12 4.5
1971 2.5 2 2 2 2 4.5 7 4.5 4.5 4.5
1972 2 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 4.5 6 4.5 4.5 4.5
1973 3.5 3.5 2.5 2 2 12 12 6.5 14 14
1974 2.5 2 2 2 1.5 8 4.5 4.5 4.5 6
1975 2 2 2 2 8 8 6 4.5
1976 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 7 6.5 6 4.5 . 4.5
1977 3 2.5 2.5 2.5 2 7 8.5 4.5 4. 5 :. 13
1978 2.5 2 2 2 6.5 6.5 4.5 4.5' .
TABLE Ql(a)/JADUAL Sl (a) : Maximum Wave Height and Corresponding
Wave Periods for Labuan
SAB 4523\11
MARSDEN SQUARE 2640 2650 2660 2748 2749 2758 2759 2768 2769
STARTING DATE 01-01-1954 ENDING DATE : 01-01-1983
NO. OF OBSERVATIONS 1301
CHOSEN DIRECTION 300 [285 - 315 Degrees]
CHOSEN DIRECTION JAN FEB MAC APR MAY JUN JUL AUG SEP OCT NOV DEC
YEAR MAXIMUM WAVE HEIGHT WAVE PERIOD
METERS SECONDS
1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5
1954 1.5 1.5 1.0 1.0 1.0 6.5 4.5 6.5 6.5 6.5
1955 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.0 6.5 6.5 6.5 6.5 6.5
1956 1.0 4.5
1957 0.5 4.5
1958 2.0 1.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 6.5 6.5 6.5 4.5 4.5
1959 1.0 4.5
1960 1.5 1.0 0.5 0.5 6.5 4.5 4.5 4.5
1961 2.0 1.0 1.0 0.5 0.5 4.5 4.5 4.5 4.5 4.5
1962 0.5 4.5
1964 3.5 1.5 1.5 8.5 12.5 6.5
1965 2.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 6.5 6.5 6.5 6.5 6.5
1966 2.0 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.5 6.5 8.5 8.5 6.5 6.5
1967 3.5 2.5 2.0 1.5 1.5 4.5 6.5 8.5 8.5 6.5
1969 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.0 1.0 7.0 4.5 4.5 4.5 4.5
1970 2.5 2.0 2.0 2.0 2.0 4.5 7.0 4.5 4.5 4.5
1971 2.5 2.5 2.5 2.0 2.0 7.0 7.0 4.5 7.0 7.0
1972 2.0 1.5 1.5 1.5 1.0 6.0 9.0 8.0 4.5 8.0
1973 2.0 2.0 1.5 1.5 1~0 9.0 4.5 10.5 4.5 13.0
19/4 3.0 2.5 2.0 2.0 1.0 4.5 4.5 6.0 4,5 6.0
1975 4.5 2.02.0 1.5 6.0 4.5 4.5 13.0
1976 2.5 2.5 2.0 2.0 1.5 5.0 7.0 4.5 4.5 14.0
1977 2.0 2.0 2.0 1.5 1.5 8.0 7.0 7.0 8.0 7.0
1978 2.0 2.0 2.0 8.0 6.0 6.0
1979 3.5 2.0 2.0 6.0 7.0 7.0
1980 2.5 2.5 2.0 8.0 8.0 20.5
1981 2.5 2.5 2.0 2.0 2.0 7.0 7.0 12.0 12.0 4.5
1982 L 5 1, 5 '1, 5 1. 0 1. a 8.0 6.0 4.5 4.5 4.5
1983 2.5 2.0 2.0 1.5 1.0 4.5 7.0 6.5 4.5 4.5
TABLE Q2(a)/JADUAL S2(a) : Record of Offshore Wave Data in Study Area

SAB 4523112
ARAS PASANG SURUT PELABUHAN PIAWAJ

TIDAL LEVELS AT STANDARD PORT
{J~
"" ~~
Pihak Berkuasa (a)
"<Jf....
ab "'~
5 :2tJ. l:::::
""
.!:: ~
.S ~
~ 5 ·S
;:;:~
€~ Authority/or (aJ
~
5~
::;: ~
::E ' .-§ '"~ ~ .§
ea - ~~
Pelabuhan Piawai
.....
~ ~ ~~ ~ ~
Standard Port
~ i!
~~ -';J~ .-" ",. .:z~ ~~ <;l
~~
~
g-~ §...
01 "
'" <. ..
'" ~'" "" 15'""5" co""
::E.3
a r~
l1
2
.." OJ,. t! ti f.,:;
~~
.~o ~
li .g
=~ 3'-' :a~ le::r:
li'"
:a ;:; :a
<a~
~
~ .~
u 'a- ~
Vl "
6
ell § Vl "
" :a
§
....l
" '" § '" § P-.f ij-~
... ..,
0"" " l:' ~E . ~ ~
] ,,"'"
.=:
<'-' ~~ <~
...
<:l< ~~ ~~ ~ ~o uC) £c3 p:o., ..... :.;.Q
m. m. m. m. m. m. m.
Teluk Ewa 0.00 0.56 1046 1.82 2.18 3.07 3.56 DNM RMN RMN 1991-04(13)
Kuah 0.00 0.53 134 1.64 1.94 2.74 3.26 RMN RMN RMN 2005 - 08 (3)
Kuala Perlis 0.00 0.56 lAO 1.68 1.96 2.80 3.69 RMN RMN RMN 2005 (6 mtns)
Kedah Pier, Pulau Pinang 0.00 0.72 1.45 1.71 1.96 2.69 3.09 DNM RMN RMN 1989-03(13)
Dennaga Butterworth 000 0.77 1048 1.72 1.96 267 3.06 RMN RMN RMN 2004 - 06 (17 mlns)
Lumtlt 000 0.75 1045 185 2.24 2.94 3045 DNM RMN RMN 1989 - 03 (13)
Bagan Datuk 0.00 0.59 133 1.78 2.24 2.98 346 RMN RMN RMN 2006 (3 mths)
Pelabuhan Klang
0.00 0.98 2.35 3.03 3.72 5.09 5.82 DNM RMN RMN 1992 - 05(13)
Permalang Sedepa
0.00 085 208 2.71 3.34 457 531 ITS ITS RMN 1979 (I)
PorI Dickson
0.00 031 1.14 1.55 1.96 2.79 351 ITS ITS RMN 1979 (I)
Tanjung Keling
0.00 029 0.88 1.19 1.512.10 2.65 DNM RMN RMN 1991-02(11)
Kuala Batu Pahat

000 0.43 1.15 159 2.03 2.75 3.37 ITS ITS RMN 1979 (I)
Pulau Pisang
000 0.42 1.26 1 77 228 312 3.79 ITS ITS RMN 1979 (I)
Kukup
000 037 1.21 1.70 2.20 3.04 3.68 DNM RMN RMN 1989-03(13)
Pel. TanjWlg Pelepas

0.00 0.30 1.17 1.66 2.16 303 3.75 RMN RMN RMN 2004 - 05 (14 mths)
.lohor Bahru 0.00 099 167 2.20 2.73 3041 4.00 DNM RMN RMN 1990 - 03 (13)
Paslr Gndang 000 0.92 1.56 205 254l3.18 3.62 RMN RMN RMN 1989 (I)
Sunga; Belungkor
000 0.99 1.61 2.11 2.60 3.22 3.86 RMN RMN RMN 2004 - 05 (I)
'1I~
.... 'bb {i
~~ .5 ~ .5 h Pibak Berkuaso (a)
~~
~
"
~ 8 ~~ 5~ ::;:~ t::~
~ .§
Authorityfor (aJ
Pclabuhan Piawai ~i -:l 6 ~6 __ ~~ ·~10

,,:J:: ~ ~ ea ~ ~~
~~
~ ~ 11'-' bQ.....:j c:: ~
<a €5 ..,
S' ._:>
~
Standard Pori 01 ~ o ....
i-<~ :::S~ l-': "'<.
.g E'~h.::~
'":;~" ~ ~ ......bo "5 l;J
bD"
~ 6 ~:t
bD ..,
ii1~ a <l~
l:' 41
:;
Vl
';:;
~
<:'--1
~ §
§~
e:tJ §
.. "5
~ §
le'-'
'" ~
~::r:
'" 6
.
~
"
"'""
.., Iii ~
lir"
<;lSi
8 l:'
~g
om .!:
,,"<:l
u~~
2. ~ ~
.~
<'-'
6
~~ .~~ t~ ~~ .!:::l~
<.., .~~ a~ ~8
~ ~
tr:". .~ ~a
~--_._-
m. nl. m m. m. m m.
Tanjung Sedil;
0.00 0.49 \.61 1.70 1.79 2.92 3.13 DNM RMN RMN 1992 - 03 (10)
Mersing 000 0.55 1.75 1.91 2.07 3.27 3.65 RMN RMN RMN 2007 - OS (I)
Endau 0.00 0.53 1.76 1.92 2.08 3.30 3.78 RMN RMN RMN 2007 - 08 (I)
TelukTekek
0.00 0.51 \.70 1.90 211 330 3.68 DNM RMN RMN 1990 -03 (13)
Tnnjung Gdang 0.00 0.50 1.57 1.92 2.28 334 3.84 DNM RMN RMN 1990 - 03 (13)
Kemaman 0.00 0.55 1.47 1.88 2.29 3.22 3.79 RMN RMN RMN 2007 - 08 (I)
ICertih (Jeti Pelron",,)

0.00 0.41 1.16 1.64 211 2.86 3.64 RMN RMN RMN 1995 - 96 (I)
Cheudering
0.00 035 0.95 1.45 1.94 2.54 3.04 DNM RMN RMN 1990-03 (13)
Kuala Terengganu
000 0.43 0.97 lAS 1.93 2.47 3.02 RMN RMN RMN 1988 - 89 (I)
Geting I 000 0.20

052 074 095 1.27 1.78 DNM RMN RMN 1990-03(13)
fhe above lovels are referred tn CHART DATUM, which is the same as the zero of the tidal predictinns in aU cases.
(al Abbreviation.·
DNM Directorate ofN.tional Mapping, Malaysia.
ns Internatinnal Tidal Survey.
RMN Natinnal Hydrographic Centre, Royal Malaysiall Navy.
(b) The years between which the ohservations were obtained are given, the number of complete years olisen/alions in brackets.
AU predictions are calculated by the harmonic method.
TABLE Q3(a)/JADUAL S3(a) : Tide Levels at Standard Ports as Published in

the 2009 Tide Tables
SAB 4523113
KEDAH PIER. PULAU PINANG
YEf>.R 2009 Lat OS '25 \l Long lOll 21 E
TalE ZONE 0800 SEPTEMBER HEIGHTS IN I~ETRES
Hour 00 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
1 T 2.1 2.1 1.9 1.7 1 6 1 4 1.4 1.5 1.7 1.9 2.1 2.3 2.3 2.2 2.0 1.7 1.4 1.1 1.0 1 1 1.3 1.6 1.9 2.2
2 w 2.3 2.2 2.1 1.8 1.6 1.3 1.2 1.3 1.5 1.8 2.1 2.4 2.5 2.4 2.2 1.9 1.5 1.1 0 9 0.9 1.0 1.4 1.8 2.2
3 Th 2.4 2.4 2.3 2.0 1.7 1.4 1.2 1.1 1.2 1.6 2.0 2.4 2.6 2.6 2.4 2.1 1.7 1.2 0.9 o .7 0.8 1.1 1.6 2.1
4 F 0 2.4 2.5 2.4 2.2 1.0 1.4 1.1 1.0 1.0 1.3 1.82.3 2.6 2.7 2.6 2.3 1.9 1.4 1.0 0.7 0.6 0.9 1.3 1 9
5 S. 2.4 2.6 2.6 2.4 2.1 1.6 1.2 1.0 0.9 1.1 1.52.0 2.5 2.8 2.7 2.5 2.1 1.6 1.1 0.8 0.6 o. 7 1.1 1.7
6 Su 2.3 2.6 2.7 2.5 2.3 1.9 1.4 1.0 0.8 0.9 1.2 1.7 2.3 2.7 2.6 2.6 2.3 1.9 1.3 0.9 0.6 0.6 0.9 1.4
7 H 2.1 2.6 2.8 2.7 2.5 2.1 1.6 1.1 0.8 0.6 1.0 1.4 2.0 2.5 2.7 2.7 2.4 2.1 1.5 1.1 0.7 0.6 0.8 1.2
8 T 1.8 2.4 2.7 2.7 2.6 2.3 1.8 1.4 1.0 0.8 0.8 1.2 1.7 2.2 2.6 2.6 2.5 2.2 1.8 1.3 0.9 0.7 0.7 1.1
9 W 1.62.2 ?.6 2.7 2.6 2.4 2.1 1.6 1.2 0.9 0.8 1.0 1.4 1.9 2.3 2.5 2.4 2.2 1.9 1.5 1.1 0.9 0.9 I.e
10 Th 1.4 1.9 2.4 2.6 2.6 2.5 2.2 1.8 1.4 1.1 1.0 1.0 1.3 1.7 2.0 2.3 2.3 2.2 2.0 1.7 1.4 1.1 1.1 1.1
11 F 1.4 1.7 2.1 2.4 2.5 2.4 2.2 2.0 1.7 1.4 1.2 1.1 1.2 1.5 1.8 2.0 2.1 2.1 2.0 1.8 1.6 1.4 l.j 1.3
12 Sa 1.4 1.6 1.9 2.1 2.3 2.3 2.2 2.1 1.9 1.6 1.5 1.4 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.7 1.8 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.8 1.6 1.6 1.5
13 Su 1 .6 1.6 1.7 1.9 2.0 2.1 2.1 2.1 2.0 1.9 1.81.6 1.5 1.5 1.4 1.5 1.5 1.6 1.7 1 8 1.8 1.9 1.8 1.8
14 M 1.8 1.7 1.7 1.7 1.7 1.8 1.9 2.0 2.0 2.1 2.1 2.0 1.8 1.7 1.5 1.3 1.3 1.3 1.4 1.6 1.8 2.1
1.9 2.1
15 T 2.0 1.9 1.8 1.6 1.5 1.5 1.6 1.8 2.0 2.2 2.3 2.3 2.2 2.0 1.7 1.4 1.1 1.0 1.0 1.2 1.5 1.9 2.2 2.3
16 N 2.3 2.2 2.0 1.7 1.4 1.3 1.3 1.4 1.7 2.1 2.4 2.5 2.S 2.3 2.0 1.6 1.2 0.8 0.7 0.8 1.2 1.6 2.1 2.5
17 Th 2.6 2.5 2.3 1.9 1.5 1.2 1.0 1.1 1.4 1.8 2.3 2.6 2.7 2.6 2.4 1.9 1.4 0.9 0.6 0.5 0.8 1.2 1.9 2.4
18 F 2.7 2.7 2.6 2.3 1.8 1.3 1.0 0.8 1.0 1.4 1.9 2.5 2.8 2.8 2.6 2.3 1.8 1.2 0.7 0.4 0.5 0.8 1.5 2.2
19 S• • 2.7 2.9 2.8 2.6 2.1 1.6 1.1 0.8 0.7 1.0 1.52.2 2.7 2.9 2.8 2.5 2.1 1.5 1.0 0.6 0.4 0.6 1.1 1.8
20 SU 2.5 2.9 2.9 2.7 2.4 1.9 1.3 0.9 0.7 0.7 1.1 1.7 2.4 2.8 2.8 2.7 2.3 1.8 1.3 0.8 0.5 0.5 0.9 1.5
21 H 2.2 2 .8 2 9 2.8 2.6 2.2 1 .6 1.1
22 T 1.9 2 .5 2 8 2.8 2.7 2.3 1 9 1.3
0.8
1.0
0.6 0.8 1.3 1.9 2.5 2.7 2.6 2.4 2.1 1.6 1.1 0.8 o. 6 0.8 1.3
0.7 0.8 1.1 1.6 2.1 2.5 2.5 2.4 2.2 1.8 1.3 1.0 0.8 0.9 1.2
23 W 1.7 2 3 2 .7 2.8 2.7 2.4 2 .0 1.6 1.2 0.9 0.8 1.0 1.4 1.8 2.2 2.4 2.3 2.2 1.9
24 Th 1.5 1.2 1.1 1.0 1.2
1.6 2 .1 2 .4 2.6 2.6 2.4 2.1 1.7 1.4 1.1 1.0 1.1 1 3 1.6 2.0 2.1 2.2 2.1 1.9 1.7 1.4 1.3 1.2
25 F 1.6 1.3
1 .9 2 2 2.4 2.4 2. :I 2.1 1.9 1.6 1.:1 1.2 1.2 1.3 1.5 1.0 1.9 2.0 2.0 1.9 1.8 1.6 1.4
1.5 1.5
26 s. 1 6 1 .8 2. a 2.2 2.2 2.1 2.1 J .9 1.7 1.5 1.4 1.4 1.4 1.5 1.6 1.7 1.8 1.8 1.8 1.8 1.7 1.7 1.6 1.7
27 Su 1. 7 1 .8 1.9 2.0 2.0 2.0 1.9 1 .9 1.8 1.7 1.6 1.6 1.6 1.5 1.6 1.6 1.6 1.6 1.7 1.7 1.8 1.8 1.8 1.9
2R M 1 9 1 .9 1.9 1.8 1.8 1.8 1.8 1 .8 1 9 1.9 1.9 1.8 1.7 1.7 1.6 1.5 1.4 1.4 1.5 1.6 1.8 1.9 2.0 2.0
29 T 2 0 2.0 1.9 1.7 1.7 1.6 1.6 1. 7 1.8 2.0 2.0 2.0 2.0 1.8 1.6 1.4 1 .., 1.2
30 W 1.3 1.5 1.7 1.9 2.1 2.2
2 2 2.1 1.9 1.7 1.6 1.4 1.4 1 D 1.8 2.0 2.1 2.2 2.2 2.0 1.8 1.5 1.3 1.1 1.1 1.2 1.5 1.9 2.2 2.3
TIME lONE ·0000 OCTOBER HEIGHTS HI METRE;)

Hour 00 01 02 0:1 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
1 Th 2.4 2.3 2.1 1.8 1.5 1.3 1.3 1.3 1.6 1.9 2.2 2.3 2.4 2.2 2.0 1.6
2 r 1.3 1.0 0.9 1.0 1.3 .1. 7 2.1 2.4
2.5 2.5 2.3 1.9 1.6 1.3 1.1 1.1 1.4 1. 72.1 2.4 2.52.42.2 1.8 1.4 1.0 0.8 0.8 1.1 1.5 2.0 2.4
:I S. 0 2.6 2.6 2.5 2.1 1.7 1.3 1.0 o. 9 1.1 1.5 1.9 2.4 2.62.62.4 2.1 1.6 1.2 0.8 0.7 0.8 1.2 1.8 2.4
4 Su 2.7 2.8 2.6 2.4 1.9 1.4 1.1 0.8 0.81.1 1.6 2.2
5 H 2.7 2.9 2.8 2.6 2.2 1.7 1.2 o.8 0.7 0.8 1.:1 1.9
2.6 2.7 2.5 2.3 1.9 1.4 0.9 o .7 0.7 1.0 1.5 2.2
2.4 2.7 2.6 2.4 2.1 1.6 1.1 0.8 0.7 O. B 1.3 1.9
6 T 2.5 2.9 2.9 2.7 2.4 1.9 1.4 0.9 0.7 0.7 1.0 1.5 2.12.62.7
7 W 2. S 2.3 1.9 1.4 1.0 0.7 0.7 1.1 1.6
2.2 2.7 2.9 2.8 2.6 2.2 1.6 1.1 0.8 0.6 0.8 1.2 1.82.3 2.6 2. S 2.4
8 Th 2.1 1.6 1.2 0.9 0.8 1.0 1.4
2.0 Z-5 2,8 2.8 2.7 2.4 1.9 1.4 1.0 0.8 0.1 1.0 1.5 1.9 2.3 2.5 2.4 2.2 1.8 1.4
9 F 2.2 1.1 1.0 1.0 1.3
1.7 2.6 2.7 2.6 2.4 2.1 1.7 1.3 1.0 0.9 1.0 1.2 1.6 2.0 2.2 2.3 2.2
10 S. 2.0 1.7 1.4 1.2 1.2 1.3
1.6 1.9 2.3 2.5 2.5 2.4 2.2 1 .9 1.6 1.3 1.1 1.1 1.2 1.4 1.7 1.9 2.1 2.1 2.0 1.9 1.7 1.5 1.4 1.5
11 Su 1.6 1.8 2.0 2.2 2.3 2.3 2.2 2.1 1.8 1.6 1.4 1.:1 1.3 1.3 1.5 1.6
12 H I.B 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.8 1.7 1.7
1.7 1.7 .. 1.8 2.0 2.1 2.1 2.1 2.1 2.0 1.9 1.7 1.6 1.5 1.4 1.:1 1.4 1.5 1.6
l:l T 1.8 1.7 1.9 2.0 2.0 2.0 2.0
1.9 1.8 1.7 1.8 1.8 1.9 2.0 2.1 2.1 2.0 1.9 1.7 1.5 1.4 1.2 1.2 1.3 1. S
14 W 2.2 1.7 1.9 2.1 2.2 2.2
2.0 1.8 1.6 1.5 1.5 1.7 1.8 2.0 2.2 2.3 1.2 2.0 l.8 1.5 1.2 1.0 1.0
15 Th 2.4 2. :I 1.1 1.4 1.8 2.1 2.4 2.5
2.0 1.7 1.4 1.3 1.3 1.5 1.8 2.1 2.4 2.4 2.3 2.1 1.8 1.4 1.0 0.8 0.8 1.1 1.5 2. a 2.4 2.6
16 F 2.7 2.5 2.2 1.9 1.5 1.2 1.0 1.2 1.5 1.9 2.3 2.5 2.5 2.4 2.1
17 s. 1.7 1.2 0 9 0.7 0.8 1.1 1.7 2.3 2.7
2.8 2.8 2.5 2.1 l.6 1.2 0.9 o .9 1.1 1.5 2.0 2.5 2.72.62.4 2.0 1.5 1 .1 0.7 0.6 0.9 1.3 2.0 2.6
18 SU • 2.9 2.9 2.8 2.4 1.9 1.4 1.0 0.7 0.8 1.1 1.6 2.2
19 M 2.62.72,5 2.3 1.8 1.3 0.9 0.7 0.7 1.1 1.6 2.3
2.8 3.0 2.9 2.6 2.2 1.6 1.1 0.8 0.6 0 .8 1.2 1.8 2.42.62.6 2.4
20 T 2.1 1.6 1.2 0.9 0.7 0.9 1.4 2 0
2.6 2.9 2,9 2.7 2.4 1.9 1.4 o .9 0.7 0 7 0.9 1.4 2,0 2.4 2.5 2.4 2.2 1.8 1.4 1.1 0.9 0.9 1.2 1 .7
21 W 2.3 2.8 2.9 2.8 2.5 2.1 1.6 1.1 0.6 0 7 0.8 1.2 1.72.2 2.4 2.4 2.3 2.0 1.6 1 .3 1 .1 1.0 1.2 1 6
22 Th 2.1 2.5 2.8 2.7 2.6 2,3 1.8 1 .3 1.0 0 8 0.8 1.1. 1.5 1.92.2 2.3 2.2 2.1 1.8 1 .4 1 ,2 1.1 1.2 1.5
23 F 1.9 2.3 2.6 2.6 2.5 2.3 2.0 1.6 1.2 I 0 0.9 1.1 1.3 1.72.0 2 1 2.2 2.1 1.9 1 .6 1 .4 1.:1 1.3 1.5
24 s. 1.8 2.1 2.4 2.5 2.4
25 ,u
2.3 2.1 1.7 1.4 1 .2 1.1 1.1 1.3 1.5 l.a 2.0 2 0 2 0 1.9 1.8 1.6 1.5 1.5 1.6
1.7 1.9 2.2 2.3 2.3 2.2 2.1 1.9 1.6 1 .4 1.3 1.:1 1.3 1.5 1.6 I.B 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.8 1.8 1.7 1.7 1.7
26 M 1.8 1.9 2.0 2.1 2.1 2.0 2.0 1.9 1.8 1 6 1.5 1.5
27 T 1.4 1.4 1.5 1.6 1.7 1.8 1.8 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.9
1.9 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.9 1.8 1.7 1.6 1.6 1.5 1.4 1.5 1.5
28 W 2.0 1.6 1.7 1.8 1.9 2.0 2.1 2.1
1.9 1.8 1. B.. 1. 7 1. 7' .LB 1.8 1.9 19 1.9 1.8 17 1.6 1.5 1.4 1.4
29 Th 1.3 1.5 1.7 1.9 2.1 2.2 2.2
2.2 2.0 1.9 1.7 1.6 1.5 l.t> 1.7 1.9 2.0 2.0 2.0 1.9 1.7 1.5 13
30 F 1.2 1.2 1.3 1.6 1.9 2.1 2.3 2.4
2.4 2.2 2.0 1.7 1.5 1.4 1.4 1.5 1.72.02.1 2.2 2.1 1.9 1.7 1.4 1.2 1.1 1.1 1.4 1.7 2.1 2.4 2.5
31 5. 2.5 2.4 2.1 La 1.5 1.2 1.1 1.2 1.5 19 2.2 2.3 2.3 2.2 1.9 1.5 1.2 1.0 1.0 1.1 1.5 1.9 2 4 2.6
• New Moon 0 Full Moon

TABLE Q3(b)/JADUAL S3(b) : Tidal Variations at Kedah Pier
SAB 4613 \ 1
bellll\ (If
UTM c,\ il r:nj;inwllll.:
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE INTEGRATED WATER RESOURCES
MANAGEMENT
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWERS FOUR (4) QUESTIONS ONLY, TWO(2) QUESTIONS FROM
EACH SECTION
(Jawab empat (4) soalan sahaja, dua(2) soalan daripada setiap bahagian)
WARNING!
the study.

StCilON t\ I\\t\\\AGIA~ A.
~L ~a) In hrlef de~CI\bethe fo1\owms I

tenu~
(Dengan ringkas je!a!Kafl i!lill.' '1
On-Ish ah Oen~l)
I
•
1. Non R.evenue Water
ii. Non point source pollution
iii. Conjunctive water use
(3 marks/markah)
(b) Based on the world water resources/budget, argue how fresh water is
now becoming a scarce resource globally.
(Berdasarkan imbangan .'lumber air yang terdapat di humi, beri hujah
anda kenapa sumher air tawar di peringkat global dikatakan semakin
terbatas (gersang).
(3 marks/markah)
c) Water shortage can be addressed by supply enhancement and/or

demand management. Describe these two strategies. Provide the
advantages of implementing demand management
(Kekurangan air boleh ditangani sarna ada dengan meningkatkan
bekalan danlatau memperbaikki pengurusan permintaan. lelaskan
kedua-dua strategi ini. Berikan kebaikan pelaksanaan pengurusan
permintaan)
(4 marks/ markah)
SAB 4613 \ 3
(b) By using appropriate diagram, describe the various processes in forest

hydrological cycle. How the runoff generation processes in a forested
catchment differ from an urban catchment.
(Dengan bantuan gambarajah yang sesuai, terangkan proses-proses
yang terlibat dalam kitaran hidrologi tadahan hutan. 5eterusnya
bagaimanakah proses pembentukan luahan dalam tadahan hutan
berbeza dengan tadahan bandar)
(5 marks/ markah)
(c) Figure 82 is the result of a study comparing evapotranspiration in

forested and grass catchments. Explain the factors that influence this
finding and the implication on catchment and water resources
management.
(Gambarajah 52 merupakan keputusan kajian yang membandingkan
sejatpeluhan antara tadahan berhutan dan tadahan berumput.
Terangkan faktor-faktor yang mempengaruhi keputusan ini dan
apakah implikasinya terhadap pengurusan tadahan dan sumber air)
(2 marks/ markah)
E
E
Forest
Grassland
Time (day)
Figure/Gambarajah 82
Q3. (a) Define the following terms
(Berikan definasi istilah-istilah berikut)
Nilai lupus (Salvage value)
i. Kos tak ketara (Intangible cost)
11. Kos boleh asing (Seperable cost)
(3 markslmarkah)
(b) Why an interest is imposed when providing loan for a project

(Kenapakah bayaran faedah (bunga) perlu dikenakan ke atas
pinjaman wang untuk sesuatu projek)
(2 markslmarkah)
(c) A dam is to be constructed to protect damages to agricultural areas due

to flood. Under the existing condition, estimated damage due to ten
years flood with peakflow 500 m3/s is RM 200 million. Four dam sizes
are to be considered as shown in Table S3 together with their
respective maximum discharge, return periods and the construction
cost. The annual operating and maintenance cost is RM 0.2 million. If
the dam's life span is 100 years and the interest rate is 6%, determine
the most economical option. Compare your finding with benefit-cost
ratio (B/C), net benefit and incremental benefit ratio methods to
strengthen your decision.
(Sebuah empangan perlu dibina untuk mengurangkan kerosakan ke
atas kawasan pertanian. Dalam keadaan sedia ada, banjir 10 tahun
dengan luahan 500 m3/s akan menyebabkan kerosakan sebanyak RM
200 juta. Empat opsyen untuk membesarkan empangan diberi dalam
Jadual 83. Kala kembali untuk setiap nilai luahan maksimum, kos
pembinaan dan anggaran kerosakan jika banjir sedemikian berlaku
juga diberi dalam Jadual 83. Kos operasi dan penyelenggaraan
tahunan untuk setiap opsyen ialah RM 0.2 juta. Jika jangka hayat
empangan ialah 100 tahun dan kadar faedah ialah 6%, dapatkan
opsyen yang paling ekonomi. Dapatkan juga nilai faedah kos (BIC),
faedah bersih dan nisbah peningkatan faedah untuk mengukuhkan
alasan anda.)
(5 marks/ markah)
SAB 461315
Jadualffable 83
Paras puncakl Kala Kos PembinaanJ Kos Kerosakan
peakflow kembalil Construction Cost I Damage cost
(m 3 /s) return period (RMjuta) (RMjuta)
(year)
600 50 120 300.0
700 100 150 350.0
800 200 190 380.0
900 500 230 400.0
1
p=
Tr
SAB 461316
SECTION B / BAHAGIAN B
Q4. (a) A reservoir is designed and built in order to improve the stability of
the river flow. Discuss in brief with example, what does this statement
means and how this could happen?
(Resevor direkabentuk dan dibina untuk mengujudkan kesetabilan
kadar aliran sungai. Bincangkan dengan ringkas beserta contoh, apa
yang dimaksudkan dengan kenyataan terse but dan mengapa ianya
berlaku).
(4 marks/markah)
(b) A multiple purpose reservoir is to be built to serve multiple activities

as follow:
1. Rice irrigation scheme of 20,000 hectares
11. Domestic water supply to 15,000 peoples
Ill. Hydropower generation for 1.05 kWh (kilowatt Hour) annually
The rates of water utilization according to the different activities are as

follows: Energy produced 1.8 kWh per cubic meter of water; Domestic
water usage of 0.25 m 3/per person/day; Water consumptive use for rice
crop of 7mm/day for 120 growing days annually. Estimate the
minimum reservoir storage capacity required to sustain the above
mentioned usage.
(Sebuah reservoir pelbagai guna akan dibina bagi menyediakan
keperluan air kepada pelbagai aktibiti seperti berikut:
i. Pengairan tanaman padi seluas 20,000 hektar
ii. Bekalan air mentah kepada 15,000 orang penduduk
iii. Menjana kuasa electrik 1.05 kWh (kilowatt Hour) setahun
Kadar penggunaan air mengikut aktibiti adalah seperti berikut: 1.8

kWh untuk setiap meter padu air; 0.25 m3/per orang/hari; Keperluan
air tanaman padi 7mm/hari untuk 120 hari tempoh tanaman setahun.
Anggarkan kapasiti simpanan minimum reservoir yang diperlukan
untuk mengekalkan prestasi simpanan air pada reservoir tersebut)
(6 marks/markah)
SAB 461317
Q5. (a) With the aid of diagrams, define in brief what do you understand about
a flow duration curve (FDC) of a river system and what does this curve
tell on the reservoir potential?
(Dengan bantuan gambarajah, terangkan apa yang anda faham
mengenai lengkung kadar aliran tempoh sungai dan maklumat apa
yang terdapat dalam lengkung tersebut yang boleh dikaitkan dengan
potensi reservoir)
(2 marks/markah)
(b) Table Q4 shows the mean monthly flow for a natural river. Develop
the FOe of the river and determine the mean flow for 50, 75 and 95%
of time equaled or exceeded.
(Jadual Q4 dibawah merupakan kadaraUr purata bulanan untuk
sebuah sungai semula jadi. Terbitkan lengkung aUran masa bagi
sungai tersebut dan tetntukan nilai kadar alir yang berlaku pada 50,
75 dan 95% masa bersamaan atau melebihi tempoh masa).
( 4 marks/markah)
Table Q4
Month 1988 1989

Jan 35.07 27.51
Feb 15.32 8,97
Mar 4.51 2.22
May 104.36 178.12
Jun 152.21 403.49
Jul 93.92 173.97
Aug 143.99 162.56
Sep 328.83 207.38
Oct 249.63 304.91
Nov 361.97 410.42
Dec 344.31 ,
447.47
SAB46B \ ~
(c) Usin~ the same d~t~ li~t~d in Table 04, determ~ne the potential
reservoir capacity if the draft rate is constantly taken as 75% of the
n1ean now.
rM~"881ma~n ~Ia yang sarna dlam Jadua! Q~, lenlu~n po/eml
kapasiti reservoir jika ~adar luahan re~ervoir diamoil ~eoagai /)%
darifad« iIIldar alir pUrala ID1~~lurunan}
(4 marks/markah)
Q 6. (a) Reliability is the probability that a reservoir will be able to meet the
demand in any particular interval of time. Reliability computed in this
way is often termed time-based reliability and can be expressed as:
Ills
Rt =
N
With quantitative example, define each term stated in the above

expression.
(Kebolehgunaan merupakan kebarangkalian sesebuah reservoir
mampu untuk mencapai permintaan pada sebarang julat masa.
Kebolehgunaan menerusi cara tersebut dipanggil "time-based
reliability" dan boleh dinyatakan sebagai:
tv 5
Rt=
N
Menggunakan contoh secara kuantitatif, takrifkan setiap terma yang
terdapat dalam persamaan tersebut).
(2 marks/markah)
Figure Q6 (a) below shows the mean monthly flow of a proposed site
for a reservoir. Compute the Time-based reliability of the proposed
reservoir considering the mean monthly demand of 800 m 3/s.
(Gambarajah Q6 (a) dibawah merupakan kadar alir purata bulanan
untuk cadangan pembinaan reservor. Tentukan "time-based
reliability" bagi reservoir yang dicadangkan jika permintaan bekalan
purata bulanan ialah 800 m3/s).
(2 marks/markah)
SAB 461319
1600
1400
1200
1000
800
600
400 /'
200
o
F M A M A SON D
Month
Figure Q6 (a)
(b) Briefly, define the following terms in reservoir system

i. Resiliency
ii. Critical Period
Figure Q6(b) below shows the reservoir storage over the long-term
period. Identify at least two critical periods that the reservoir has
experiencing.
(Dengan ringkas, takrifkan term-terma berikut yang terdapat dalam
system reservoir.
i. Kebolehgunaan
ii. Tempoh kritikal
Gambarajah Q6(b) di bawah merupakan simpanan reservoir yang

direkod dalam tempoh jangka panjang. Tentukan sekurang-kurangnya
dua tempoh yang berlakunya tempoh kritikal yang telah dialami oleh
reservor tersebut)
(3 marks/markah)
% Emptiness
v
Empty L-I--+--+--4-+--+-~~~~::-t-::-j
1980 1981 1982 1983 1984 1985 1986 1987 In8 1999
Figure Q6 (b)
SAB 4613 \ 10
Full
% Emptiness
EmptyL---t----+--+-..J.--..l--+-+----t---''-t---+---+--I
1980 1981 1982 1983 1984 1985 1986 1987 1988 1999
Figure Q6 (b)
(c) The hydro-electric potential of a watershed can be estimated using the

information contained in the topographic map and stream flow record
and can be expressed as follow:
pHD.". = q. G
Where
pHDR =hydro-electeric potential
q = mean annual river flow
G = hydraulic gradient
Briefly describe step-by-step procedure to indentify the best location

along the river length for a dam to be built.
(Potensi penjanaan elektrik hidro yang terdapat dalam suatu kawasan
tadahan boleh dianggar menggunakan maklumat yang terkandung
dalam peta topograji dan rekod kadar alir sungai, dan boleh
dinyatakan sebagai:
p .liD? = q .r; 0
Dimana,
HDR
p = potensi hydro-electerik
q = kadar alir purata tahunan
G = kecerunan hidraulik
Secara ringkas, terangkan secara langkah demi langkah , bagaimana
kedudukan reservoir yang terbaik boleh ditentukan untuk mendapatkan
potensi hidro-elektrik yang terbaik.
(3 marks/markah)
SAB 4623 \ 1
~lNAL £XAMINATION
COURSE HYDROLOGIC ANALYSIS & DESIGN
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
WARNING!
rom
disciplinary actions and the faculty may recommend the student to be expelledf
the study.
SECTION A: ANSWER TWO ill-QUESTION~ ONLY,
Q1. (a) Narne two factors that influenced the shape of outflow h~dro oraph Qf Q
wntcIsheu, Explainhow lliey affect fue shape of the hydrograph,
(5 marks)
(b) Figure shows contour map of a watershed. Using mean slope method,
determine the average slope of the watershed.
(20 marks)
160m 160m
160 m
140m 160m
140m
120 m
o 500 1000 m
I I \
100m 120m Scale
SAB 4623 \ 3
Q2. (a) What kind of data is needed in order to create IDF relationship for a
rainfall station?
(5 marks)
(b) Using alternating block method, build a design hyetograph for rainfall
duration of 30 minutes for Kuantan. Use MASMA IDF coefficient of a
= 4.375, b = 0,963, c = -0.307, and d = 0.020. Figure Q2 shows the
distributions of 2P24h for West Malaysia. Table Q2a and Table Q2b
show Values of FD and Standard duration for design rainfall,
respectively.
(20 marks)
In(RI t) = a + b In(t) + c [In(t)]2 + d [In(t)]3

Pd = P 30 - FD (P60 P30)
Table S2a: Values ofFo
TP24h (mm)
Duration West Coast East Coast
(minutes) ~100 120 150 ~180 All
5 2.08 1.85 1.62 1.40 1.39
10 1.28 1.13 0.99 0.86 1.03
15 0.80 0.72 0.62 0.54 0.74
20 0.47 0.42 0.36 0.32 0.48
25 0.21 0.19 0.16 0.14 0.23
30 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
Table S2b: Standard Durations for Design Rainfall
Standard Duration Numbers of Time Interval

(minutes) Time Intervals (minutes)
10 2 5
15 3 5
30 6 5
60 12 5
120 8 15
180 6 30
360 6 60
SAB 4623 \ 4
Q3. (a) State two important parameters to develop stage indication table in
solving reservoir routing.
(5 marks)
(b) A watershed located in lohor Bahru shown in Figure Q3 is to be

developed and it requires a detention pond to be included into its
drainage system. Estimate the required storage requirement for the
detention pond if the characteristics of the watershed are summarized
in Table Q3. Solve this problem using Rational Method Hydrograph
Method approach. Use MASMA IOF coefficient of a = 4.490, b =
0.997, c = -0.328 and d = 0.020.
(20 marks)
Table Q3: Characteristics of the watershed and its drainage system
Pre-Development Post- Development
Slope 2% 2%
Runoff coefficient 0.6 0.8
AB - Manning n 0.045 0.0275
BC - flow velocity 0.2 mls 0.5 rn/s
CO - flow velocity 0.4 rn/s 1.0 mls

SAB 4623 \ 5
Figure Q3a: Watershed drainage system
o 200 400m
c [ I I
Scale
D
SAB 4623 \ 6
SECTION B: ANSWER TWO (2) OUESTIONS ONLY.
Q4. (a) What is the primary purpose of culvert and list the factors should be
considered in culvert design.
Q=A
2 L
19 • 62n---If. + k e + 1
R"
(5 marks)
(b) A concrete box culvert 2.0 m by 2.0 m is used with rounded entrance
(ke = 0.05, Cd = 0.95). The culvert slope is 0.90% , the length is 42.0
m, and the headwater depth is 1.75 times the height of the culvert
opening. What is the capacity of the culvert when it is in free outlet
condition
(10 marks)
(c) Prepare the solution and comment on the culvert capacity, if the
tailwater rises 0.520 m above the top of the culvert outlet. Treat the
culvert flow regime condition as the submerged entrance.
(10 marks)
SAB 462317
Q5. (a) A concrete sewer pipe is to be laid on a slope 1.5 % and is to be

designed to carry 0.65 m3/s of stormwater runoff. Estimate the required
pipe diameter using the Manning equation (n = 0.013). The kinematic
viscosity of water is v = 1.0 X 10-6 m 2/s. The allowable maximum and
minimum velocity are 0.6 rn/s and 4.5 rn/s respectively.
(6 marks)
Y.
D= 3.21Qn 8
[ IS: ]
(b) A roadway has a cross-slope of 2.0%, a longitudinal slope of 1.25%,

and a flow rate in the gutter of 0.1 m3Is. The flow is to be removed by
a slotted drain with a slot width of 5 cm, and a Manning n quoted by
the manufacturer as 0.015. Estimate the minimum length of slotted
drain that can be used.
(7 marks)
(c) Determine the spacing of inlets for a six lane roadway to be

constructed with 3.66 m lanes, a cross slope 2.5 %, a longitudinal slope
of 0.75 %, and pavement made of rough asphalt (n = 0.015). If the
minor roadway drainage system is to be designed for a designed
rainfall intensity of 300 mm/hour.
Based on guidelines provided by local authority, the roadway must at

least two lanes must be free of water.
(12 marks)
SAB 462318
Q6. (a) A low density housing unit development will be developed ill a
proposed 8 hectar catchment, in Kuantan.
The post-development design discharge are the following:
i) Dry weather flow is 0.28 m3Is
ii) 2 year ARI design flood is 2.5 m3/s
Determine the size of a composite drain (Figure Q6a) to convey a

minor system design flow. Assume concrete drain with b = 2y, where b
is width and y is water depth.
(15 marks)
(b) Estimate the drainage reserve based on freeboard 100 em.
(5 marks)
(c) If the engineer decided to maintain the size of the dry weather flow
drain (design flow 0.28 m3/s) and try to evaluate the situation when the
design flood increased to 3.5 m 3/s, report on what would possibly
happen to the design water level and drainage reserve.
(5 marks)
n = Manning roughness coefficient
Grassed swale (n = 0.035)
I ~
I -_ - - I
I
I : 1
I -_ .c.. ... " "" ,I
1 ... _
4 4
Concrete drain (n = 0.013)
Figure Q6a
SAB 462319
SEKSYEN A: JAWAD DUA (2) SOALAN SAHAJA.
S1. (a) Nyatakan dua faktor yang mempengaruhi bentuk hidrograf aliran
keluar dari sesebuah legeh. Terangkan bagaimana ianya dapat merobah
bentuk hidrograf tersebut.
(5 markah)
(b) Rajah S1 menunjukkan peta kontor sebuah legeh. Dengan

menggunakan kaedah mean slope curve, kirakan purata cerun bagi
legeh ini.
(20 markah)
160 m 160m
160 m
140 m
160 m
120 m
o 500 1000 m
I I I
100 m 120 m
Sekil
Rajah S1
SAB 4623\10
S2. (a) Apakah data yang diperlukan bagi membentuk suatu hubungan IDF
bagi sesebuah stesen hujan?
(5 markah)
(b) Bina sebuah hyetograf rekabentuk dengan menggunakan kaedah

alternating block bagi tempoh hujan 30 minit bagi bandar Kuantan.
Gunakan pekali rumus hubungan IDF MASMA: a = 4.375, b = 0.963,
c = -0.307, and d = 0.020. Rajah S2 menunjukkan taburan nilai zP Z4h
bagi Semenanjung Malaysia. Jadula S2a dan S2b masing-masing
menunjukkan nilai FD bagi seluruh Semenanjung Malaysia dan sela
masa hujan rekabentuk piawai.
(20 markah)
In(RID = a + b In(t) + c [In(t)]z + d [In(t)]3
Pd = P30 - FD (P 60 P30)
Jadual S2a: Values ofFo

LP Z4 h (mm)
Duration West Coast East Coast

(minutes) ::;100 120 150 ~180 All
5 2.08 1.85 1.62 1.40 1.39
10 1.28 1.13 0.99 0.86 1.03
15 0.80 0.72 0.62 0.54 0.74
20 0.47 0.42 0.36 0.32 0.48
25 0.21 0.19 0.16 0.14 0.23
30 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
Jadual S2b: Standard Durations for Urban Stormwater Drainage

Standard Numbers of Time Time Interval
Duration Intervals (minutes)
I (minutes)
10 2 5
15 3 5
30 6 5
60 12 5
120 8 15
180 6 30
360 6 60
SAB 4623111
83. (a) Nyatakan dua parameter penting dalam pembentukan jadual stage
indication untuk tujuan pengiraan penghalaan reservoir.
(5 markah)
(b) Sebuah legeh yang berada di Johor Bahru seperti ditunjukkan dalam
Rajah S3 akan dibangunkan dan adalah disyaratkan supaya sebuah
takungan tahanan disertakan dalam sistem perparitan legeh tersebut.
Angarkan storan keperluan bagi sebuah takungan tahanan sekiranya
ciri-ciri sistem perparitan utama legeh tersebut dinyatakan dalam
Jadual S3. Gunakan pendekatan kaedah rasional hidrograf bagi
melaksanakan tujuan tersebut. Gunakan pekali rumus IDF MASMA: a
= 4.490, b = 0.997, c = -0.328, dan d = 0.020.
(20 markah)
Jadual 83: Ciri-ciri legeh dan sistem perparitan
Pre-Development Post- Development
Cerun 2% 2%
Runoff coefficient 0.6 0.8
AB - Manning n 0.045 0.0275
I BC - halaju aliran 0.2 m/s 0.5 m/s
CD - halaju aliran 0.4 m/s 1.0 m/s

SAB 4623 \ 12
Rajah S3a: Sistem perparitan utama legeh
o 200 400m
c I I I
Sekil
SAB 4623113
SEKSYENB: JAWAB DUA (2) SOALAN SAHAJA.
S4. (a) Apakah tujuan utama pembetung dan senaraikan faktor yang boleh
dipertimbangkan dalam rekabentuk pembetung.
2g!1h
Q=A
2 L
19 • 62n--.y;.. + k e + 1
R"
!1h = h + hf + h"
j
(5 markah)
(b) Sebuah pembetung konkrit yang dipasang berukuran 2.0 m x 2.0 m

mempunyai bahagian masuk yang bulat (ke = 0.05, Cd = 0.95).
Kecerunannya ialah 0.70% , panjangnya 42.0 m, dan ukurdalam
bahagian masuk adalah 1. 75 kaliganda ketinggian saiz bukaan
pembetung. Dapatkan kapasiti pembetung dalam keadaan outletnya
bebas dan tidak tenggelam.
(10 markah)
(c) Sediakan penyelesaian dan komen anda terhadap kapasiti pembetung,

jika ketinggian air bahagian aliran keluar adalah 0.520 m daripada
bahagian atas outlet pembetung. Anggap regim aliran ialah bahagian
masuknya tenggelam.
(10 markah)
SAB 4623 \ 14
S5. (a) Paip konkrit dipasang pada keeerunan 1.5 % dan direkabentuk untuk
mengalirkan air ribut hujan 0.65 m3Is. Anggar diameter paip
diperlukan menggunakan formula Manning (n = 0.013). Kelikatan
kinematik air ialah v = 1.0 X 10-6 m2/s. Julat halaju dibenarkan adalah
antara 0.6 m/s (minima) and 4.5 m/s (maksima).
(6 markah)
y.
D =[3.21 Qn] ·
IS:
(b) Sebatang jalanraya dengan keeerunan rentas 2.0%, keeerunan
memanjang 1.25%, dan kadar aliran dalam gutter ialah 0.1 m 3/s. Aliran
tersebut akan disalirkan melalui longkang slot dengan lebar slot 5 em,
dan pekali Manning n seperti dinyatakan oleh pengilang 0.015.
Dapatkan panjang minima longkang slot yang sesuai digunakan.
(7 markah)
O.6
= 0.6 Q?42 S~3

L
(_1_
nS J
x
(c) Dapatkan jarak pasang inlet yang digunakan untuk ja1anraya 6 laluan
yang dibina daripada asphalt kasar (n = 0.015) pada kelebaran setiap
laluan 3.66 m, keeerunan rentas 2.5 %, keeerunan memanjang ialah
0.75 %. Sistem saliran minor akan direkabentuk untuk ribut hujan
rekabentuk 300 mm/jam.
Garispanduan disediakan oleh pihak berkuasa tempatan ialah
sekurangnya dua laluan mesti bebas air.
(12 markah)
SAB 4623115
86. (a) Projek unit rumah berkepadatan rendah, akan dibangunkan satu
kawasan di sekitar bandar Kuantan pada tapak eadangan berkeluasan 8
hektar.
Kadaralir rekabentuk pasea-pembangunan seperti berikut:
i) Kadaralir aliran rendah 0.28 m 3Is
ii) Kadaralir banjir 2 tahun Kala Kembali ialah 2.5 m 3Is
Tentukan saiz longkang komposit (Rajah 86a) untuk mengalirkan

aliran daripada sistem minor. Anggap eiri longkang konkrit dengan b =
2y.
(15 markah)
(b) Tentukan rizab saliran menggunakan ukuran bebas air 100 em.
(5 markah)
(e) Sediakan lapuran terhadap situasi yang berkemungkinan akan berlaku

kepada ukurdalam rekabentuk aliran dan rizab saliran. Jika jurutera
berhasrat mengekalkan saiz longkang aliran rendah walaupun kadaralir
banjir rekabentuk bertambah kepada 3.5 m3/s.
(5 markah)
n = pekali Manning
Longkang rumput (n = 0.035)
,',
I ~ ,',
1 ' " : 1
I ... ..»0 c.:'_"":: :
4 4
Longkang konkrit (n = 0.013)
Rajah 86a
SAB 4623 \ 16
@
~
0 ; .......~
~, "
"0
'~"'" • KANGNl
"'~ ..
t-
OKm JOKm 60Km
SCAlE
011\
~ .
ALOR STAR :~ .", .. ~
,~
/..AUT CHINA SELATAN

(stJIITII ClIIIIA SIA)
SELA T JlE/..AKA
(mum ", IW.4CQ)
Figure 13.3 Values of 2PZ4h for use with Table 13.3

(source: HP 1, 1982)
SAB 4623 \ 17
'\ \
-- -_.- ._--'--- -_. ~ ./' / ./'./
f " ... I:lP::'OUl
(\.OY .1 /
7'
/ ./
./
./
"\ ~ / "'7 . / ./
""\ 'l.. _.~,-
/ '9.b1o/ .. ./ ./
•
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~;;Z 7' 7' !V"_I~ . / ./
II
-- -- ~,,).-v 7' ./
./ 0
M - - - <: - - - - -./.
/ ./
./
~ .......
/
Y
-
/ /
7' 7' 7'

I
. Y
0
.,..
~~
./
/
./
./
/
. / 17
/
7'
/
7' ""~
7'
;/
/ ./
.
/ // / ./
1/ / // /
," " /
./
1/
;I'
/
77 7
./ 7' 7
77
;/
T
" "" ./
./
./
././
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/ ' .7
./ ./
.- ~-k- "---
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./ .. ./ .. ./
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""\ ._-"
"\
" "" ./
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17./ . / . / .._-_.
./ .. ..._._._.
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./ ./
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" " " "" "
60 5040 30 20 10 5 4 3 2 1 5 10 20 50 100 200 500 1000
Time of Travel OVer Surface (min.) Length of overland Flow (m)
Design Chart 14.1 Nomograph for Estimating Overland Sheet Flow Times (Source: AR&R, 1977)
(OVerland Sheet Flow Times - Shallow Sheet Flow Only)
SAB 4643 \ 1
UTM
. \
"'"
llNIVERSITI TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA
Facultv of
£"'''~"'''
~lN~L ~llMINATION
COURSE ENVIRONMENTAL HYDRAULICS
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 4643[3
Q4. A river receives a discharge of 10 MGD at a concentration of 150 mg/I.

The river flow \lp~tr~~m i~ ZQ MGD fit zero concentration, for Dmi
downstream, the velocity is 10 mpd. Areolon of slQW moyil1bwater i~
then encountered for fue next 2~ mt where the velocity drops to 2mpd If
th~ d~vuy rute ofthe substance i! ~.2laar, wnal i~ ili~ concentrauon a\ \ne
point j5 mi downstream from the outfall?
(25 marks)
Q5. The basic principle used to fonnulate a stream water quality model is
mass balance. That is, for a given segment of the stream, the
accumulation of a water quality constituent over a finite period of time
is equal to the mass entering the segment plus the mass added to the
segment, less the mass leaving the segment and the mass lost with the
segment as shown in Equation 1.
Accumulation = mass in - mass out + source - sink (Equation 1)
(a) Using the above information, derive a mass-balance equation,

at steady-state, a general first-order linear differential equation.
(10 marks)
(b) Fonnulate the following mass transport equations under time

varying conditions expressed in Cartesian coordinates:
1. One-dimensional advective system
ii. Two-dimensional advection-dispersion system
lll. Three-dimensional advection-dispersion and reactive system
(15 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 171311
Fxu!w uf
UTM
lIHIVERSITJ lEKll·OLOGl JALAYSiA
Civil Engillccnng
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SABI713
COURSE SOIL MECHANICS
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
WARNINGI
the study.

SAB 1713 \ 2
Q1 (a) A 2m thick layer of sand with a minimum void ratio of 0.47 and a
maximum void ratio of 0.95 has a relative density of 10 percent. The
average specific gravity of ilie minerals in the soil is 2,6~, and Yw =

3
9.81kN/m .
1. Compute Ydry and Ysat for the sand in its present state but with
relative density, Dr = 15%.
(8 marks)
11. Under vibratory loading, the thickness of the sand reduces to

1.8m. If the settlement of sand layer represents the volume
compaction, what is the new relative density of the sand?
(7 marks)
(b) A fine grained soil has a liquid limit of 83 and a plastic limit of 34.
Describe the soil type using the Unified Soil Classification System.
(5 marks)
(20 marks)
Q2 (a) Explain why in same conditions, soil needs to be compacted first

before any construction can take place on the soi11ayer.
(3 marks)
(b) The following results have been obtained from a standard Proctor test.
I Mass of compacted
M (g)
soil, Moisture content
(%)
1921 11
2052 12
2140 13
2148 14
2120 15
2082 16
If the specific gravity of the solids is 2.68, and the volume of the
compaction mould is 1000cm3 .
SAB 1713 \ 3
1. What is the value of maximum dry density (MDD) and

optimum moisture content (OMC).
(8 marks)
11. What is the possible dry density if the soil is compacted with
the natural moisture content which equal to field moisture
content, 12 %.
(7 marks)
(c) By using the MDD and OMC obtained from laboratory test, the field
compaction has been carried out. However, to ensure that the
compaction achieved complies with the required specification, a sand
cone method test is carried out. The test results are as follows:
Mass of dry soil of soil sample, M s = 2468 g

Initial total mass Gar, cone and sand) = 5724 g
Total mass remain = 3172 g
Volume of cone = 248 cm3
Density of standard sand 1560 kg/m 3
From the results, determine the dry density of the compacted soil.
(7 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 1713
4
Q3 A water tank project with 30 m x 10 m dimension and 6000kN weight was

built above a 2m thick sand layer (0 5= 2.68, n=0.433, w = 20%). The sand is
underlain by 5m of clayey sand (G s = 2.71, e = 0.65, d to = 0.02mm, Sr = 55%,
C :=: 50), 4m of clay (Ysat = 22kN/m3) and the impermeable bedrock. Ground
water table is at the surface of clay layer. The capillary rise is occurred at
clayey sand.
1. Draw the soil profile
(5 marks)
11. Draw diagrams show total vertical stress, pore water pressure and
effective vertical stress from bedrock to ground surface.
(8 marks)
111. Determine the effective stress of subsurface about 5m under the ground
surface.
(5 marks)
IV. Redraw the diagrams for a condition immediately after a water tank
removed rapidly. Compare the results with the previous diagram and
provide brief explanation.
(7 marks)
(25 marks)
y = (G,. +Se)yw
l+e
SAB 1713 \ 5
Q4 In preparing a sandy soil for a drained triaxial compression test, a specimen of

sand (c = 0, <1>= 40°) has uniform cell pressure acting on it 0'\ = 0'3 = 100kPa.
The pore pressure in the voids is, U = 100kPa.
i. Draw the Mohr's Circle for the soil's stress state in terms of total
stresses; and effective stresses.
(5 marb)
11. Why can't the soil in this state support any shear stress?
(5 marks)
The soil sample is then sealed in a rubber membrane and the pore space is
evacuated with a vacuum pump reducing the pore pressure to u = OkPa. Cell
pressure 100kPa continues to act externally on the soil.
111. Draw the Mohr's Circle for the soil's effective stress state.
(5 marks)
The soil is then subjected to an axial compression test in which the cell stress
remains at 100kPa, the vertical stress 0'] is increased until shear failure occurs;
while the pore pressure is maintained at a vacuum u = OkPa.
IV. Draw the Mohr's Circle for the effective stresses at shear failure.
(5 marks)
v. What is the orientation of the shear failure plane in the soil?

(5 marks)
VI. What are the effective shear and the normal stresses on the failure
plane?
(5 marks)
(30 marks)
SAB 171316
Unified soil classification (including identification and description)
Field ;d(!n/~Ilcationproc~dures : Group

Inform alion required for Laboratory classificatIOn
(Excluding particles larger than 75mm and baslflg frachons on ! symboh
Typicalname.s descrih ing soils cn/eria
eslJmated weights) I }
--~1--
T-- --- --~---------------------- ---t- -~ I -------~-:_,:Q.-60Greater than 4
I ...':Z c i Wide range of grain size and substantial GW
Well graded gravels, gravel- Give typical names: indicate ap~
~
I
i ~ ~ 7', il a.mountsofalJ intermediate particle ;
sand mixwres, little or no proximate percentages of sand ~ I D 10 2
!I
.
•~ s:::
.g -!:"
I
f
t:.:
5~
c ~
~ i
1.,_SI7.e_S ~
~redom.inanrly o~e sh::e o~ a ra'!ge of
._. .. ;
GP
fll!...e_~_ ..
Poorly sraded gravels, gravel-
._ and gravel: maximum size
angularity, surface condition, ~
~ .!j ~
c:
g
~
I
= ~
if---__c '-_D /0 x D§o
Between land J
_
.~ ... ~ ~
~c~-:~
"" i:!'''
i G E-
!~ ~ ~ I
"L~i::i~lth ,:_e "Intermediate sizes __ 1-
I
~lLnneds ~~re~tt~~
I
1
and hardness of the coarse
grains· local or g('oiogical name
and other pertinent descriptive
§
"e ~ ;:s
g'"
~_
E ~
; Not meeting all gradation requirem ents for GW
~---------------_:_I------ - ----I
:I
~ Non-plastic fines (for identification GM I Silty gravels, poorly inform ation and sym bol in ~ ~
· o § .~ :1 ~ ~ 1 ~~~~_e_d.~~.es_~~_ML belo~~~ ~ -1 _ L~de~~~:~:~~~~51It~:tur~~ ~ ..:: ::J Atterberg limits below_ A \Above "A" line with
Ie'" ~
~~
parentheses 2 ~ .~ "A~ line or PI less than 4 J PI between 4 and 7 I
~ ~ ·2 '"Ii l ~ ~ .; are borderline cases ,I
iii ·
]
Eo " .; £
~
~ ~
::~ ! v
§! Plastic fines (for identification p ro-
~ ~ ~~~~~~_~_.~~__ ~~~)_____
1 Wide range In grain sizes and sub·
_. --~--f
1
,GC
W
I Clayey gravels, poorly graded
---L .~!av~=~~~~_~y _~i_~u!~~
: I
, For undisturbed soils add infor-
I ~t~~O~ pOa~tS~~~~I,f~cea~~~ia~i!;,ee
moisture conditions and draln-
-S
-0
Ol
'"
]
0;
S -3 {J if Atterberg lim its above "A" \ requiring use of dual I
~ ~ ~"; ~ 1_~:_~t~__~l_.~~e~~h,~~_~L~~~_~s
~ 0
_ :
·"
iJ
~ 'C'- i?: >: ~ ~ I stantial amounts ofal! intermediate IS! Well gr~ded sands,.gravelly I age characteristics. I
~ <c;:;
..... lit
U'l
{/.I
(j ~
I
C U=_60 Greater than 6
:!
g~~
·
\.j~~
~:
~ s::: ~ ~ -;::;-
~
I particle sizes
--~--:.,
sands, little or no ftnes
~---r---------~--- .---------
I
'1 Example:
"0
C
"~
!i~~~i
~:<]
D~ 2
c ~ JQ.1Q.L
. ·":;,
:.. t3 I:' ::.. -.-----------.------.----
§
~i
8~ _ I: ~ ~~ ~ I p:redom,inantely ~ne size ~r a r~nge?f. : SP ! Poorly $rade~ sands, gravelly I Silty sand, gravelly, abo.ut 20%
.. S
~ ~ "~~ __ .
I
' _D__!.E ~~o
Between 1 and J
----:- ... _
u
~:::: v i sIzes with some intermediate sIzes nlJSslng I ' sands, Imle o. no fines I hard angular ~ravel particles 11'"
8. ~
~ ~ ~ € ~ 1- - - - - - - - ----------~._----;-.. __L "---- }? Smm maXimum size· rounded .. i Not meeting all gradation requlrem ents for SW
.i
! ~
~ ~
0. ~ ~ ~ ~
§ ;; . . .,
:..c::
i·":;:
.!:! l'
Non-plastic fines (for identification pro~
"'5~! cedures, see ML below)
I SM 'Silty s~nds.; poorly graded
I
a~d subangular sand gr~i~s g g tl
~~
':!? ~
th -;; '$.. I
~------- --~- ~ - ---- - -
Atterberg 'Imlts below~ bo'Ve "A" hne With
·
~
':S .£? i: ~.tj 'c-l---. sand-sdtmlxtures
~_ .-----t-------
I
_~ __._. . '---i
coarse to f1ne,.about 15% non-
plastic lines with low dry
.~
'"~.
"§ 5 ~ ~
~
~
-S
-5 ~
~
•A" Itne or P I less than 4 PI between 4 and 7
are borderline cases •
-
~ ~] III ~ ~ § i
ll n,M 1
stre.nr~h;
Plastic fines (for identification pro- SC Clayey sand,s, poorly graded ell CO~t~i~ids ant cu 0 - ----- -
I 11 B f
~
<: ~ ~ ~ I cedures, see CL below) I sand-clay mixtures s) Ifi paces, u an
g'
go /;
8 0·;;; ...l::i ~:
Atterberg hmlts above 'A requinnguseofdual:
line With PI greater Ihan 7 sym bois j ----- 1
.--t- I
c------ J -
I --------.-------- ~.--~-----
I • , 1
Ide"iiJic'aiion~~re~f:!;~~zl;Q'Ii~all:~ Ihan~~_",-=--=~J---- ;b
~ ·i
... .~· ~ ~ -e""'10;: ,
t iI
i Dry .slrengt~ D,lale' Toug.hness i
§ N
i crllshing I ( ,fey (cOnSlSle_nC y I
.;;; :
·~
~ : character- I rehack·an .
j
near plastic '
'"';) ..;:: § i iSllCS 0 s a mg limit} !
'is § ~ ~ !~-.-._--- - - - _- - - -- ----. ----~i-· - --tTnorgan1CSiTtSaJ1a very
hne sands I
-t:!
.~ ~ ~
~ ~ E
Ji
~ g~
"':l i
: No.ne to
sllgbt
QUick to
slow t None;
J
ML
I rock flour, Sllty or clayey
I fine sands with slight plasticity
I Give typical name~ indicate degree
an d character of plasticity.
amount and maximum size of
N
~
~
I 60
MC~lUh
Companng :SOlIs /llequal hquid limIt /
]~ ~
:; ; - - - . - - - - - -:-- .---------- ------··1----- -+rnorganlcCTiys oTTOw lomedlUm
I to II\0ne to very Medium ; CL CI I plastlc,tr' gravelly clays, sandy 1 coarse grains: colour in wet con
~I
i 50 Toughnen And dry strenglh increase p~'
~~ ~ ~ ~~~
i dition, odour if any, local or
~~ , __. ~----~~---L---~------ 1- ~ r clays, Sl ty c(av_~..!....~~lay~_ _.._: geological nam e, and other pert
\Ooolth incre.sing plaslU;lty index
, ;
~:C-~
I Slight to ~ SI i ht sr I Organic silts and organic silt- i inent descriptive inform ation, and
j
40
iC117
I
i
1
~6-
t:: -" 1__ mediu~_
[
L
~w_ _ ~ I! __ ·~·_?--=-· .i_~·I.~~~ I~=~~_~~~~ __ 1 __ sym bol in parentheses
~. 30
.
§ j;;§
~J1~0;::,
j
SI' 1
mIg~t to ! __ .. Slow to__
edl~~_-+
' 0 t..
Slig'"t to
_~~
II MH
f-~-~-~~_------:-
I Inorganic slits, micaceous or
dictomaceous fine sandy or I
J_.2~l!Y _Si>ili0!a~tic-~iI.~s-----'-.-1
For undisturbed soils add infor
mation on structure, stratif~
"
>
£ 20
1 Y OH
_~I
i __.. icatlon, consistency and undis
~
§] ~"'"l High to very ~ N ! H h i l l Inoq~anic clays of high turbed and rem oulded states.
~ -i CL
O
i
~--:",f-ediu~lo ~o-;:;; ,~~;~yt--Slign~';- --'O~';'-~i~-;;Iay;~r;;;~~ji~~-'
II'
10
~~t , high : One Ig CH plasticity. fat clays moisture and drainage conditlOr.s ~o, I, MH
i
ML
; ,- Example 0
_~.+
I
I
_. high !
l -
high. :
~L-.~
medium .
Readily identified by colour, o d o u r :

OH i high plasticity
,_ .__ __,_ _,..._ .. .
.
_
.
~ Clayey silt, brown. sl.lghtly plastic
sm all percentage of fine sand

"
iiI Hl ~O 40 50 60
Llquld [unit
70 gO 90 I ()Q
spongy feel and frequently by fibrou.'i Pt ! Peat and other highly organic sOlls
numerous vertical root holes firm PllU~ICI[.Y
chart
Highly organic soils I
and dry in places; loess, (ML) for Liltloratory Cb.,slfleatton of fine grained .lOlls
__ - - - l ~~~_~~~.__. 1_ I ---------- - ---- ---
SAB 2712/ SAM 3722 \ 1
hlcnltvnf
• UTM
" . . .. Civil E~gincetillg
UNIYERSlTl TEKHOlOGI MALAVSlA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE GEOLOGY & ROCK MECHANICS
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWERS ALL QUESTIONS IN SECTION A & SECTION B.
2. USE SEPARATE ANSWER BOOKLET FOR EACH SECTIONS.
WARNING!
the study.

SECTION A: GEOLOGY
J
You are required to answer all the questions in SECTION A.
Ql. The following data were measured during a field work on an exposed rock
mass.
Joint Dip direction/dip angle Joint Dip direction/dip
no. no. angle
I 70°/35° 8 200°/35°
2 75°/40° 9 190°/30°
3 70°/40° 10 200°/30°
4 65°/35° 11 190°/30°
5 70°/45° 12 200°/40°
6 60°/35° 13 190°/35°
7 70°/30° 14 190°/40°
a) Based on the given infonnation, plot the stereographic projection.
(3 marks)
b) How many joint sets are there altogether?
(1 marks)
c) Based on the pattern, obtain the great circles of the poles.
(2 marks)
d) What kind of potential failure might happen at the intersection of great circle?
(2 marks)
e) If an excavation work is proposed on the rock mass, in which direction should

you recommend (for stability or cost saving?).
(2 marks)
f) State one reason for your answer in (e).
(3 marks)
SAB 2712/ SAM 3722 \ 3
Q2. Effect of weatherin~ in tro~ic~ c\\matt \~ v~ U\fftltUtfmm ~fu~l ~\\m~t~~i
thus, when designing an engineerin~ structure certain issues need to be

considered.
a) In what sense does the weathering profile in tropical climate unique as
compared to other climates?
(3 marks)
b) Explain how to classify different weathering zones in rock mass?
(4 marks)
c) Explain why the presence of joint sets in a rock mass can increase its
rate of chemical weathering?
(2 marks)
d) Describe the formation of cavity in limestone area.
(5 marks)
e) Rock weathering problems may affect rock engineering characteristics

and also construction activities associated with that rock'. Explain and
evaluate on the issues and how to overcome them.
(6 marks)
SAB 2712/ SAM 3722 \ 4
Q3. The engineering properties of rock mass depend on a number of factors.
a) Describe three (3) critical factors that influence the engineering

properties of rock mass.
(4 marks)
b) Evaluate the problems faced in construction when a boulder is found at

a site.
(5 marks)
c) Name one type of discontinuity/weakness plane that can be found in

granitic rock mass? Give a brief account why this weakness plane
could present in this rock type?
(4 marks)
d) Why bedding planes are a common structural discontinuities in clastic

sedimentary rocks?
(3 marks)
e) State the main differences between joint and fault?
(2 marks)
SAB 2712/ SAM 372215
SECTION B: ROCK MECHANICS
Q4. Types of laboratory tests on rock samples are normally classified as (i) Index
and Indirect Strength Tests, and (ii) Direct Strength Tests. These classifications
are based on the nature of tests and type of data derived from the test.
(a) For the name of test listed in Table Q4 below, indicate the
classification of the tests as either (i) Index and Indirect Strength Tests,
or (ii) Direct Strength Tests?
(2 marks)
Table Q4: Classification oflaboratory tests

No Name of test Classification of test
1 Schmidt Hammer
2 Sonic Velocity
3 Brazilian
4 Uniaxial Compression
(b) Explain why the data on rebound number (R) obtained from Rebound
(Schmidt) Hammer test on rock sample is termed and index property of
the rock sample?
(2 marks)
(c) If rebound number (R) for rock sample X is 40 and rock sample Y is 32,
which sample exhibits a higher surface compressive strength?
(2 marh)
(d) For uniaxial compression test (VCT) with axial/vertical strain

measurement, name 2 (two) fundamental rock properties that can be
obtained from its stress-strain curve?
(2 marks)
SAB 2712/ SAM 372216
Q5. Most of laboratory tests data represent material properties of small rock
samples and therefore, cannot be used directly in designing an engineering
structure associated with in situ rock mass. Certain factors (e.g. Factor of
safety (FOS) and Strength Reduction Factor (SRF» need to be imposed on this
data so that it represents the mass properties of the in situ rock body more
appropriately. Answer the following questions:
(a) Name a parameter used to describe the discontinuous nature and quality
of in situ rock mass and what type of discontinuity is used to quantify
this parameter?
(2 marks)
(b) For an in situ rock displaying few joint sets, explain why its mass
strength is lower than its material strengths?
(3 marks)
(c) For the rock properties listed in Table Q5 below, indicate whether it is
mass or material properties?
(3 marks)
Table Q5: Mass and material properties

No Rock properties Mass or Material properties
1 Rock Quality Designation
(RQD)
2 Young's modulus
3 Weathering Zone
4 Velocity from PUNDIT test
5 Thickness of bedding planes
6 Volumetric joints
SAB 2712/ SAM 3722 \ 7
Q6. Propagation velocity of seismic/primary wave (V) depends on the state of rock
through which it propagates. The V tends to be higher in intact (solid) rock
and slower in discontinuous rock. It is due to the difference between the V
obtained from laboratory sonic velocity test and field seismic survey are
frequently used to estimate Rock Quality Designation (RQD) of a rock mass.
Typical primary wave velocity data obtained from laboratory tests (V L) and
field assessments (V F) is shown in Table Q6a. The appearance of the in situ
rock mass where core sample is obtained for the laboratory test is shown in
Figure Q6b. Answer the following questions.
(a) Name the type of discontinuity in rock that is used in RQD calculation,
and what characteristic of this discontinuity is measured in the
calculation?
(2 marh)
(b) Based on the primary wave data as listed in Table Q6a, calculate the
RQD value (%) for rock masses in Panel A and B?
(2 marh)
Table Q6a: Field and laboratory primary wave velocity

Panel/core sample Average primary wave velocity m/s
VF VL
Panel A / Core sample A 1980 2020
Panel B / Core sample B 2000 2040
(c) Based on data in Table Q6a, explain why velocity of the primary wave
in the in situ rock mass (V F) is always lower than in the rock sample
(Vd?
(3 marh)
(d) For a jointed rock mass shown in Figure Q6a, calculate its RQD value
(%) using volumetric joint count method?
(3 marh)
SAB 2712/ SAM 372218
I
f- 200 500 -i------I-- 3JO -I
~160 ! 750 ~901
r- 200t-+- 430 280 ----+- 90 1
Figure Q6b: Joint spacing and orientation for 1 m 3 of the in situ rock mass
Q7. Excavation in weathered and jointed rock mass always requires installation of
rock stabilisation methods. These stabilisation methods include rock
reinforcement and rock support system, and each system delivers a different
stabilising effect. Answer the following questions:
(a) In terms of installation procedure, describe briefly the main difference

between rock reinforcement and rock support system?
(2 marks)
(b) For each mode of instability listed in Table Q7a below, recommend
one type of stabilisation method to improve the stability of the
associated rock engineering structure?
(3 marks)
SAB 2712/ SAM 372219
Table Q7a: Modes of instability and stabilisation methods

Factors leading to modes of Suitable stabilisation method
instability
Seeping of surface run-off water
into slope material which creates
high pore-water pressure
Low shear strength ofjoints which
lead to sliding of unstable blocks
(few m3 in size) at a slope face
Loosening of small key rock
blocks (less than 0.2 m3) on a
tunnel walls which may lead to
tunnel instability ~
(c) Figure Q7b shows a rectangular shape tunnel excavated in a stratified

sedimentary rock. Due to the varying thickness of the beddings (hi and
h 2), bed separation is expected to occur in the tunnel roof. For this roof
condition, explain how rock bolting helps to minimise separation
between bed hi and h2?
(3 marks)
Rectangular
shaped tunnel
W= 12m
Figure Q7b: Rectangular shape tunnel in stratified rock
(d) If the weight of bed hi in Figure 2 is 2000 kN per m run and the tensile
strength of 20 mm ~ rock bolt is 150 kN, calculate the number of bolt
required to avoid bed separation from occurring? Assume sagging
occurs along 200 m length of the tunnel and FOS for effective
suspension of rock bolt is 1.2?
(3 marh~
SAB 2712/ SAM 3722\10
Q8. A circular shaped tunnel at depth of 600 m below ground surface has been
proposed in a granite rock mass. The rock properties and other related
parameters are listed in Table Q8. For the associated calculations, the rock
mass is assumed to be intact and continuous (no weakness planes are present),
and stresses are directly proportional to induced strains. Answer the following
questions:
Table Q8: Parameters and equations
Item/parameters Value/equations
Poisson's ratio of granite, U 0.25
Vertical or overburden stress, o'v(MPa) yxh
Horizontal stress, O"h (MPa) [u/(l - u)] x o"v
Average DeS of granite rock samples from laboratory 120 MPa
test
(a) If the unit weight of the in situ rock is 26 kN/m3 , calculate the expected
vertical stress (0"v) and horizontal stress (O"h) acting on the proposed
tunnel at that depth?
(2 marks)
(b) The value of o"v and O"h calculated in (a) above indicates that these
stresses are not of equal value. If tunnel shape is the most critical factor
for stability, recommend the best shape to cater for the differences in the
0" v and O"h?
(2 marks)
(c) There are 2 options available for the diameter of the proposed tunnel, i.e.
4 m and 6 m. Between the 2 options, which one would be the best option
for the stability of this circular tunnel? Explain your answer.
(3 marks)
(d) If the in situ granite mass is highly jointed and discontinuous what would
you expect the value of the DeS for the in situ rock mass (with reference
to the DeS value shown in Table Q8 above)? Explain why would you
expect such a value?
(3 marks)
SAB 2712/ SAM 3722 \ 11
(e) Besides the diameter, give another option to reduce the effect of the
vertical stress (O'v) acting on the tunnel? Explain how this option helps to
reduce the effect of O'vo
(3 marks)
SAB 2712/ SAM 3722 \ 12
NAME
NO le/ PASSPORT: ..
SAB 2722 \ 1
UTM
F;lcult~ of
Ci\'il Engineering
UNIVERsm T£KNOLOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAB2722
COURSE GEOTECHNICS I
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWERS ALL THREE (3) QUESTIONS.
2. ASSUME APPROPRIATE CONDITIONS OR PARAMETERS FOR ANY
AMBIGUITIES ARISE IN THE QUESTIONS.
WARNING!
Students caught copying/cheating during the examination will be liabLe for
disciplinary actions and the facuLty may recommend the student to be expelledfrom
the study.
This examination question paper consists of (9) printed pages only.

SAB 2722[2
Ql. (a) State TRUE or FALSE for the following statements.
i). Westergaard equation assumes no lateral displacement in soil.

ii). Osterberg chart is used for the determination of stress due to external
loading from embankment of any irregular shapes.
iii). The overburden pressure is always more than the vertical stress
increment due to the external loading.
iv). The lateral passive earth pressure for undrained soil is equal to the
lateral at-rest earth pressure.
v). Lateral pressure of water is not equal to vertical pressure of water.
(5 marks)
(b) A vertical gravity retaining wall of 12 m high, is to retain a clayey sand

for which Cu = 25 kN/m2, $u = 15° and the bulk unit weight Yb = 19
kN/m 3 . The soil surface is horizontal and level with the top of the wall.
The water table is horizontal and level with the bottom of the wall.
Determine the magnitude and direction of the minimum force on the
wall for a trial wedge whose slip surface rises from the bottom of the
wall at e of 70° to the horizontal. Assume appropriate angle of wall
friction, <5 and draw appropriate force polygon..
(12 marks)
(c) Figure Q1b shows a 8 m high sea wall at a location where 4 m of sand
overlies a deep clay deposit. The water table in the soil is at the same
level as the sea level on the other side of the wall.
... W.T.
Sand
Sea Water
r
FIGURE 91b
Clay
SAB 272213
Tests have been performed to determine the relevant soil properties.

3
For the sand, Ydry = 17 kN/m 3, Ysat = 19 kN/m , and a series of shear box
tests gave the results of c = 0 kPa and ~ = 32°. While for the clay of
saturated unit weight of 16.5 kN/m3 , undrained unconsolidated test (with
pore water measurement) produced c' = 10 kPa and ~' = 20° and
consolidated undrained test gave Cu of 30 kPa.
By selecting appropriate given shear strength parameters, sketch the
lateral earth pressure diagram and then determine the total lateral active
force for the long term condition of the earth retaining wall.
(17 marks)
(34 marks)
Q2 (a) The following data (Table Q2a) was obtained from an

Oedometer test for a clay soil sample:
TABLE Q2a
Effective Stress, cr'(kN/m 2) Void ratio (e)
0 1.01
25 0.98
50 0.95
100 0.91
200 0.86
400 0.82
800 0.77
I. Plot an appropriate graph from this data and determine the

compressibility index, Ce .
(9 marks)
11. Use the data obtained in (a)(i) to obtain the consolidation

settlement for 4 m thick layer of the clay when the average
effective stress changes from 220 kN/m 2 to 360 kN/m2 .
(8 marks)
SAB 272214
(b) The coefficient of consolidation, Cv for clay was found to be

2
0.955 mm /min. The final consolidation settlement estimated
for 5 m thick layer of this clay was calculated at 280 mm.
Assuming there are permeable layers, both above and below,
and a uniform initial excess pore-water pressure distribution;
Calculates the time for:
1. 90% primary consolidation
(8 marks)
11. A primary consolidation settlement of 100 mm
(8 marks)
(33 marks)
Time factor
0.2 04 0.6 0.8 1.0
100 ,..---r---..--.......--,---..,......-""'T"'-----r--.---....,--.....,
80
oS!. For curve m=l .0

c U (%) T
0 60
ro
"0 10 0.008
"6 20 0.031
<Il
C
30 0.071
0
U
40 0.126
a 50 0197
Q)
40 60 0.287
~ 70 0.403
OJ
Q) 80 0.567
0 90 0.848
20
Permeable
m= l;,
o L.....------'
Impermeable
FIGUREQ2b
SAB 272215
Q3 (a) Explain short tenn failure, in tenn of shear strength. Give one
example to support the explaination.
(3 marks)
(b) A cutting in a cohesive soil has a slope angle of 35° and a vertical
height of 8 m. Using Taylor's stability method, detennine the factor
of safety against shear failure for the following cases:
(i) Cu = 40 kN/m 2 ; ~u = ·0; y= 18 kN/m 3 ; D is large
(ii) C u = 40 kN/m2 ; ~u = 0; y= 18 kN/m 3 ; Dis 1.5
(iii) Discuss the results obtained on b(i) and b(ii) above.
(15 marks)
(c) A cutting in a saturated clay is inclined at a slope of 1 vertical:1.5

horizontal and has a vertical height of 10m. The bulk unit weight of the
soil is 18.5 kN/m3 and its undrained cohesion is 40 kN/m2 . Detennine
the factors of safety against immediate shear failure along the slip circle
shown in Fig. Q3(c) for the conditions as follows:
(i) Ignoring the tension crack.

(Given: area of slip mass, A = 102.1 m2, sector angle, e = 84.06°,
moment arm, d = 6.54 m)
(ii) Allowing for dry tension crack.
(Given: area of slip mass, A = 71.64 m2 , sector angle, e = 67.44°,
moment arm, d = 5.86 m)
(iii) Allowing for tension crack, full of water.
(15 marks)
(33 marks)
SAB 272216
0.19 ':- -...;2---......--""i3: . - - . . , . - -...4 t---,
,,
..
(l)
.D
E
~
c O. '31--1--~I.---+----hM-.l--- ....- _....._ _...
~ 3 4
depth factor; 0
:0
/II
lii 0.12 U---I--I---J,..4--~-+----I
0.11 ~
Case A: use full lines for N
and shon-dash lines
O. 10 I---jr..-_+-_-I-~_ _I--I for n
0.09f----+-I---+---4---4's(J7f
Case B: toe circles only.
Use long-dash lines for
0.08 '-_--lL..._...._ _-l.......
1 2
FIGUREQ3a Taylor's stability number charts

SAB 272217
0.30 --------....-----,~----~-___,r__-__r--"'T
0.25
,-,:= I,> :r:

0.20
<:
...111
.D
0.181
0 = co
....
-
0.15
E
~
c
~ 0.10
:zj
is
U'J
0_05
o 10 30 40 50 60 70 80 90
Slope angle. B (degreesl
FIGURE Q3b Taylor's stability number chart

E
~
V
II
II
00
/
N
r-
N
!Xl
~ (,j
~/
rzJ ~
-
;;:J
/) ~
~
//
SAB 272219
EQUATIONS:
W=Areax r
Cc = 0.009(LL -10)
MI = ~log(a/lao')Ho
1 +e o
MI = ~ log(a 'Ia ')H

1 + eo I 0 0
C C
Ml = -'-log(a/lao')Ho+ -c-log(a,'/a/)Ho
l+e o l+e o
o
z
u
.i::
+.I
to
~
-I
Q)
E
to
Z
SAB 371211
facultv (.f
UTM
UNMRSITI TEKHOLOGl MALA VStA
Onl f::ngltlmiflg
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE GEOTECHNICS II
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
2. DETACH PAGE 9 AND SUBMIT TOGETHER WITH YOUR ANSWER
SCRlPT(S)
3. USE Yw = 10 kN/m3 WHERE NECESSARY
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 371212
Q1. (a) No specific regulations are to be adhered to in determining the spacing

of boreholes for any proposed project. Describe (not more than 100
words) how you would determine the spacing for a large project area
with the anticipation that the soil strata are irregular in terms of
thickness, length and width.
(5 marks)
(b) Explain briefly (not more than 100 words) two reasons why site visit is
considered an important aspect in site investigation program.
(5 marks)
(c) Refer to the attached borehole log in FIGURE Q1(c). At depth of 22.5m,
what l7/40mm means and how the SPT-N value should be reported?
(5 marks)
(d) Information on the position of bedrock or supporting soil is very

important in estimating the pile length. How would you estimate the
required length of pile based on the results of Standard Penetration Test?
(5 marks)
(e) List five sources for acquiring information and preliminary evaluation of
a proposed project site.
(5 marks)
(t) Describe the equipment and the procedures required to obtain a good
quality undisturbed sample for laboratory testing. How do you evaluate
if an undisturbed sample can be used for laboratory testing?
Why samples obtained by split spoon sampler in association with SPT
test cannot be used for shear strength testing?
(5 marks)
SAB 371213
Borehole No. : BH 1 I Date StaTted : 21105/2005 I Coordinate, E: I Final Depth: 28.7Bm I Boring Dia. 76.20mm
Reduced Level' I Date Completed: 22/0512005 I N: I Final WL 500 m I Typ-e~O'-f-B-o-ri--ng---R-\\~IB-----j
n.plh Sample Standard I'clletralion Test
Soil [)c,cription
From
R.L & O,,'lh Reco,''') 7S 75 75 75 7S 75 'N' Remarks
(m) Litholo!:)' (m) Ralio mm mm mm mm mtTl mm Value
J801~5~
Stiff, yellowish brown with reddish brown WI. P81 \2.00
mottled, sandy SILT VIi D9 10

r.tiJ 12.45
~ P91 13.S0
mDIO 10
n.95
/1'.
1m ••
Dense, light yel10w with reddish brown mottled ~ POIOI

15.00
10
J7SI~SO 10 II
') \I
51 ty SAND 15,45
Ptll 16.50 380'450 8 8 II 12

DI2 10
16.95
,18 COm
..•
/;9.'
Hard, brownish yellow with pink mottled, sandy ~It~ 18.00

to
JJOI~SO \0 \2
SILT 18.45
IP:
Hard, brownish yellow, sandy SILT PDI 19.50 3201~SO 6 9 10

014 10
19,95
.ZI.OOm
Pl41 21.00 3901~SO 7 7
Medium dense, brownish yel1ow, silty SAND
DIS to
21.45
PIS! 22.50 9 16 17/

016 10 40tmn
22.92
FIGURE Ol(c)
SAB 3712 \ 4
Q2 (a) Refer to FIGURE Q2(a) to answer parts (i) and (ii) using Terzaghi's
bearing capacity equation. The footing was proposed to be constructed
in a layer of saturated clay with the following properties.
3 3
Ysat =20 kN/m , Yb = 18 kN/m
cu = 30 kN/m 2 , c' = 30 kN/m2 ,
I\>u = 0° and 1\>' = 15°.
Assuming the ground water table was at the ground surface and the
safety factor, FS = 2.5:
(i) Determine the nett allowable load (designed load), P y under

total stress analysis (undrained condition).
(7 marks)
(ii) Calculate the nett allowable load (designed load), P y under

effective stress analysis (drained condition).
(7 marks)
(iii) Explain briefly when and why total stress analysis and effective
stress analysis need to be considered.
(4 marks)
Note: Terzaghi's bearing capacity equation, qu = 1.3cNc + qNq + O.4yBNy

Use TABLE Q2 for Terzaghi's bearing capacity factors
Ground surface
.....-"""'"
" """", .........
""""""
.""" '" "" """
" ",...
.",,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,
1.5m
I """"""""""".
.'\"""""""""""""""~
,"""""""""""
I """""""""""""""'".
.""""""""""",
.l- ....J """""""""",,,,'
2mx2m .""""""""""",.
."""""",,,,,,,,,,,,
.,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,...
'. """",,'", .....
FIGURE 02(a)
SAB 371215
TABLEQ2 Terzaghi's bearing capacity factors
<:p Nc Nq Ny
0 5.7 1.0 0.0
1 6.0 1.1 0.1
2 6.3 1.2 0.1
3 6.6 1.3 0.2
4 7.0 1.5 0.3
5 7.3 1.6 0.4
6 7.7 1.8 0.5
7 8.2 2.0 0.6
8 8.6 2.2 0.7
9 9.1 2.4 0.9
10 9.6 2.7 1.0
11 10.2 3.0 1.2
12 10.8 3.3 1.4
13 11.4 3.6 1.6
14 12.1 4.0 1.9
15 12.9 4.4 2.2
16 13.7 4.9 2.5
17 14.6 5.5 2.9
18 15.5 6.0 3.3
19 16.6 6.7 3.8
20 17.7 7.4 4.4
21 18.9 8.3 5.1
22 20.3 9.2 5.9
23 21.7 10.2 6.8
24 23.4 11.4 7.9
25 25.1 12.7 9.2
26 27.1 14.2 10.7
27 29.2 15.9 12.5
28 31.6 17.8 14.6
29 34.2 20.0 17.1
30 37.2 22.5 20.1
31 40.4 25.3 23.7
32 44.0 28.5 28.0
33 48.1 32.2 33.3
34 52.6 36.5 39.6
35 57.8 41.4 47.3
36 63.5 47.2 56.7
37 70.1 53.8 68.1
38 77.5 61.5 82.3
39 86.0 70.6 99.8
40 95.7 81.3 121.5
SAB 371216
Q2 (b) A square footing as shown in FIGURE Q2(b) was designed to be

constructed in a SAND layer to carry an allowable load, Qall =
2674kN. The ground water table was far below the ground surface.
The soil properties obtained from the site investigation report are as
follows:
As an independent geotechnical checker, you are required to examine

the design and give comments on discrepancies if any. Use Terzaghi's
bearing capacity equation with a factor of safety, FS = 3.0.
(12 marks)
Note: Terzaghi's bearing capacity equation, qu = 1.3cNc + qNq + O.4yBNy

Use Table Q2 for Terzaghi's bearing capacity factors
Ground surface
/~}t:~:~·.\ .
2m
I I
2mx2m
FIGURE Q(2b)
SAB 3712 \ 7
Q3 (a) A 600 mm diameter concrete pile was driven at a site as shown in

FIGURE Q3(a). The embedded length was 12m with the pile tip rested
on the surface of the medium dense sand. No groundwater was
encountered during driving. Assume sufficient pile settlement to
mobilize the tip resistance.
(i) Calculate the ultimate compression force, Qu that can be

carried by the pile.
(8 marks)
(ii) Calculate the ultimate compression force, Qu that can be

carried by the pile if the ground water table rises to 2m below
the ground surface.
(IO marks)
Ground surface
Pile diameter = 600 mm
Clay,
12m Yb = 16.5 kN/m3
Ysat= 17.6kN/m3
Cu ave = 35 kPa
a = 1.0
Medium dense sand

(J' = 35° , Nq • = 120
FIGURE Q3(a)
SAB4713!1
UTM
Fal'lIlt\ of
Civil Eneinmin::
UNIVERSm TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING DESIGN
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWERS FOUR (4) QUESTIONS ONLY WITH AT LEAST ONE (1)
QUESTION FROM EACH SECTION.
2. USE DIFFERENT ANSWER BOOK FOR EACH SECTION.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB471312
SECTION A
Q1. (a) What is the basic objective of the various soil improvement procedures,
and how the stabilizing additives accomplish this objective?
(6 marks)
(b) Illustrate three (3) ground improvement schemes that can be applied to
improvise the strength of the soft soil.
(9 marks)
(c) For a subsurface condition of thick weak cohesive soil deposit, soil
improvement using consolidation procedure such as vacuum
consolidation or surcharging with or without vertical drain, is preferred
over other techniques for deep ground improvement such as dynamic
deep consolidation, vibroplacement, dynamic replacement and stone
column. Justify the statement.
(10 marks)
(25 marks)
Q2. (a) Give three examples each for a retaining wall related to cut and fill area.
(6 marks)
(b) In designing a retaining wall, list the steps that are required to establish a
successful completion of the designing procedures.
(7 marks)
(c) A 6 m high Reinforced Earth® wall is to be constructed with horizontal

backfill and will have no surcharge on the backfill. A granular soil with a
unit weight of 17.12 kN/m 3 and an angle of internal friction of 34° will be
used as a backfill material. The steel strips width, vertical spacing,
horizontal spacing and allowable stress are 75mm, O.3m, 1.0m and 138 x
SAB4713\3
103 kN/m2 , respectively. The factor of safety against pullout is 1.5.

Calculate the required total length and thickness of the strip.
(12 marks)
(25 marks)
SECTION B
Q3. (a) Why applications of piezometric pore water measurements are

important in civil engineering?
(3 marks)
(b) Describe the differences between an observation well and an open

standpipe piezometer. What are the limitations of these two
measurement techniques compared to the other types of piezometer?
(6 marb~
(c) Sketch the possible layout of instrumentation for monitoring progress

of consolidation beneath a test embankment when vertical drains have
been installed. Make a list of the suitable instruments and their
functions.
(9 marks)
(d) FIGURE Q3 shows long-term piezometric readings at three different

depths of clay before the application of stress increment, ,1q at the
ground surface. Using the information from this figure, sketch the pore
pressure distribution, u of the ground
(i) immediately after the loading,
(ii) the pore pressure during the intervening transient condition, and
(iii) the final equilibrium pore pressure.
(7 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB4713\4
Fill ........ ....

Sand
.......
Clay
:.
""'"'"'
Gravel
FIGURE 03
SAB4713 \ 5
Q4. (a) Describe the principal differences between Open Face Tunnelling and
Closed Face Tunnelling.
(8 marks)
(b) The construction of bored tunnels in soft ground inevitably causes

ground movements. Surface settlement data in one of the transverse
sections of a single tunnel construction was recorded and is shown
below. Assuming the green-jield settlement trough data follows the
typical Gaussian distribution curve, calculate the estimated volume loss
from this tunnelling activity.
Distance from
tunnel centre -18 -12 -8 -4 -1 2 6 10 16
line (m)
Settlement
0.7 3.6 7.4 11.3 12.9 12.5 9.4 5.3 1.3
(mm)
(14 marks)
(c) Name the common design methods for excavations in rock.
(3 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB4713 \ 6
SECTIONC
Q5. An earth dam has been proposed to be constructed for the purpose of supplying
water for the population at a new township in lohor Bahru area. The new
township is expected to be opened in a year's time. As a geotechnical
engineer, you are required to:
(a) List and discuss the necessary steps required to undertake the job that
include (but not restricted to) a thorough site investigation of the site area,
analytical works on the proposed earth dam structure and the geotechnical
instrumentation and maintenance programmes to be carried out so as the
proposed earth dam is economically and safely designed, constructed and
maintained for the said purpose.
(12 marks)
(b) Propose the dimension of the earth dam and carry out a slope stability
analysis on the upstream slope of the proposed dam, based on the critical
condition of rapid drawdown.
(8 marks)
(c) Illustrate and discuss the methods to be deployed for preventing failures
of the proposed earth dam due to leakage and piping that may occur
through the foundation soil.
(5 marks)
(25 marks)
NOTE:
1. The soil profile of the proposed location, obtained from the

preliminary soil investigation work is as shown in FIGURE Q5.
2. You need to use CHART Q5 and also assume some typical soil
parameters in order for you to answer Q5(b).
SAB4713!7
Ground level
........
. .... . . . . . . .
.
Sm Dense Sand
Groundwater level IJ
10m Dense Sand
Bedrock
(Igneous origin)
FIGURE 05
Soil Profile of the proposed location of earth dam construction
(Not to Scale)
SAB4713!8
.. " "' :
(a) 'Y~ = 0.0125
'.'
(b) --L 0.025

yH
SAB4713 \ 9
•.• J'"4-t--....+-t-f-+-+-+-I
..0 1-4-4--+--..+ -H-+-+-+-I
t .• t'-Ot-++~t-t-++-+-I
... LO H~+-+-f-'-t"""+-+-I
,~ -+......-t- +-+-I
1 0 H-+-+-+-:H-:+o f'o-f
,., U ~-++,.....~-++H
! 1.0 "
l .:0 ol""'P'ot~*..,..+-'to:-+-t-"!f
• ....
...... ~ ..
I,"
...... '~""'
.........
......
_
i'
l.o .~
. 0
0.' H-r-t-+"'-o1A-+~"
,..
•••••
.. 0 H-+-+-...p.,.IH
a•• H-+++HH-H~
..
f:
-. '.0 1rI,""+~-+-H"""'~~
HH-rl--+-H-+-i-H··
,.
.
... 1 ........ H-f'ld-J-H-++H
!:~ r-'l~...p~r:-f~~~
I·' t-1"4'-t--r-P-'1~_""
I. 0 H~+-+-f-4-+40-0~
...i H'-t"'+.....H~~'""·4~
"
(c)
LyH 0.05
CHART Q5 Morgenstern Stability Charts for Rapid Drawdown Analysis

of Homogeneous Earthfill Dam
SAB4713 I 10
EQUATIONS
Vs = ~ (2n) i Smax
SAB 4733/ SAM 5733/ SAA 4734 \ 1
Faeul!\of
UTM
UNIVERSIT1 TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA
Civil En~in('ettl1~
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE FOUNDATION ENGINEERING
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OKTOBER 2009
1. ANSWERS ALL QUESTIONS.
2. USE SEPARATE ANSWER BOOK FOR EACH SECTION.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 4733/ SAM 5733/ SAA 473412
SECTION A
Ql. (a) Why do you need a pile load test? Define load failure as mentioned by the
JKR specification. A load test result shows that the test pile fails. As an
engineer please advice the contractor what to do with the situation.
(7 marks)
(b) A fine grain saturated soil was encountered at the construction site.
The site shows that pile foundation is recommended. From your point
of view what will be the problem anticipated and how would you
overcome this problem.
(8 marks)
(c) Why efficiency should be applied for group pile? A group pile
arrangement of 3 x 3 is embedded in the saturated homogeneous clay
having undrained shear strength of 95.8kN/m2 • Given the pile diameter
is 406mm, spacing of pile 8S0mm and pile length of 18.Sm, find the
allowable load carrying capacity of the pile group. Use FOS == 3.
Given:
LQu = nt n 2(Qp + Qs)
0< = 0.5
Assume N c = 9.0 for both single and group evaluation.
(10 marks)
Q2. (a) How do you consider the terminal length of pile for pile to length and
pile to set condition and what do you understand by the term 'false
setting'?
(8 marks)
(b) Normally for pile embedded in sand a critical depth will determine the
performance of skin fiction resistance. What do you understand with
the critical depth and show it with diagram between depth against unit
friction.
(8 marks)
SAB 4733/ SAM 5733/ SAA 473413
(c) A steel pile (HP 360 x 1.491) is driven by a single acting hammer. The
section area is 19.4 x 10-3 m2 . Given the rated energy of hammer (HE)
is 81.4Kn.m, ram weight(W R) of 89kN, length of pile (L) is 25m,
coefficient of restitution (n) is 0.35, pile cap weight (W p) of 2.9kN,
hammer efficiency (E) of 0.84, fall height (h) 75cm and number of
blow for the last 25mm penetration is 8. Estimate the pile ultimate
capacity using Modified ENR formula and Danish formula. Which
value are you going to usein design? Ep = 207 x 106 kN/m 2 and
C=0.254cm ifh in em. Use FOS = 6.
2
EWRh WR+n W p
Modified ENR : Qu = .- - _.. . . .
S+C WR+Wp
(ERE)
Danish Formula: Qu
(9 marks)
SAB 4733/ SAM 5733/ SAA 4734 \ 4
SECTIONB
Q3. A development layout of a Hotel Resort and Waterfront Complex is as shown

in Figure B1. There are 6 boreholes being carried out during the site
investigation works. The details of boreholes land 2 are as shown in Figure
B2. The construction of the Waterfront Complex will be carried out near the
shore line with a series of circular cellular cofferdam to provide a dry working
area.
(a) A 4 stories exhibition hall will be construction on a rigid raft foundation. The
size of the building is 20m by 15m. The spacing of column is generally not
more than 7m apart. The total loads carried by the columns are 8500kN.
Decide on the suitable type of raft foundation for the exhibition hall. You may
use the information from BHl for the assessment of soil condition. Please
justify on the choice of raft foundation used and your may illustrate your
answer with the aid of diagram.
(10 marks)
(b) The main columns of a 20 stories Hotel Tower will be supported by a 1.5m
diameter drilled shaft foundations. Each drilled shaft foundation will carry a
load of 5000kN. Decide on the suitable depth of the drilled shaft foundation
with a limiting settlement of not more than 25mm. You may use BH2 to
obtain the soil profile and soil strength based on SPT number. You are
required to do one attempt for the desired depth and give comment on your
answer. Your justification must be based on the allowable bearing capacity
with a maximum settlement of not more than 25mm. (Use Chart Figure B3
and B4 to limit the settlement)
(20 marks)
Information for Drilled Shaft foundation
For sand
p= 1.5 - 0.244z jO.5 (0.25 $; fJ $; 1.2)

SAB 4733/ SAM 5733/ SAA 4734 \ 5
(c) A circular cellular cofferdam of 15m high is to be constructed to provide a dry

working area for the construction of a Waterfront Complex as shown in Figure
B5. Design the width of the cofferdam to satisfy against sliding and
overturning.
Give comments on your answer.
(20 marks)
Information for Cofferdam
FOS (Sliding) = (Pp + FiJI P

Where, P is the total lateral pressure
Pp = passive pressure
Ff= Frictional resistance = W tan (J
Resistance to overturning based on the position of resultant weight.
The overturning moment Mo due to the lateral pressure P is
Mo =Py
where y is the point of application of P above the base
The resisting Moment Mr due to reaction at the base is
Mr = We =yHBe
When Mo=Mn we have
e = Py/yHB
SAB 4733/ SAM 5733/ SAA 473416
.------------
._---------------
---------------------
BH3
-l
BHI
;Xhibiti=-!
• [
Ho~1--
•
L~
-----~.
Ho~1 I Hot.l&
R"t.o...."
B
l wat~r nt "\
Sea
Hall I • Complex
I I BHS
I
~::~r
~ ----------------
---------------
---------------
~
'I II
---------------
--------------
--------------
-------------
------------
------------
-----------
---------_.
-----------
Golf course
:-::;:;:::;:;:::::::::-:
..............
:- ....
~:< ::;::::::jGillJili!.::::·!·:l:.:.::·:l·.U:/::<:}::::: :.«:::::::::::::::::::::::.:. ::-:-:-:-:::
Figure BI: Layout Plan

SAB 4733/ SAM 5733/ SAA 473417
BH 1
Depth SP· N
. . . . .. .... . . . . . . . . . .
1.5 i ... . . . . . . . . . ..
........
3.0 =h3 'L::0:';0:.:'S:.: '¢.:.: :S.:.:i ~tY~s: . : a.:.:n.=.d:. ., "::Yb:...=_1~6...:k~N__/~m~1~, _----~,,;.:;..' -'-'----~r~~
4.5
6.0
7.5 5
9.0 8
10.5 8
12.0
13.5 13 13.5 13
15.0 15 15.0 15
Medium dense to dense sand, Ysal = 18 kN/m 1 ,
16.5 19 16.5 17
18.0 22 18.0 20
19.5 28 19.5 26
21.0 30 21.0 28
22.5 50 22.5 35
24.0 50 24.0 50
25.5 50 25.5 50
Figu re B2: Soil Profile
1.2
1.0 ".--------------
--------- ----
/'
~
<;l
I r/./ ,//","""-
{
/ /,"'
~ (\.8 /
~ ~
]~ ~e /'
~ ~ 0.6 I
~ii)'~~ I
J _ _ _ Range of re~uhs for
delleclion-soflening re,ponse
;:; 04
,~ .
5 Range of results for

- - - deOeclion-hardening re5pon~
- - - - - Trend line
0.0 ":--:'::--::-':--:-''-:---:'-::-:-'---'_-l-_...1..----l'--~
0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2.0
Settlement
('IE»
Diameter or shaft, DJ
Figure B3 : Nonnalized side load transfer vs. settlement for cohesionless soil
(after Reese and O'Neill, 1989)
SAB 4733/ SAM 5733/ SAA 4734 \ 8
20
1.8
1.6
..; 1.4
.,;,
oi,
c
""
<: 'C
'co 1,2
.,.0'" ~'"
."
""c .,.,"
w 1.0
;;;
'2
5 0,8
--Range Qf resuhs
0.6
--- Trend line
.
":
0.4
0,2
\2
Selllelllelll of base
Diameler Qf ba$c. Db
Figure 84 : Normalised base load transfer vs settlement for cohesiveless soil
(after Reese and O'Neill, 1989)
d' d d d d ' d d ' d d ' ~d~d~\l.'~d'

3m
dr,
13m 6m
Ysat = 1800kg/m
3 water"
Excavated area ,cjl =38 0
., ... ..,....,....,.yo...,....,....,....,....,....,.....,....,....".....,.. ....................
~ .~ ,.."..........,....,...."....."..........,.. ......<./'0..,....,...
........ ..,....,...."....."...."...."....,... ...... ..,...,..
.
~-t~... ~-::, . ............ .."...."........... ..,....,....,.
,...,.. ...... ,
,..~.. ' • .1'.
f'"::'~:' :'-:j.-: -'~::t~
--"",,==±=======,...,.-""H:~!~(~ ~~~!~, Ysa' = 1700kg/m'
...........
".",."..
.
...................
,.."'...."'.01'.. .. "' ~ ....

,."• .1.
". .
........................
1'.".rI'.J'.rI'.rI'.",.~
""'
"."."'."."' .. . Silty Sand, cjl =28 0
2m
~: ..~I'~J'~"~rI'.i'.,,..~~
. ..
~
I'_.J'!rI'!.,!.r:.,:?:rI!:
....................-..-
.............................................................
. .- .
....... "."'.,/'..,. "'.,/'."."
............................... "
.
.................................................................
"'
.
.............................................................................
3
Y,at = 1800kg/m
0
B • cjl =38
Figure B5: Circular Cellular Cofferdam Cross-section

SAB 283211
\
urMI
. • •
Etl~lIlt\
.0000E~
UHIVEASITI TEKNOlOGI MALAYSIA
(If
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE HIGHWAY ENGINEERING
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
2. REFERENCES ARE NOT ALLOWED.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 283212
Ql. (a) PG-Grading is the newly adopted grading system for asphalt cement
(bitumen).
i) What does PG 76-22 means?

ii) State three PG-grading tests and their purpose.
(5 marks)
(b) Aggregate gradation influences most of the important properties in

HMA mixes.
i) briefly explain what are the HMA properties affected by

aggregate gradation; and
ii) with the aids of proper sketches show and explain typical
gradations used for HMA mixes.
(10 marks)
(c) Surface dressing (chip seal) and porous pavement are two types of
bituminous surface.
i) with the aids of simple sketches, describe the structure of both

surface dressing and porous pavement; and
ii) list and explain their advantages and disadvantages.
(10 marks)
SAB 283213
Q2. (a) Figure Q2 (a) shows data from Marshall test carried out on ACB28
design mix. Determine the optimum bitumen content of the given mix.
The required parameters for asphaltic concrete are given below.
Paratneter Binder Course

Stability (S) > 8000 N
Flow (F) 2.0 -4.0 mm
Stiffness (S/F) > 2000N/mm
Air Voids in Mix (VTM) 3.0-7.0%
Voids filled with bitumen (VFB) 65 -75 %
The designed mix was laid and compacted and sample of the compacted
layer was cored and taken to the laboratory for assessment. The designed
thickness for the binder course layer is 75mm. Tests on a cored premix
sample yield these results:
Sample thickness 79mm

Mass of sample in air 929.3 g
Mass saturated surface dry 932.8 g
Mass submerged under water 510.2 g
Mass of filter paper before extraction 14.1g
Mass of filter paper after extraction 16.7 g
Mass of extracted aggregate 884.8 g
Check this paving work and material for acceptance according to the
specifications.
(20 marks)
(b) Before compaction on the actual pavement being carried out, the
compaction was done on the trial area known as trial lay. What is trial
lay and explain its importance in pavement works.
(5 marks)
SAB 283214
Q3. (a) Given below are the material, thickness and their corresponding
coefficients used in the design of a recently constructed pavement
which has failed structurally in 2009.
...,..,.",,,,.,,.,,..-,.....,...,,
>1,'(,;::\[
Wearing course Asphaltic Concrete 50 1.00

Binder course Asphaltic Concrete 60 1.00
Road base Wet mix 300 0.32
Sub base Crushed Aggregate 200 0.25
Drainage Layer Sand 150 0.23
The original design data for the particular pavement were:

Average daily traffic in 2004 (ADT) = 7,200
Directional split = 60/40
Percentage of heavy vehicles (Pc) = 20%
Average annual traffic growth rate (r) = 5%
Subgrade CBR = 7%
The road was opened to traffic in 2006.

i) check the adequacy of the designed thickness,
ii) explain your finding,
iii) discuss possible causes for the failure; and
iv) re-design the thickness using the same material if the
previously designed thickness was found to be inadequate.
Design nomograph is attached in Figure Q3 (a), to be returned with the

answer book.
Vo = ADTx 365 x (P/IOO) x Directional Split
Vc = Va [(1 + rl- I] / r
ESA = Vc x e
Vx = Vi (1 + rt
TA' = ajDj + a2D2 + ... + anDn
(20 marks)
(b) Discuss the five major aspects that are major significance in the design
of road in tropical and SUb-tropical countries which have been
emphasized in Road Note 31 design method.
(5 marks)
SAB 2832[5
Q4. (a) Surface drainage system is used to remove water present on the
pavement, shoulder or any other surfaces from flowing onto the
pavement. With a properly labeled sketch (or sketches) show
components of surface drainage, explain what they are, and how they
help removing water from the pavement surfaces.
(10 marks)
(b) Several distresses in flexible pavement can be assessed through visual

assessment of surface conditions. Two of them are surface deformation
and surface defect.
i) Explain the importance of visual assessment to road authorities;

and
ii) Clearly explain types of surface deformation and surface defect
which can be evaluated using this method of assessment.
(10 marks)
(c) Scope of works for road maintenance can be divided into three broad
categories. Discuss these three categories of road maintenance.
(5 marks)
SAB 283216
Q5. (a) A road is being proposed to facilitate a housing development on a scenic

lake. Two alternatives scheme have been suggested. One of the
roadway alignments is to go around the lake and significantly impact a
wetland. The second scheme will also go around the lake and will
slightly impact two wetlands. The following table shows the anticipated
costs for each alternative. Assume the atmual interest rate is 8 percent
and service life of 15 years. All costs are in RM.
i) Draw cash flow diagram for both schemes; and

ii) Detennine which alternative scheme is preferred using equivalent
annual cost (EUAC) and benefit-cost ratio (BCR) analysis.
Annual Annual
Construction Annual Salvage Wetland Roadway
Scheme Costs Maintenance Value Rehab. Costs Lighting Costs
I 300,000 9000 120,000 30000 4500
n 500,000 6000 70,000 10000 7000
(PI F,i,n) = _1_
(l+i)"
(P I A in) = (1 + i)" - I
, , i(l + ir
(F I A,i,n) = (1 +i)" -1
i
(20 marks)
(b) Two types of costs need to be considered in evaluating any

transportation project which are facility cost and road user cost. Briefly
explain elements involved in road user cost.
(5 marks)
SAB 283217
Stability
Density
1260
2.345 I
E 2.340
:::J
• C)
~
1240
1220
~ 2.335
C)
I ~ 1200
~ 2.330 :0
>.
m 1180
~ 2.325 I U5
c:: 1160
a> 2.320
Q 1140
2.315 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0
3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0
Flow VTM
4.50 8.0
I
I
7.0
4.00
E ~ 6.0
E o
3.50 ~ 5.0 •
~
II
u: ;; 4.0
3.00 I
I
3.0
2.50 2.0
3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0
Bitumen Content, % Bitumen Content, %
VFB
Stiffness
80.0
I
450.0
I
75.0 E
I
E 400.0 ~
a:i 70.0 --
C)
~
I.i..
> en 350.0
l/l
65.0 Ql I
c::
:t:
:;:;
300.0
60.0 en
3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0 250.0
3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0
Bitumen Content, %
Bitumen Content, %
Figure Q2 (a)
Note: Please return this figure along with your answer book
SAB 283218
I,.
c
•
B 14
1 • ,.4 12
z
A
5 ,. 11
, • 111 5
E
~
CIJ
W
~
• ~
l
<
I c:i , 11. ClJI 11
~
< CIJ
5 I W
..J CIJ ZI z
w CIJ :.::
C
..J r' • 1.1 w
z a II
5
ex:: ~ ~ :.:: II J:
I-
I a
izr'·,.7
!II
a J: M I
z u
W I- w
Cl l- I' ..J
~
Z
w 21 ~
S
,.
..J
0 o· II 24
!II ~ 0
:::J
CIJ
W 5
, I I' •
S
0 J4
II w
Cl
w II
w II I-
31 aw
15 ex::
41 21
I 4Z ex::
U 0 II
5
a
12
14
•
II
•
4Z
1. CBR =3 u
2. ESA
3. T A for CBR = 3
4. Design CBR
5. Required T A
Figure Q3 (a) Design Nomograph

Note: Please return this figure along with your answer book
SAB 384211
UTM
r.ll"tlln of
(i,;! E~im:ering
UNIVERSm TEKHOLOGI MALAlSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE TRAFFIC ENGINEERING
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER ANY FOUR (4) QUESTIONS ONLY
2. YOU ARE NOT ALLOWED TO REFER TO ANY NOTES
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 384212
Q 1. (a) The characteristics and behaviour of a driver are influenced by three main
factors, i.e. physical, environmental, and psychological factors. Explain
briefly ONE of these factors.
(8 marks)
(b) Two drivers have reaction times of 2.5 sec. One is obeying a 90 km/ h
speed limit and the other is travelling illegally at 115 km/h.
(i) How much distance will each of the two drivers cover during
reaction time?
(ii) Based on the given reaction time, explain the effect of speed on the
distance travelled.
(iii) Why is it important to consider driver's reaction time in traffic
engineering?
(9 marks)
(c) A traffic stream is characterised an average vehicle headway of 2.5 sec at

80 km/h.
(i) Compute the rate of flow and density of the traffic stream.
(ii) Explain the importance of headway data in traffic analysis.
(8 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 384213
Q2. (a) Speed is one of the common parameters used in traffic analysis.
(i) Describe briefly the differences between journey speed and spot
speed in terms of definitions.
(ii) Describe how both speeds are measured in practice.
(10 marks)
(b) A journey time study using a test--ear method was carried out on a 8-km
segment of urban street shown in Figure Q2(b). The summary of the data
obtained for five numbers of tests is given in Table Q2(b). Compute:
(i) Average journey speed of the traffic stream in kmIh.

(ii) Average running speed of the traffic stream in kmIh.
(iii) Average delay based on journey speed if the free flow speed limit is
60 km/h.
(iv) Comment on the differences between the two values of the journey
speed and running speed.
(15 marks)
(25 marks)
Ending
I I\ Point B
Jl
I J2
J3
8km
Figure Q2(b)
Table Q2(b)
Stop Delay at each junction
Test Starting time of Arrival time of
(minutes)
No. test car at Point A test car at point B
Jl J2 J3
1 8:00:00am 8:25:00am 6 3 6
2 9:00:00am 9:32:00am 4 6 8
3 10:10:00am 10:30:00am 4 2 6
4 10:45:00am 11:10:00am 5 4 4
5 11:30:00am 11:55:00am 5 5 4
SAB 384214
Q3. (a) Describe briefly the followings:
(i) Average Daily Traffic (ADT) and Annual Average Daily Traffic
(AADT).
(ii) Examples of the applications of ADT and AADT data.
(10 marks)
(b) The following Table Q3(b) contains two sets of one-week traffic counts
data obtained on a stretch of rural road.
(i) Compute the ADT for both datasets.

(ii) Explain why both ADTs are different.
(iii) Estimate the AADT for the road section.
(15 marks)
(25 marks)
Table Q3(b)
March 2008 October 2008

Day (vehlday) (vehlday)
Monday 12500 10300
Tuesday 10500 12000
Wednesday 15200 13000
Thursday 13400 14500
Friday 16000 15200
Saturday 10500 8500
Sunday 8000 10200
Q4. The mathematical relationship between speed and density obtained from the
actual data is u = 88 - O. 63k kmlh. Estimate for the road segment:
(a) Jammed density (kj );

(b) Maximum theoretical flow (qc);
(c) The average speeds of vehicles and traffic flow conditions if traffic
volume is 1000 vehlh; and
(d) Sketch the speed-flow curve indicating all the important values obtained
above.
(25 marks)
SAB 384215
Q5. (a) Road signs along a highway are designed to be recognised and read by
drivers from a distance of 50 m.
(i) Determine how far in advance of an exit ramp a directional sign

should be located to allow a safe reduction of speed from 90 km/h to
50 km/h, given a perception-reaction time of 1.5 sec, a coefficient
of friction of 0.12, and a level highway section.
(ii) Sketch and show clearly the layout of the highway section and the
location of the exit sign.
(10 marks)
(b) The maximum speed on a 2-lane 2-way single-carriageway rural road is

set at the national speed limit. One of the circular-eurved sections is flat
and built with an internal angle (8) of 80°, 480 meter long and,
superelevation (e) of 6%. The side friction (f) is 0.12. Several cases of
vehicles skidded while negotiating the road bend has lead to a claim that
the speed limit is not safe for that particular road section.
(i) State whether the accidents are due to driver's negligence or the
design factors.
(ii) Propose changes if the speed limit is not safe for that circular
curved road section.
(15marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 384216
Q6. (a) Installation of a traffic signal system at an intersection may cause

problems of excessive traffic delays and accidents during off-peak
periods. Explain the reasons for such cases to occur.
(10 marks)
(b) Figure Q6(b) shows the configuration of aT-junction in an urban area

and the average peak-hour turning movements. Such an amount of traffic
requires the junction to be upgraded into a signalised intersection.
(i) Design a fixed-time traffic signal system for the junction. The
average passenger car unit is 1 veh = 1.1 pcu and the average
correction factor for saturation flow is 1.0. An all red period may be
taken as 2 sec/phase, starting delay equal to 2 sec/phase and an
amber period of3 sec.
(ii) Show the traffic phase sequence and timing diagrams for the
proposed design.
(15marks)
(25 marks)
701
mI 300
6 200
-_.... 600
200 500
100
Traffic volume is in veh/h
701
Figure Q6(b)
SAB 384217
EQUATIONS
V 3 ( 1- R,~,e )
Length of transition curve, L p = V
c,R
AS 2
L- --;-----,c::
- 2(Jh: +.jh;)
L= 2S _ 2(Jh: +.jh;j
A
k. xu 2
q=kjxu- ( u; J
b = 1800 for single lane

b = 3000 for two lanes
I = R + a, S = 525W
V W'+L'
a=-+--
2A V
n n n
Perception Distance =0.28Vt Y=Iy; L=IR;+I/;

;=1 i=\ ;=1
2 2
' d' V . 1.5L+5
Brak mg Istance = ( _U )
254 f±G
Optimum Cycle TIme, Co =- -
l-Y
2
V
R =--,--__.
127(e + f) Effective green, gi = ~(Co - L)
Y
Actual green period G, = gi +I +R
Displayed green period K; = G; a R

Length of circular segment, La = R x 2;rB
360
SAB 481311
UTM
F.ll'ull\ 'Ii
CilIiLrt;:innlln:.:
UNIVEl1sm TEKNOLOGI MALAVSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE ADVANCE HIGHWAY ENGGINEERING
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWERS ALL QUESTIONS
2. NO REFERENCE IS ALLOWED
WARNING!
Students caught copying/cheating during the examination will be liable.for
disciplinary actions and the .faculty may recommend the student to be expelled.from
the study.

SAB 481312
Q1. (a) Discuss the differences between chip seal and micro surfacing.
(8 marks)
(b) As an engineer, propose any investigation and preparation that need to be

done during design and construction stage in order to ensure the good
quality and performance of chip seal. Predict what would happen to the
chip seal performance if the investigation and preparation listed above are
not being carried out.
(17 marks)
Q2. (a) Please discuss the opening of joint between Jointed Plain Concrete
Pavement (JPCP) and Jointed Reinforced Concrete Pavement (JRCP).
Explain on how joint opening could lead to faulting and pumping
problem.
(8 mark.',)
(b) A jointed reinforced concrete pavement for two lane urban interstate is to
be designed to last 20 years. The rigid pavement is to be laid on an
asphalt treated base. Summation of relative damage calculated for 12
months was 9.55.
During the first year, the estimated two way equivalent single -axle
applications are 196,000. The expected traffic growth rate is 4.5%. The
overall standard deviation is 0.35. The design serviceability loss is
expected to be 1.8
Using the standard laboratory test on 28-day specimens, the average

compressive strength for the PCC is 6,000 psi and the average modulus
of rupture for third-point loadings was 700 psi.
The drainage was judged to be fair and will subject to moisture levels
approaching saturation 3% of the time. The pavement is being designed
with tied concrete shoulders.
SAB 481313
Design the thickness of the rigid pavement. Used the tables, charts and
formulas given.
State clearly any assumptions made.
Given formulas:
l)Ec= 57, 000 (!'c)05
2)T= [(l+rt-1} x T I
T)= traffic volume during the first year
r = rate of growth expressed as a fraction
n= design period (years)
(17 marks)
Table 2.1 Recommended Load -Transfer Coefficients for Various
Pavement Type and Design Conditions
Shoulder Asphalt Tied PCC

Load trasnfer device Yes No Yes No
Pavemet type
1. Plain and 3.2 3.8-4.4 2.5-3.1 3.6-4.2
jointed
reinforced
2. Continuously 2.9-3.2 N/A 2.3-2.9 N/A
reinforced
concrete
pavement
SAB 481314
Table 2.2 Recommended Values of Drainage Coefficient, Cd for

Rigid Pavement Design
Quality of Percent of Time Pavement Structure is
Drainage Exposed to Moisture Levels Approaching
Saturation
Less 1-5% 5-25% Greater
Than 1% 25%
Excellent 1.25-1.20 1.20-1.15 1.15-1.10 1.10
Good 1.20-1.15 1.15-1.10 1.10-1.00 1.00
Fair 1.15-1.10 1.10-1.00 1.00-0.90 0.90

Poor 1.10-1.00 1.10-0.90 0.90-0.80 0.80
Very Poor 1.00-0.90 0.90-0.80 0.80-0.70 0.70
Table 2.3 Suggested Levels of Reliability for Various Functional

Classifications
Functional Classification Recommeded Level of Reliability
Urban Rural
Interstate and Other Freeways 85-99.9 80-99.9
Principle Arterials 80-99 75-95
Collectors 80-95 75-95
Local 50-80 50-80
Table 2.4 Typical Ranges of Loss of Support (LS) Factors for Various
Types of Materials
Type of Material Loss of Support
Cement Treated Granular Base 0.0-1.0
(E= 1,000000 to 2,000000 psi)
Asphalt Treated Base 0.0-1.0

(E= 500,000 to 1,000 000 psi)
Lime Stabilized 0.0-1.0

(E= 20, 000 to 70,000 psi)
Unbound Granular Materials 1.0-3.0
(E= 15,000 to 45,000 psi)
SAB 481315
Q3. (a) Describe the advantages of interlocking block pavement.
(10 marks)
(b) Herringbone bond is known as the most effective laying pattern.

Yes or no? Please discuss your answer.
(5 marh)
(c) A joint pumping and undulated surface problem was found at a

specific section of road which was constructed with interlocking block
pavement. Analyze the cause and propose a remedy to these problems
( 10 marks)
Q4. (a) Discuss advantages of using modified bitumen In hot mIX asphalt
mixtures.
(6 marks)
(b) Discuss advantages and disadvantages of using SUPERPAVE mix

design system compared to Marshall design system.
(6 marks)
(c) Discuss dense graded, gap graded and open graded hot mix asphalt
mixtures. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each.
(13 marks)
SAB 481316
5_ _ 11
. \.
Composite k-value (pei)
FIGURE 2.1 FOR Q2b

Chart for estimating relative damage to rigid pavements
based on slab thickness and underlying support
SAB 481317
1000
, .'
500
/ /
/ /
V
/ ~
~
(170) /
'/ /
-m
(")
Q ii'
~ 2 100 /
" <'
;om
0.:=
" "
-0 / ./
Q 0. V /'
50
"S
o
O c:
... CD V V
~
::J
~'tJ)
~
V :... V ;/
v~
-c: /' -'
r-cr
0<0 I:) ~ / ""
'"'" iiiQ. /' .,,
£'CIl
(/):D
<:: III
"0 10
~~~ ,;'
",,"
-
./
/
/'
o~ !2
"0
-.
Ol
1-~ "
0 7 ¥
::::..?
II 1./ \;~
7<"
~~
\-~
€ Cl 5 1/
:/ ~ /'
/ 1/ ;' ",/
'" /
,/V /'
:..--~
I~ ~V V ~'"
V
540
~ (1 \
5 10 50 100 500 1000 200
Effective Modulus of Subgrade Reaction, k lpcil
FIGURE 2.2 FOR Q2b

Correction of effective modulus of subgrade reaction for potential loss of subbase
support
SAB 481318
o
Concrete E'ostlc ~ £c Oo'PII)
TL T
L
'200' ..
.;;
1100 ..9 ".5 'a
40 U
1000 '"1 _u
(f)
lOa
€
-
Q,
::J
Q:
::J
r.2J ~ ..... , -.,

<3
'e
r
I)
!
:; lD
J-
tOO '0 .£
'Q
...
~ 0 ...J
.,
800 500 100 50 10
500 -.
u
u
s::.
u
a
6 ~
u .90
E ffec'ive Modulus of Subgrode S
u
•'0
~
Elample:
ReaCtion, k (pc;) 100
\, "72 pcl So " 0.29
'lE e " 5 • ,06 psi R :I 950/1) (ZR = -1.645)
s'c = 6~O PII £), PSI :I ,4.2 2.5 :I 1.7

J :: 3.2 Wie z 5.' • 10 6 (18 kip ESAW
Cd ,,'.0 Solution, Dc 10.0 Inch.. (near..t
hall-inch, frll!'l legment 2)
FIGURE 2.3 FOR Q2b
Design chart for rigid pavement based on using mean values for each input variable (segment 1
SAB 481319
0.;9" Slob ThicM8l1. 0 (inclle.) / / // /

.'
. / '/ V/ / / /
/. // 17
/ '/ V / /
: . /
v/ r/ 1/ V.I V 17
0
"
/V/ 7 7 / / / /
/ / '/ / / V
10
.
/ 7 7
210 V.I / / '/ [,.7 1/1/ /
7 /
30
I4fiy{00~/ 9/87 r/ V ; V
" /7
/ 7 / / V
1/
/
/
/ / J
40
/ / / / ./ / / / /
V /
1IO
•c:
'/r/ V/ V/ / / / V V 7
::;
.c
v/V V/ V/ / V V [7 1/
&0
~
::I r/ V ·V .I V 17 V V /
70 [7 V V V V / /
eo 1/ V V 17 7 /
10
1000 SOC)
.I m
100
NOTE' Appncallon af renabDily
in this charI require.
Ihe u.e of meon voWe.
lor all Ill. Inpul variables.
-------~~----------.....·TL
H.!I
I
Reliability I R ("/"l
FIGURE 2.4 FOR Q2b
Design chart for rigid pavements based on using mean values for each input variables
(segment 2)
SAB 482311
hflllt\of
UTM
. .
UNIVERSfTl TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA I

G\ill~lIl(il't('flllg
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE HIGHWAY & TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 482312
Ql) (a) Explain the objective of transportation system management.

(7 marks)
(b) Explain three basic elements in system structure for any long-tenn
transportation system management.
(8 marks)
(c) A three zone city has the following characteristics:
Production Attraction
Zone 1 700 o
Zone 2 200 400
Zone 3 o 500
Impedance 2 4 6 8
Fij 10 7 6 5
Travel time matrix

OlD 1 2 3
1 2 4 6
2 4 2 8
3 6 8 2
Distribute the trips using gravity model up to two iterations.

(10 marks)
(25 marks)
Q2) (a) Transportation strategic planning is important in transportation

planning process. Identify at least three elements in strategic planning.
(10 marks)
(b) In trip assignment, several techniques are available to detennine which

routes through a network are to be assigned trips between zones. One
of the techniques is minimum path; Explain in detail the how this
technique is carried out in the road network.
(15 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 4823 \ 3
Q3) (a) State at least five uses of OD data in transportation planning.

(10 marks)
(b) A transportation engineer was hired by the city planning department to

calibrate a multiple regression model for the trip production. The
department has collected base-year data for the following variables.
P = trip productions.
Xl = zone population. X2 = income.
X3 = number of households. X4 = car ownership.
X5 = number of houses.
A preliminary analysis of the data resulted in the following simple
correlation matrix, specify the possible equations that can be used in
the analysis.
P Xl X2 X3 X4 X5
P 1.0 0.95 0.83 0.41 0.82 0.85
Xl 1.0 0.21 0.22 0.29 0.91
X2 1.0 0.12 0.85 0.43
X3 1.0 0.55 0.66
X4 1.0 0.35
X5 1.0
(15 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 4823 \ 4
Q4) (a) What are the purposes of traffic studies in future travel demand process.
(5 marks)
(b) Explain in details three characteristics affecting the decision of trip

maker.
(10 marks)
(c ) An urban area consisting of three zones has the data base year shown
in Table 3. Using Fratar factor method, calculate the number of trip
interchange in the future. Do adjust to two iterations.
OlD 1 2 3 Total Fp
1 1 4 2 7 2.0
2 6 2 3 11 3.0
3 4 1 2 7 4.0
Total 11 7 7 25
Fa 3.0 4.0 2.0
(10 marks)
(25 marks)
Q5) (a) Interpret at least four(4) parameters connected with traffic flow.
(10 marks)
(b) The maximum capacity of a 2-lane carriageway of four-lane dual

carriageway is 2000 vehicle.thouI. Due to road resurfacing operations
the width of the 2-lane carriageway is reduced restricting the maximum
capacity to 1500 vehicle.thour. When the flow upstream beyond the
influence of the bottleneck is reasonably steady and free-flowing at
1800 vehicle.thour, find:
(i) The mean speed of traffic in the bottleneck.
(ii) The rate at which the queue of congested conditions outside the
bottleneck grows. The mean space headway when the vehicles
are stationary is 8 meters. The relation between speed and
concentration is linear.
(15 marks)
(25 marks)
SAU 4812 \ 1
UTM
rhlll" "f
Cl1d Ln::':lIh:l.nn::
U~ll'lERS!l' TEKNOlOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAU4812
COURSE FUNDAMENTAL PRINCIPLE OF HIGHWAY AND
TRAFFIC ENGINEERING
PROGRAMME SPA
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
2. REFERENCES ARE NOT ALLOWED.
WARNING!
Students caught copying/cheating during the examination ·will be liable for
disciplinary actions and the/acuIty may recommend the student to be expell~dFom
the study.

SAU 4812 \ 2
S I. (a) Analisis ayakan adalah satu ujian yang perlu dijalankan terhadap agregat
untuk menentukan kesesuaiannya dalam pembinaan jalan.
i) Nyatakan kepentingan lIjian analisis ayakan.

ii) .Tadual S 1 (a) menunjukkan hasil ujian ayakan yang dijalankan di
makmal terhadap agregat yang bakal digunakan untllk tapak jalan.
Lengkapkan jadual tersebllt dan lakarkan hasil analisis bersama had
gradasi dalam Rajah S 1 (a). lelaskan samada agregat tersebut sesuai
untllk kerja yang dicadangkan.
(15 markah)
(b) labatan Kerja Raya menetapkan spesifikasi berikut bagi agregat lIntuk
kegllnaan pembinaan jalan:
i) Nilai Penghancuran Agregat, ACVtidak melebihi 25; dan

ii) Serapan Air, Water Ahsorption tidak melebihi 2%.
Keplltllsan ujian terhadap agregat yang diterima seperti berikut:
i) Nilai Penghancuran Agregat
Sampel yang diuji 2867.8 g
lisim melepasi ayak 745.2 g
Ii) Ujian serapan air
lisim sampel kering 1259.9 g
lisim permukaan kering tepu 1282.4 g
lisim sampel dalam air 654.3 g
Tentukan Nilai Penghancuran Agregat dan Serapan Air agregat

terse but. lelaskan sama ada bahan tersebut sesuai digunakan untuk
kerja pembinaan jalan yang dicadangkan.
(10 markah)
SAU 4812 \ 3
S2. (a) Kerja penghamparan dan pemadatan premix perlu dilakukan dengan
baik bagi memastikan turapan yang dibina mencapai standard yang
ditetapkan. Senaraikan perkara yang harus disemak di tapak dan
kepentingannya dalam kerja penghamparan dan pemadatan lapisan
berbitumen.
(10 markah)
(b) Satu sampel tebukan (cored sample) lapisan ACB20 telah dihantar ke
makmal untuk diuji dan data di bawah diperoleh.
Jisim sampel kering 1186.0 g

Jisim sampel dalam air 655.6 g
Jisim sampel permukaan kering tepu, SSD 1192.4 g
Jisim kertas turas sebelum ekstrak 14.4 g

.Tisim kertas turas selepas ekstrak 15.6 g
.Tisim agregat kering selepas ekstrak 1122.6 g
3
Diketahui ketumpatan pukal Marshall ialah 2.331 Mg/m pada
kandungan bitumen optimum 4.8%. Tentukan:
i) kandungan bitumen sampel tebukan:

ii) ketumpatan pukal sampel tebukan; dan
iii) tahap pemadatan di tapak.
iv)
Berdasarkan keputusan di atas, adakah bahan yang digunakan dan
kerja pemadatan memenuhi spesifikasi pembinaan jalan? .Telaskan
jawapan anda.
(15 markah)
SAU4812 \4
S3. a) Jadual-jadual di bawah memberikan maklumat hasil kajian pemcrhati

bergerak di atas sebatang jalan sepanjang 0.8 km. Kirakan (untuk kedua
dua arah):
i) Aliran lalu lintas;
ii) Laju perjalanan; dan
iii) Laju larian.
Perjalanan ke liT ARA:

No Masa Masa Bil kend Bil kend arah yang sa~
larian perjalanan terhenti ditemui arah memotong diPOlon~
(saat) (saat) bertentangan
~
I 65 3 18 I
55 6 13 2 l
R= 48 5 32 I I
62 9 20 I 2
5 50 8 17 0 I
I 2
-
II
6 58 10 20 3
l
7 64 14 18 2 4 I
I I I
Perjalanan ke SELATAN:
Bil kend Bil kend arah yang sama
No Masa Masa
terhenti ditemui arah
I
larian perjalanan memotong dipotong
(saat) (saat) bertentangan
1 60 3 12 1 1
2 54 4 5 1 0
., 6 30 2 2
-' 72 l----~---
4 70 8
I
10 2 0
6 15 I 1
5
6
7
62
65
68
8
10
14
13
3
3
1
o
l
I
---J
(17 markah)
SAU 481215
(b) Rajah di bawah menunjukkan kenderaan yang bergerak pada kelajuan

malar pada satu seksyen jalan raya antara titik X dan Y. Pemerhati yang
berada di titik X mendapati enam buah kenderaan melepasi titik tersebut
dalam masa 2 minit. Laju kenderaan diperolehi menggunakan radar
tembak masing-masing ialah 45, 40, 45,55,60 dan 30 km/j. Hitungkan:
i) aliran;
ii) ketumpatan;
iv) laju min masa (TMS); dan
v) laju min ruang (SMS) bagi seksyen jalan tersebut.
o 0
x 120 meter }'
(8 markah)
SAU 4812 \ 6
S4. (a) Aliran tepu (S) sesuatu persimpangan berlampu isyarat dipengaruhi oleh
beberapa faktor. Senaraikan faktor-faktor tersebut dan terangkan secara
ringkas bagaimana tiap satunya mempengaruhi nilai aliran tepu sebenar
persimpangan.
(8 markah)
(b) Satu sistem lampu isyarat 4 fasa akan dibina di satu persimpangan empat
lengan. Aliran dan aliran tepu bagi setiap arah pergerakan lalu lintas
diberi dalam jadual di bawah.
---,----
Dari Timur I Barat Utara Selat(~

I
Ke L T R L T R LT R LT R
Aliran, 126 322 371

976 234 676 135 294
ukp/j
Aliran 1600 3600 1600

3700 1620 3700 1620 3600
tepu, ukp/j
I ~
Nota: L = beJok kiri, T = terus, R = be10k kanan
i) Reka bentukkan satu sistem Jampu isyarat bermasa tetap untuk

persimpangan tersebut.
ii) Lakarkan rajah fasa dan rajah masa bagi reka bentuk anda.
Nyatakan semua anggapan yang digunakan dengan jelas.
(17 markah)
SAl] 481217
S5. (a) Dua daripada ujian yang biasa dijalankan untuk menetukan kescsuaian
bitumen untuk turapan jalan ialah ujian penusukan (penetration test)
dan ujian titik lembut (softening point test).
Nyatakan tujuan dan seterusnya terangkan secara ringkas bagaimana
ujian-ujian ini dijalankan.
(5 markah)
(b) Terdapat dua jenis lapisan salut yang digunakan dalam pembinaan jalan
berbitumen. Lakar dan labelkan kedudukan lapisan-Iapisan salut tersebut
dalam turapan jalan, nyatakan fungsi dan bahan yang digunakan.
(5 markah)
(c) Terdapat dua jenis loji campuran panas (hot mix plant) di Malaysia iaitu
loji campuran drum dan loji kelompok. Pilih salah satu loji yang
dinyatakan dan berbantu lakaran berlabel, terangkan secara ringkas
bagaimana campuran panas dihasilkan di loji tersebut.
(5 markah)
(d) .Telaskan apa yang dimaksudkan dengan isi padu atall kadar aliran lalu
lintas (Q) dan nyatakan perbezaan di antara dlla isi padu lalu lintas
berikut:
i) Purata Lalu Lintas I--Iarian Tahunan (AADT); dan
ii) Purata Lalu Lintas Harian (ADT).
(5 markah)
(e) Apakah yang dimaksudkan dengan titik konflik pada satu persimpangan.
Lakar satu persimpangan tiga-Iengan dan labelkan jenis-jenis titik
konflik yang ujud.
(5 markah)
SAU 4812 \ 8
.Jadual 81 (a)
Lengkapkan jadual di bawah, tunjuk contoh pengiraan, dan plot hasil kiraan dalam
Rajah S1 (a). Kembalikanjadual dan rajah bersama bukujawapan anda.
Had gradasi Jenis II \

Jisim tertahan Jisim lulus Peratus lulus Peratus lulus
\ Saiz ayak pada ayak (g) (%)
pada ayak (g)
berdasarkan jisim :
]00
i
h.omm 0
r-
I
37.5mm 2834 85 100
28.0mm 2780 70 - 100
20.0mm 2125 60 -90
10.0mm 95] 40 -65
5.0mm ]093 30 - 55
I
2.00mm 1607 20-40
425~lm 1408 ]0 25
I
75~lm ]048 2 - 10
Dulang ] 154
I
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
0 ~
0
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0\ 00 r- \0 II) '<:t l"l M
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S£'£ ~ ~
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SAU4812 I 10
RUMUS
Simbol mewakili parameter yang lazim digunakan.
1= R+a S = 525W c = l.5L + 5

() l-Y
g, = ~(C
Y () -L)
V W+L
a=-+- y, = ~/
2A V 1.) 1
tI tI
k, = g, + 1- a L= IV -a), + II, ,=1

G, = g/ +1 +R
1 =t _ ( yJ - y)
2 AB
ARIV Q
AB
Q=V,D VI
V\ =VI·--D
D
I
2
D
O=DV--.lv
~ I V s S
VI
Q=V D - - D2
I D
I
.
Kandungan bltumen = .jisim bitumen x 100%
jisim sampel kering
Ketumpatan pukal = ~---"-'jisim kering

----'=' _
(jisim SSD - jisim dalam air)
ketumpatan pukal
Tahap pemadatan = xl 00%
ketumpatan Marshall
UTM\
fJl"U:\n'llf
.. . . "'" Eo.......""
•
.
\tNlveRSlll TEKNOlOGI MALAYSIA \
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE WATER TREATMENT
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWER FOUR (4) QUESTIONS ONLY.
WARNING!
the study.

Q1. (a) Shown below are the results of water quality analysis of Skudai River.
Constituent Expressed as Milligrams per liter
Total H~rQll~~~ C~COJ I~~I~

Calcium hardness eaC03 67,0
Magnesium hardness CaCO~ g~.O
Sodium Na 11.0
Potassium K 30.9 I
Total alkalinity CaC03 136.0
Chloride Cl 32.0
Sulfate S04 12.0
Total dissolved solids 59.9
Turbiditya NTU 12.0
pHa 7.6
~ot in mg/L.
1. Draw a milliequivalent per liter bar graph. Assume all the alkalinity is
HC03 •.
11. List the hypothetical combinations with values
iii. Calculate the non-carbonate hardness is mgIL as CaC0 3
(Atomic mass: Calcium - 40.0; Magnesium - 24.3; Sodium - 23.0; Potassium

- 39.1; Hydrogen - 1.0; Carbon - 12.0; Chlorine - 35.5; Sulphur - 32.0;
Oxygen - 16.0)
(10 marks)
(b) Five analytical methods for the determination of total coliform are
listed as follows:
Multiple-tube fermentation technique (MTF)
Membrane filter technique (MF)
Minimal media ONPG-MUG test (colilert system) (MMO-MUG)
Presence-absence coliform test (P-A)
Colisure technique
Regardless of the method used, the standard sample volume required
for total coliform testing is 100 mL.
1. Explain in detail the membrane filter technique (MF).
(4 marks)
SAB 2912 \ 3
11.
The presence of pathogenic micro-organisms is shown by indicator
organisms. Give three properties of indicator organisms.
(3 marks)
1ll. Using membrane filter technique (MF), volume of 10, 6, 2, 0.1 and
0.08 mL water sample gave total coliform colony counts of too
numerous to count (l"'NTC), 230, 70, 43 and 16 respectively. What is
the total coliform density in the water?
(3 marks)
(20marks)
Q2. (a) Skudai River has been identified as Class IV. Give your comments
based on water quality (degree of pollution), water treatment
needed and recommended water usage. Meanwhile, the DOE officer
published some reports in Skudai Post claiming that the dissolved
oxygen (DO), BOD, COD, AN, SS and pH are recorded at 4.3 mg/L,
5.6 mg/L, 30.6 mg/L, 3.3 mg/L, 66 mg/L and 5.1, respectively
occurred in Skudai River. Based on the data determine the level of
water pollution (WOI) of the river.
(10 marks)
(b) Nusajaya in Johor is experiencing a rapid growth in its population.

Therefore, it is anticipated that the current water supply will not be
able to provide an adequate amount of water fOf the population in this
town in the year 2050. Information below is needed to estimate the
water demand in Nusajaya, Johor in the year 2050.
Year No. of Houses

1990 2000
2004 I
2500
Average no. of people in a house = 5 persons

Area of light industries = 2.70 hectares
Area of heavy industries 35% of light
Industries
SAB 2912 \ 4
Quantity of water used per person in year 2004 = 260 L/day

Water usage for public amenities in year 2050 20% of domestic
water usage in
2050
Service factor in year 2050 = 0.97
From the above information, determine:
(i) Population growth in Nusajaya, Johor (in percentage).

(ii) Population in the town in the year 2050
(iii) Assuming the quantity of water used per person in year 2050 will be 12%
higher than in the year 2004, estimate the water needed to be supplied to
the town in a day in the year 2050.
(10 marks)
(20marks)
Q3 (a) State the advantages and disadvantages of a mechanical flocculation

tank compared to a hydraulic flocculation tank.
(4 marks)
(b) Give three design criteria of a round-the-end type flocculation tank.
(6 marks)
(c) A round-the-end flocculation tank treats 21.6 MLD water. The design
details of the tank are as follows:
Length of tank, LT 36.0m

Width of tank, WT 10.5 m
Thickness of baffle, T B 100mm
Depth of water in each compartment 1.5 m
Number of compartments = 3
Velocity of water in first compartment 0.25 mls
Velocity of water in second compartment 0.15 mls
Velocity of water in third compartment = 0.10 mls
S/\B 2912]5
(i) If n is the number of channels in each compartment and w is

the width of each channel in that compartment, derive n in
terms of w, LT and TB,
(ii) Calculate the width of channel (w) in each compartment.
(iii) Determine the number of channels (n) in each compartment.
(10 marks)
(20marks)
Q4. (a) State and explain the two types of particle.
(3 marks)
(b) What do you understand about the sedimentation concept?
(3 marks)
(c) Design a sedimentation basin to treat a flow of 18 900 m'/d. for an

overflow rate of 30 m3/m 2 .d and 4-hour detention time. Use a
rectangular basin with a length-to-width ratio of 4 to 1.
(4marks)
(d) Describe the purpose of filtration process and why is it important?
(4 marks)
(e) Determine the percentage of filtered water required for wash water
based on the following criteria:
Flow, Qr 450 LIs

Rate of filtration, Dof 250 m 3/m2.day
Time of washing 25 minl24 hr
Rate of washing, DoBW 25 mmls
(6 marks)
(20marks)
SAB 291216
Q5. (a) Write short notes on the following:
(i) Ion Exchange

(ii) Reverse Osmosis
(4 marks)
3
(b) A water treatment plant uses 120 kg/d of chlorine to treat 85700 m /d of
water. The residual chlorine after 30-minutes contact time is 0.65 mglL.
Determine the chlorine dosage and chlorine demand of the water.
(3 marks)
(c) The water usage on the day of maximum consumption is as follows:
--
Time Rate, Time Rate,
Lis Lis
Midnight - 1 700
I 1 260 2 680
2 250 3 670
3 220 4 680
4 180 5 680
5 170 6 710
6 160 7 780
7 240 8 960
8
9
390
540
9
10
11
880
540
360
1
10 640
11
12 (noon)
670
740
12 320 j
(i) Determine the maximum daily water supply
(ii) Determine the pumping rate and required storage capacity to
equalize demand over the 24-h period
SAB 2912 \ 7
(iii) Assume water is pumped only from 8 a.m. to 6 p.m., determine

the pumping rate and the storage capacity of the reservoir.
(13 marks)
(Wmarks)
Relevant Information:
Number of positive tubes x 100
MPN/100 mL- =
,;!L(t:!J1. of sample in negative tu bes) x (m1, of samples in all tubes)]
Light industries : 22 000 L/haJday
Heavy industries : 45 000 L/haJday

SAB 291218
Table of Water Quality Index
Classes
Parameter Unit
I II III IV V
Ammoniacal
Nitrogen mg/l < 0.1 0.1 - 0.3 0.3 - 0.9 0.9 - 2.7 > 2.7
I,
I!
I
I
Biochemical
Oxygen mg/l <1 1-3 3-6 6 -12 >12
Demand
Chemical
Oxygen mgtl < 10 10 - 25 25 - 50 50 - 100 > 100
Demand
Dissolved
Oxygen mg/l >7 5-7 3-5 1-3 <1
pH mg/l > 7.0 6.0 - 7.0 5.0 - 6.0 < 5.0 > 5.0
Total
Suspended mgtl <25 25 - 50 50 -150 150 - 300 >300
Solids
Water Quality
Index > 92.7 76.5 - 92.7 51.9 - 76.5 31.0-51.9 <31.0
Subindex for DO (in mgtL)
X=DO (mg/L) x 12.6577

SIDO=O for x<= 8
SIDO = -0.395 + 0.030~ - 0.00020x3 for x > 8
Subindex for BOD
SIBOD = 100.4 - 4.23x for x <=5

SIBOD = 108* exp (-0.055x) - O.lx for x > 5
Subindex for COD
SICOD = -1.33x + 99.1 for x <=20

SICOD = 103*exp (-0.0157x) for x > 20
SAB 2912 \ 9
Subindex for AN
SIAN = 100.5 -105x for x <= 0.3

SIAN = 94*exp (-0.573x) - 5 * I x - 2 I for 0.3 < x < 4
SIAN = 0 for x >= 4
Subindex for SS:
SISS = 97.5*exp (-0.00676x) + O.lx for x<= 100

SISS = 71*exp (-0.0016x) - 0.015x for 100 < x < 1000
SISS=O for x >=1000
Subindex for pH
SIpH = 17.2 - 17.2x + 5.02x2 forx<5.5

SIpH = -242 + 95.5x - 6. 67x2 for 5.5 <= x < 7
SIpH = -181 + 82.4x -6.05r for 7 <= x < 8.75
SIpH = 536 - 77. Ox + 2. 76x2 for x >= 8.75
SAB 292211
FJeulrvof
UTM
UNIVERSITI TEKHOLOGlIALAYSIA
Civil Eogillttring
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE WASTEWATER ENGINEERING
PROGRAMME SAW
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWER FOUR (4) QUESTIONS ONLY
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 2922 \ 2
Q1. (a) Define and state the main difference between Biochemical Oxygen
Demand (BOD) and Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD)? A sample of
wastewater was found to have BOD and COD values of 100 mglL and
1250 mg/L respectively, discuss the quality of the sample based on the
difference between these values?
(7 marks)
(b) Solids analyses were conducted on the domestic wastewater that was
tested for BOD. The tests were done in duplicate. The average
concentration of total solids, suspended solids and volatile suspended
solids in mg/L are 1027.78,245.14 and 204.86 mg/L respectively. Based
on the following test data, calculate A, total volatile solid and B.
Dish no. 1 2
Weight of empty dish (g) 52.842 53.25
Weight of dish with sample (g) 110.0 104.0
Weight of dish with dry solids (g) A 53.308
Weight of dish with ignited solids (g) 52.859 53.287
Weight of filter paper (g) 0.1160 0.1165
Weight of filter with dry solids (g) 0.1270 0.1353
Weight of filter with ignited solids (g) 0.1170 0.1208
Sample volume (mL) B 72
(10 marks)
(c) How does biodegradability of wastewater relate to the BOD rate

constant, K?
(3 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 292213
Q2. (a) The Environmental Quality (Sewage and Industrial Effluents)

Regulations 1978 mentions different discharge standards between
Standard A and Standard B. State the difference between the two
standards. Give values for BOD and SS according to Standard A and
Standard B.
(6 marks)
(b) A COD test was carried out on sample X and Sample Y. Table 1.0
summarized the information of the test:
Table 1.0: COD Test Results

Sample X Sample Y
Volume of sample 20mL 20mL
Sample dilution 10 times 50 times
2
Normality of Fe + standard solution 0.25N 0.1 N
Titration volume of FeU standard solution for sample 14.55 mL 25.35 mL I
Titration volume of Fe.l+ standard solution for blank 25.35 mL 48.40 mL I
(i) Determine the actual volume of undiluted sample X and Sample

Y used in each flask.
(ii) Calculate the COD values of sample X and Sample Y.
(6 marks)
(c) A sewage treatment plant is constructed to treat domestic wastewater

from a newly developed residential area. The treatment plant is designed
to receive a peak flow rate that is equal to three times the average flow
rate.
(i) Determine the Population Equivalent of the residential area.

(ii) Calculate the average and peak flow rate of sewage entering the
treatment plant.
(iii) If the area consists only of housing units, how many such units
can be built?
(8 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 292214
Q3. (a) Describe the biological processes that occur in a facultative pond. Draw
a suitable sketch to help your descriptions.
(5 marks)
(b) Design two circular primary clarifiers with 3 m deep for a design
average wastewater flow of SOOO m3/d with a peak flow of 16000 m3/d.
Use surface overflow rate of29.5 m3/m 2 .d and maximum weir loading of
125 m3/m.d at average flow. Provide all the information needed in
designing the primary clarifier. Make sure all of the requirements for the
clarifier design are satisfied.
(6 marks)
(c) Design a facultative pond system using the following given data:
PE 30000
Influent BODs 220 mg/L
Effluent BODs 30 mg/L
First-order BODs removal rate constant at 20°C 0.3 per day
Design Temperature 2SoC
Pond Depth 1.6m
(i) Calculate the percentage BOD remaining in the effluent.

(ii) Determine the pond volume and surface area requirement.
(iii) Check surface BOD loading.
(9 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 2922[5
Q4. (a) Describe function of major components of a conventional activated

sludge system.
(5 marks)
(b) Describe briefly, any four modification of activated sludge process.

Draw appropriate schematics.
(10 marks)
(c) The aeration tank for a completely mixed aeration process is being sized
for a design wastewater flow of2.0 mgd. The influent soluble BOD is 90
mg/L. The design effluent soluble BOD is 7 mg/L. Recommend design
parameters are the sludge age of 10 days and MLSS of 1400 mg/L. The
kinetic constants from a bench scale treatability study are Y = 0.60 mg
VSS/mg soluble BOD and Kd = 0.06 per day.
(i) Volume of the reactor

(ii) F/M ratio
(iii) Hydraulic retention time
(iv) Excess biomass per day
(l gallon = 0.003 785 411 784 cubic meter)
(5marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 2922 \ 6
Q5. (a) Briefly describe three (3) differences between aerated lagoon and
facultative pond with regards to dissolved oxygen.
(6 marks)
(b) (i) Name two (2) processes in sludge treatment.
(ii) What is the main difference between the sludge produced in

primary sedimentation tank and the sludge produced in secondary
sedimentation tank?
(iii) Name the type of sludge (primary or secondary sedimentation)

that is more suitable to be digested with aerobic digestion.
Justify your answer.
(6 marks)
(c) (i) Explain two (2) advantages of biotower over trickling filter.
(ii) A bio-tower is to be used to treat sewage from a population of

20,000 PE. The BOD of the plant influent is 250 mg/L and the
BOD from the primary clarifier is 170 mglL. The plant is
supposed to discharge effluent with BOD of 20 mg/L. Based on
the following information, determine the height of the biofilm
medium required to treat the wastewater at 26°C.
K20 = 0.056 min- 1

Media constant 0.44
Recirculation ratio 2
2
Hydraulic loading 0.65 m 3/m ·min
(8 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 292217
EQUATIONS
PFF = 4.7 P -0,11 L = BODt

o (l-lO-KI)
BOD = DOG - DOl L = BOD/

I P o 1 -e -kt
R02 = 1.5 (Ii -le)Q
x = tcY(So - S) ~=QSo
t(l + kdtJ M T;fX
'...I
V L -
_ QoSo F=~
T;f e 1+ Kt
x = Y(L; -FJ
1+ bt
A = 10L;Q As,max = 350 (1.107 - 0.002T)T-25

.\' A
/
COD = 8000(a-b) x Normality of Fe(NH4h(S04h

V
I = I, + Rl e
a 1+R
SAB 4913/ SAM 5913/ SAA 3922\1
hI,utwor
UTM
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UN1VERSlTl TEKlfOlOGl MAUI'$lA I

CMl E><i"",'ll
FINAL EXAMINATION
ICOURSE CODE SAB 4913/ SAM 5913/ SAA 3922
COURSE ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWER ALL (4) QUESTIONS.
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 4913/ SAM 5913/ SAA 392212
Ql. (a) What are the impacts of nutrients in river? Describe how they can be
managed.
(6 marks)
(b) Explain the difference between Water Quality Index (WQI) and Interim
National Water Quality Standard (INWQS). Describe the application of
WQI and the Standard A & Standard B of the Environmental Quality.
(8 marks)
(14 marks)
Q2. (a) Explain with an example how atmospheric pollution can affect climate
change in Malaysia.
(5 marks)
(b) Differentiate the effects of carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide
(C0 2).
(5 marks)
(c) Industrial air pollutants released early morning and late evening may
cause more severe impact compared to pollution released on a clear mid
day. Explain why.
(5 marks)
(15 marks)
Q3. (a) Waste generation can be affected by many factors. Explain how the
following factors affect solid waste generation in Malaysia
i. Eating habit/lifestyIe
ii. Collection frequency
iii. Characteristics of populace
(6 marks)
SAB 4913/ SAM 5913/ SAA 3922 \ 3
(b) Incineration can attain a 75-95% reduction in waste mass, and can
destroy hazardous pollutants with efficiencies as high as 99.99%.
However it requires other pollution control systems. Describe the
purpose of the control systems.
(12 marks)
(c) In 2008, Malaysians generated 25,000 tonnes of waste per day in which
less than 5% was being recycled. Considering the low recycling rate in
Malaysia, discuss four (4) attributes or requirements needed for a
recycling program to be successfuL
(10 marks)
(28 marks)
Q4. (a) What is the importance of the following III Environmental Impact
Assessment (EIA) report?
1. Baseline study
n. Residual impact
(6 marks)
(b) As a consultant, you have been given a task to conduct an EIA study for a
proposed land reclamation at Pantai Lido for the construction of highway
project ~n front of the Hospital Sultanah Aminah, Johor Bahru.
i. List and describe four (4) major environmental issues related to

the project.
(8 marks)
ii. Suggest appropriate mitigation and control measures for all the
issues raised above.
(8 marks)
(22 marks)
SAB 4923 11
of
UTM
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UNIVERSITI TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE ADVANCED WATER WASTEWATER
TREATMENT
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER FIVE (5) QUESTIONS ONLY.
2. ANSWER SECTION A AND B IN SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 4923 12
SECTION A
Q1. (a) Give two (2) differences between aeration and air stripping
(4 marks)
(b) Besides the contaminant characteristics, give two (2) other factors which
affect air stripping process and discuss how these factors affect the
efficiency of the process.
(6 marks)
(c) Groundwater with vinyl chloride concentration of 150 ~g/L is to be

treated with counter-current packed tower. Determine the packing media
height and area to remove 99% of the initial vinyl chloride concentration.
The design flow rate is 50 Llmin with liquid volume loading of 1.7
3 2
m /m ·hr. The following data have been derived from a pilot plant study:
Henry's Law constant for vinyl chloride at 20 D C = 0.127

Mass transfer coefficient of the packing media = 0.020 S-l
Optimum air-to-water ratio = 30: 1
What would be the height of the packing media if higher air to water
ratio is used? Explain your answer.
(IO marh)
(20 marks)
Q2. (a) Give two (2) reasons why advanced treatment processes are needed in a
treatment system.
(4 marks)
(b) Explain the differences between GAC and PAC in terms of size, porosity,
and applications.
(6 marks)
(c) Excess lime treatment is to be used to treat water with the following
characteristics.
SAB 4923 13
0.0 2.0 3.0 3.5

Ca2+ Mg 2+
t
CO 2 Na+
I I
0.2 HC0 3-
I sol cr I
0.0 1.6 2.8 3.5
(i) Determine the carbonate and non-carbonate hardness of the

water in mg/L as CaC03.
(ii) Determine the required chemical dosage for the process (eq.
wt.: CaO = 28 mg/meq; Na2C03 = 53 mg/meq; CaC0 3 = 50
mg/meq)
(iii) Draw the bar graph of water after final recarbonation. Assume
one third of the alkalinity is in the form of C0 32-.
(10 marb)
(20 marks)
Q3. (a) Two terms that are commonly used in chemical oxidation process are
mineralization or complete oxidation and partial oxidation. Explain
what they mean and how are they applied in treatment process.
(4 marb)
(b) Briefly describe two (2) similarities and one (1) difference between ion
exchange and carbon adsorption process.
(6 marks)
(c) An ion exchange reSIn is to be installed to treat wastewater with

cyanide (CN-) of 10 mg/L (CN- molecular weight is 26 g/mole). The
wastewater flow rate is 20 Llhour and the permissible CN- in the
treated wastewater is 0.01 mg/L. The resin capacity was found to be
0.81 meq/g with rate constant of 7.3 Lid· meq. If the factory operates
8 hours per day and 7 days a week and the resin is to be regenerated
every two weeks, determine the amount of resin required in the ion
exchange reactor.
(10 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 4923 14
SECTION B
Q4. (a) At a brackish water RO treatment plant, the total dissolved solids
concentration for the pretreated feedwater and the product water are
2860 and 89 mg/L, respectively. Determine the percentages of salt
rejection and salt passage.
(4 marks)
(b) A reverse osmosis plant as shown in Figure 1, desalinates S x 106

Llday of feedwater containing 1500 mglL of salts yielding 3 x 106
Llday of product water with 7S mg/L of salt. What would the salt
concentration be in the brine?
Brine
Feedwater Product
6
S x 10 Lld-----+I water
1500 mg/L 3xl0 6 L1d
Membrane 75 mg/L
Figure 1: Membrane
(6 marks)
(c) Membrane fouling always occurs during treatment processes.

Membrane fouling is an important consideration in the design and
operation since it can cause an additional cost if improper handling is
applied. Give three (3) approaches that can control/reduce the
membrane fouling.
(6 marks)
(d) Define any types of membrane and their roles, capabilities and
functions in treating water and wastewater.
(4 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 4923 I 5
Q5. (a) Figure 2: High purity oxygen aeration
O~"ygen return
,.----0-"-- _ _-----.-_ _ \\Taste gas
Influent /
Effluent
Secondary
clarifier
Reactor
Excess
sludge
Return sludge
A high-purity oxygen aeration system, as diagram above, is being

considered for treatment of a combined domestic and wastewater.
Since the combined wastewater is high soluble BOD and low in
suspended solids, primary clarification is not included. The design flow
(Q) is 3000 m3/day with an average BOD of 300 mg/L. From previous
experience in the aerobic treatment of similar wastewater, the design
F/M is 0.60 g BOD/g MLSS per day. The operating MLSS is 4000
mg/L. The maximum volumetric BOD loading is 2.5 kg/m 3 per day,
minimum aeration period is 2.0 h, and minimum recommended sludge
age (SRT) is 3 day. Based on these criteria, determine the volume of
the aeration tank. Verify your answer whether the BOD load, aeration
period and sludge are suitable to the aeration system.
(6 marks)
(b) What are the heterotrophic bacteria? In wastewater aeration, how do

heterotrophic bacteria stabilize organic wastes?
(4 marks)
(c) With an aid of a diagram, graph or complete treatment scheme, explain

the differences between Nitrogen Removal and Phosphorus Removal.
(4 marks)
SAB 4923 16
(d) A heated low-rate digester as shown in Figure 3 is to be designed for

an activated sludge plant treating the wastewater from 20,000 persons.
The waste activated sludge flow, Qw is returned ahead of the primary
clarifier, and the secondary sludge solids settle along with the influent
solids that are removed. Both primary and secondary sludge solids are
removed by the primary sludge pipe from the bottom of the unit - that
is, the underflow from the unit. The primary sludge flow amounts to
44.9 m3/d, and the digested sludge flow amounts to 16 m3/d. The
digestion time at 35°C is 23 days, and the storage time provided is 45
days. When the contents are stratified, the digesting and digested
sludge occupies the bottom half of the side water depth. Determine:
(i) The average volume of the digesting sludge

(ii) The volume of the digesting sludge
(iii) The volume of the stored digested sludge
Aeration Basin Effluent

V,X,S
Recycled Sludge
Qsl
Digested sludge Figure 3: Low-rate Anaerobic
(6 marks)
(20 marks)
Q6. (a) Water reuse and reclamation is the emergent technology that must be
introduced in country. Many industrial waste treatment plants have
been struggled to invest and apply the concept of reusing water in their
manufacturing. Define the concept of water reuse in terms of
industrial wastewater treatment criteria.
(5 marks)
SAB 4923 17
(b) What are the differences between reclamation and reuse? Explain the
typical perspective of disposal and water reuse planning in restricted
parameters.
(5 marks)
(c) You are designing an additional advanced treatment plant for local
wastewater treatment to remove a bottleneck at the plant. In your
design, the requirement of sludge treatment must be proposed to ensure
the complete treatment of the wastewater. You have two options,
Aerobic Digestion or Anaerobic Digestion, which both has their own
limitations. Please state your decision by drawing a complete flow
scheme and typical guidelines.
(5 marks)
(d) Select any two of the following sludge disposal method and explain
any eco-technology concept that can be provided in domestic
wastewater:
1. Incineration
H. Landfilling
HI. Thermal digestion
IV. Drying bed

v. Methane digestion
(5 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 4923 18
Membrane
[
1- product concentration ) x 100%
feedwater concentration
Recovery = _QP x 100%
Qr
Qf= Qp + Qc
C = _Q-"---fC-"f'--_Q----'p_C-'-P
c Qc
Sludge Digestion
Vaverage = VI - 2/3 (VI - V 2 ) V digesting sludge = Vavg * td

Vt = 2Vs
Nitrification - Den itrification Suspended
F QxBOD,om' SRT = __M_L_S_'S_x_V_ _ . =V

= =----="'-- AeratlOn
M VxMLSS Se x Qe +Sw xQw Q
OLR = Q x BOD/Oat/
Chemical and Physical Treatment

NTU=~ln (c,/c e)(R-1)+1 1 1 1 1
R-1 R -=--+
h = (HTU) (NTU) ~M ab C b
X =KC~
M
SAB 4923 19
COz + Ca(OH)z = CaC03J.. + HzO

Ca(HC03)Z + Ca(OH)z = 2CaC03J.. + 2HzO
Mg(HC03)Z + Ca(OH)z = CaC03J.. + MgC03 + 2HzO
MgC03 + Ca(OH)z = Mg(OH)zJ.. + CaC03J..
MgS04 + Ca(OH)z = Mg(OH)zJ.. + CaS04
MgCh + Ca(OH)z = Mg(OH)zJ.. + CaCh
CaS04 + NazC03 = CaC03J.. + NazS04
CaCh + NazC03 = CaC03J.. + 2NaCl
CaC03 + COz + HzO = Ca(HC03)Z
Mg(OH)z + COz = MgC03 + HzO
MgC03 + COz + HzO = Mg(HC03)z
SAB 4943/ SAM 5943/ SAA 495411
UTM
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UHIVERSITl T£KNOLOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE INTRODUCTION TO MULTICIPAL SOLID WASTE
MANAGEMENT
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS.
WARNING!
the study.

~AB ~~~j/ ~AM ~94j} SAA 49~4 2
Q1. (a) Differenciate all four (4) type of municipal solid waste collection
methods.
(4 marks)
(b) Current practices of solid wastes collection are based on two (2) modes of
collection systems. Illustrate the different between exchange container
method and conventional method for haul container system.
(2 marks)
(c) Solid waste from Taman Universiti Commercial Centre is to be collected

using truck with stationary compactor from small containers of 4m2 each.
It is estimated that average time to drive from garage to first container
location and from last container to garage is 0.30 hr and 0.35 hr
respectively. If the average time required to drive between containers is 6
min and one way distance to the disposal site is 50 km with a speed limit
72 km/h. Determine the appropriate truck capacity for collection and
number of trips that can be made per day, based on 8-hr workday. Given
container unloading time 0.1 hr/container, 2 containers at each location
and average drive time between container locations is 0.1 hr.
(14 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 4943/ SAM 5943/ SAA 495413
Q2. (a) The layout of waste collection routes involves a series of trial. Detail out
four (4) type of typical route methods use for solid waste collection.
(4 marks)
(b) Construct the waste collection routes for the residential area shown in the
accompanying Figure 1. Assume the following data are applicable.
I. Solid waste generation rate, 1.3 kg/person/day

ii. Collection crew size, 2 crew
111. Truck collection capacity, 28 m 3
IV. Density of wastes in collection truck, 325 kg/m 3
v. Collection from each side of street with left and right hand drive
collection where applicable
VI. No U-turns in streets
(16 marks)
(20 marks)
Q3. (a) Develop a full process flow diagram to separate mixed recyclables glass,
tin cans, aluminium, paper, cardboad and wood from commingled waste.
Suggest the appropriate facilities/equipments used in each processes.
(10 marks)
(b) Estimate the overall chemical composition of a solid waste sample and
energy content based on the data below using modified Dulong formula.
Waste Wet Dry Composition (kg)

mass mass C H 0 N S I Ash
(kg) (kg)
j
Paper 45 42.3 18.40 2.54 18.61 0.13 0.08 I 2.54
Cardboard 10 9.5 4.18 0.56 4.24 0.03 0.02 t 0.48
Plastics 10 9.8 5.88 0.71 2.23 0 0 ·0.98
Wood 5 4.0 1.98 0.24 1.71 0.01 0 0.06
(10 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 4943/ SAM 5943/ SAA 495414
Q4 (a) Transfer station refer to means, facilities and appurtenance used to affect
the transfer of wastes from small collection vehicle to larger vehicles and
transport for processing or disposal, usually a more distant location.
1, Discussed with illustration the three (3) modes of transfer station

operating system.
(3 marks)
II. What are the five (5) main criteria to determine location of transfer
station?
(5 marks)
(b) Economic comparison should be carried out to justify the construction and
operation of transfer station. Based on the following information,
determine the break-even time and cost for haul container system and
separate transfer and transport system for transporting wastes from Batu
Pahat to Seelong Sanitary Landfill.
1. Transportation cost:
Haul container system using 18m3 compactor = RM22/h
Trailer transport unit with capacity of 120m3 = RM30/h
11. Fixed operation cost:

Operating transfer station, including unloading = RMO.55/h
lll. Density of waste in compactor = 325 kg/m 3

Density of waste in transport units = 150 kg/m 3
IV. Annual maintenance cost for haul container system = RM500/yr,

with 5 working day per week.
(12 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 4943/ SAM 5943/ SAA 495415
Q5 (a) Described four (4) applications for reused materials components that
pQt~nti'llly r~cQY~r~d from muni~ipul ~olid WU5tC. Dctailcd out th~ typical
specification for each items identified.
(6 marks)
(b) I. Explain four (4) different types oftermal conversion.
(4 marks)
II. It was assumed that saturated dry air contains 21.19% oxygen
gases. Determine the amount of air required for the oxidation of 1
g of Carbon, Sulphur and Hydrogen each under Stoichiometric
combustion.
(3 marks)
(c) Outline the solid waste management flow system comprises of

production, consumption, waste management, environmental impact and
waste recovery. Discussed the material used/produced in each process
involved.
(7 marks)
(20 marks)
SAB 4943/ SAM 5943/ SAA 495416
10 10 30
10 10 10 10
10 30
20 30
50
10 10
10 50
10 10 10 10
10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10
10 10 10 10
30 20 10
10
10
20
30 30
30 30
20
10 10
10
30 20
FIGURE 1
SAB 4943/ SAM 5943/ SAA 495417
H = [«(1 + (2) + Nd(~cJ]

(l-W)
Phcs = pe + ue + dbe
~,cs = (Phcs +s+a+bx)
P"..\. = C,ue + (n p -l)dbe
kJ / kg = 337C + 1428(H - if) + 98
Table 1: Typical values for haul constant coefficients

Speed limit (km/h) a (h/trip) b (h/trip)
40 0.050 0.025
56 0.034 0.018
72 0.022 0.014
88 0.016 0.011
Table 2: Typical data for equipment and labour requirements for container collection
system
Vehicle Loading Compaction Pick up loaded Empty At-site
method ratio, r container and contents of time s,
deposit empty loaded hIt rip
container, container,
h/trip h/container
Hauled Containers System:
Tit-frame Mechanical OAO 0.127
Tilt-frame Mechanical 2.0-4.0 OAO 0.133
Stationary Container System:
Compactor Mechanical 2.0-4.0 0.050 0.10
Compactor Manual 2.0 -4.0 0.10
SAB 497311
UTM
Fafuln /If
Ch'i] E11zin"rnlll::
UN1YERSrn TEKNOLOGI MALAYSIA
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE INDUSTRIAL & HAZARDOUS WASTE
MANAGEMENT
PROGRAMME SAW
DATE OCTOBER 2009
ANSWER FOUR (4) QUESTIONS ONLY
WARNING!
the study.

SAB 497312
Q1. Pollution prevention is dehned as " ....the use of materials, processes or

practises that reduce or el~minate the creation of pollutants or wastes at
the source. It includes practises that reduce the use of hazardous
materials, energy, water br other resources and practices that protect
natural resources through conservative or more efficient use".
Taking a palm oil mill producing 40 tonnelhour refined palm oil and 40
tonne/hour palm oil mill effluent (POME), describe a framework and
action plan to implement pollution prevention in the factory. The
existing treatment effluent is above 400 mg COD/L. Objective: to
achieve less effluent flow rate by 50% and meeting effluent quality
standard to less than 15 mg COD/L.
(25 marks)
Q2. (a) Explain the purpose of oxidation processes in water treatment?
(5 marks)
(b) "Cleaner production is the continuous application of an integrated

preventive environmental strategy to processes, products and services
so as to increase efficiency and reduce risks to human and the
environment".
What is cleaner technology? Source reduction is a part of cleaner

technology. Explain source reduction, and state THREE (3) methods
employ for source reduction.
(12 marks)
(c) Waste mInImIzation is essential for sustainable development. As a

consultant to HazardWaste Sdn. Bhd., describe the hierarchy for waste
management priorities that you proposed to reduce the need for
sending the waste to the Integrated Waste Facility at Bukit Nenas.
(8 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 497313
Q3. (a) As an engineer at a food processing factory, you are required to select
either aerobic or anaerobic process to treat the wastewater produced
from the factory. Discuss your selection process.
(6 marks)
(b) Write down the oxidation state for the underlined atom after each
compound:
(4 marks)
(c) As an auditor you are required to make a checklist prior to conducting

a waste audit. Describe the things you need to do in order to assist in
your audit report, particularly in conducting a management audit of
facility handling acid, hazardous waste, and hazardous materials.
Evaluate the adequacy of programs?
(9 marks)
(d) Explain, with the suitable diagram, the process for reverse osmosis.
Compare and contrast between reverse osmosis and electrodialysis
process?
(6 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 497314
Q4. (a) State THREE (3) types of incinerators. Briefly describe the operation,
advantages and disadvantages of ONE (1) of the incinerators.
(7 marks)
(b) Your company is planning to store hazardous waste on-site. You have
been asked to provide a plan of action for storing the wastes. Based on
EQA and general requirements, explained your line of action.
(6 marks)
(c) A metal manufacturing plant in Batu Gangsa is faced with the

scheduled waste disposal problems. Evaluations were made on
THREE (3) alternative strategies, as follows:
i) Ship waste to a site of Kualiti Alam in Bukit Nanas, Negeri

Sembilan
ii) Construct major in-plant changes to reduce the production of
scheduled waste
iii) Re-build the manufacturing facility using an entirely new process
that does not produce any scheduled wastes
As manager of a waste management consultancy company, you are

assigned to evaluate the strategies and proposed the best solution.
Write your expert view on this issue indicating the cost-benefit
analysis, technical challenges and environmental management
approaches.
(12 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 497315
Q5. (a) Explain with suitable sk tch, the use of neutralization in hazardous
waste treatment. Chemi al precipitation after neutralization can be
upgrade through coagulatt0nlflocculation. Explain.
I
!
(7 marks)
(b) Describe, with suitable iltustration, why neutralization is required. An

acidic wastewater needs Ito be neutralized to pH 7 before biological
treatment. Determine the !,lime dosage required per day for wastewater
flow of 0.5 m /min, if lim~ concentration is 1845 mg/L.
3
(6 marks)
(c) Effluent rinse water from!a electroplating factory containing 54.0 mg/L
cadmium is to be treat~d using ion exchange up to 2.8 mg/L. A
laboratory scale column! has provided the breakthrough data given
below:
Volume (L) et
Conc., (mglL) Volume (L) Conc., C (mg/L)
0.15 2.144 1.20 39.00
0.30 4.55 1.35 43.78
0.45 10,03 1.50 49.22
0.60 16.56 1.65 52.37
0.75 23.62 1.80 53.60
0.90 29.55 1.95 52.7LJ
1.05 35.41 2.10 53.19
The laboratory column data are as follows:
Inside diameter 1.0 cm
Length 0.7 cm
Dry weight of resin = 4.6 g
Liquid flow rate 7.35 Llday
Initial Conc. of Cd = 54 mg/L
Determine the mass of resin required for full-scale design, using the
following data:
Flow rate = 35,000 Llday
Operational hours = 8 hours/day
Regeneration of resin is carried out once in every 5 days.
(k)(Co)(V)
Q
(12 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 497316
Q6. (a) Ion exchange process could be compared with adsorption using
activated carbon. With suitable explanation, what do you see that
differentiate the mechanism of ion exchange from carbon adsorption?
(5 marks)
(b) State THREE (3) factors affecting the performance of adsorption.

Explain how ONE (1) of these factors affects the adsorption
performance.
(5 marks)
(c) Adsorption by activated carbon could be expressed as:
X/M = kC I / n
Name the expression and explained the terms used.
(3 marks)
(d) Analysis carried out on activated carbon adsorption of 1 litre

wastewater sample containing 45 mg/L naphthalene is given below:
Amount of activated carbon Equilibrium concentration of

in solution, M (gm) adsorbate in solution, C e (mg/L)
0.30 9.26
0.50 5.40
0.80 1.13
1.00 0.24
2.00 0.09
l. State and determine the adsorption isotherm coefficient that is

described by the above analysis.
11. What is the adsorption capacity at an initial concentration of 45
mg/L
111. If the flowrate is 5600 L/min, what is the carbon dose required
to reduce the concentration to 0.1 mg/L in the effluent.
[C] = _1 + ![C]
X /M ab a
(12 marks)
(25 marks)
SAB 4983 /1
hrut!) of
UTM
UNIVERSITI TEKNOLOGI MALAYS1A
(i,il El~illrrnn~
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE WATER QUALITY MANAGEMENT
PROGRAMME SAW

DATE OCTOBER 2009
WARNING!
the study.

SECTION A
Q1. (a) Briefly define the following tenns:
II
rhotic lOne (also known seuphotic zone)
lIt Epilimnion
llJ. Metalimnion
IV. Thermocline
v. Secchi depth
(iO marks)
(b) Differentiate between the p sitive and negative effects of phytoplankton

in the environment.
(6 marks)
(c) . In the figure below, observe hat light rapidly goes extinct in the shallow
surface waters. Explain why warm epilimnetic temperatures extend to a
depth of 5 meters.
(4 marks)
10(1,;",-" 1'9h I•• '.
rr-' ..--_.....
01 _.--T-t--~--,
SfJ 100
5-
/
I
I
f 10 I
_S.w
I
~ f
,
I
'51 I
I I
I
~l r
I I
I
j
)
SAB 4983 I 3
Q2. (a) Lake Minteka depth diagram is shown below with the deepest part of the
lake measuring 35 meter. Based on the diagram analyze and describe
how you would carry out an environmental monitoring programe of the
lake. (Include the lake depth diagram in your answer script if applicable).
(10 marks)
iERBR(~PK WAY
bl
FIGURE 2(a)
SAB 4983 14
(b) Lake Minteka is experiencing water quality problems due to algal blooms
and anoxic condition in its hypolimnion. As a consultant propose a
method that would improve the condition of the lake.
(10 marks)
Q3. (a) The Ramsar List was established in response to Article 2.1 of the
Ramsar Convention 1971, write a brief outline of what the list means
and list all the Ramsar Sites located in Malaysia.
(6 marks)
(b) In 1968, a man who died 2000 years ago was found in a bog in Plymouth,
UK. The body did not undergo much decomposition and he was even
found wearing his hat. Discuss why decomposition of the dead body did
not happen in the bog.
(4 marks)
(c) In the past, wetlands were mostly considered to be wastelands. As people

were settled, swamps and marshes were obstructions along the way.
Many were drained to be replaced by fannland, railroads and road
construction. In recent decades many people have come to recognize the
values of wetlands. Describe the natural function of wetland in tenns of:
i. Biodiversity function
ii. Stonn protection
iii. Particulate filteration
(9 marks)
SAB 4983 15
SECTIONB
Q4. (a) Water quality monitoring is an important element in the management

of water quality. Explain why.
(4 marks)
(b) The objectives of a water quality monitoring programme can be

categorized into two. Describe both categories and provide examples
for each.
(4 marks)
(c) Biological assessment is an important element in a river water quality

monitoring programme. Describe the two (2) advantages of biological
assessment in a river quality monitoring programme.
(6 marks)
Q5. Malaysian coastal waters are one of the world's most biodiverse regions.
However, as the seas have always been considered common property, our
coastal regions are facing increasing development and economic pressure. In
recent years, the importance of adopting a sustainable approach to utilizing the
resource of the sea is slowly being realized.
Write a short essay on 'Towards achieving a sustainable coastal development

in Malaysia (not more than 2 pages)
(I5 marks)
SAU4912 I 1
UTM
UNIVERSITi TEKNOlOGI MALA VSIA
F.l' ,i1I\ "f
end En!.:IIh.T£1Hlt
FINAL EXAMINATION
COURSE CODE SAU4912
COURSE PRINCIPLE OF ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
PROGRAMME SPA
DURATION 2 HOURS
DATE OCTOBER 2009
1. ANSWER SEVEN (7) QUESTIONS ONLY.
2. SECTION A & D: ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS
3. SECTION B: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
4. SECTION C & E: ANSWER ONE (l) QUESTION
WARNING!
the study.

SAU4912!2
SECTION A(WATER RESOURCE AND MANAGEMENT):

ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTIONS ONLY
Ql. (a) River is recognized as a main raw water source supplied to the
treatment plant that is usually operated under State Local Authority.
Although, several incentives are offered by the government, failure
in getting good water quality still occurs from time to time.
(i) State 5 (FIVE) major classes that classify river pollution in

Malaysia.
(ii) As an example of Malacca rehabilitation program, describe 3

(THREE) major strategies to turn the water quality up to Class
III.
(iii) Define any 2 (TWO) factors that contribute to the river

pollution in urban city.
(8 marks)
Q2. (i)
State !JONE} criteria for oral water quality that is used in most of the
Malaysian's state
(4 marks)
(ii) Describe the differences between water quantity and water quality in
water supply distribution.
(4 marks)
SAU4912/3
Q3.
Intake
c
Sedimentation
Figure 1
Figure 1 shows the sequences in water treatment process for a typical water
treatment plant. Based on Figure 1, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the A process and give 2 (TWO) reasons why the process must
be conducted.
(ii) After passing through C, some suspended solid residual remains in the
tank. State 2 (TWO) methods that are usually employed to remove the
suspended solids.
(iii) If the C process is omitted in the water treatment plant, describe any
problems that may occur to the D processes.
(iv) State 4 (FOUR) parameters that are typically used to evaluate
the effluent water quality from D processes.
(8 mark!;)
(16 marks)
SAU4912 4
SECTION B(WASTEWATER): ANSWER ALL QUESTION~
Q4, (aj (i)
(ii) W~v~
~~! !~l~~~n lrealmenl imoortant to
I I
.:.:::.L the publics?

(iii)
List down 2 (TWO) types of sanitation system in Malaysia.
(b) Activated Sludge (aerobic) and Anaerobic Digestion (anaerobic)

treatment always been used as the most of treatment system in industrial
and domestic wastewaters. Stale any 1 (TWO) cbaracteristics un each
treatment.
(5 marks)
(c) Taman University is currently on.going with the Progressive
development on residential area. It also supposes to facilitate a typical
construction of small industry, as well as cOmmercial and restaurants.
The area covered approximately at 200 ha with a single river flow
through middle of the city
(i) What are the criteria of wastewater management in the city?
(ii) How to control the river pollution from domestic and industrial
wastewater?
(iii) State any I!.otential of river pollution, instead of wastewater?
(6 marks)
(19 marks)
SAU491215
SECTION C (SOLID WASTE): ANSWER ONE (1) QUESTION ONLY
Q5. (a) A lorry from MFadhil Pte. Ltd. Transportation Company has been
appointed to transport hazardous wastes from Johor Bahru to Bukit
Nenas, Negeri Sembilan for disposal. When the lorry reached Ayer
Keroh, it involves in an accident causing the wastes to be spilled.
(i) Describe how the contamination of the soil can occur (its
process)?
(ii) State methods or procedures that can be applied to treat the

spills on site (on-site treatment).
(iii) As stated in Environmental Quality (Prescribed Conveyances)

(Scheduled Waste) Order 2005, describe three (3)
procedures/actions that must be carried out by the contractor
after the accidents.
(6 marks)
Q6. Relate the issues of global warming into landfill or open dumping.
(6 marks)
Q7. Recycling programs in Malaysia have been carried out several times.
However, the programs were not successful. Explain how the
program could be implemented successfully in the future.
(6 marks)
SAU4912!6
SECTION D (AIR POLLUTION): ANSWER TWO (2) QUESTION ONLY
Q8. Air pollution is reported as major environmental problems in many

mass media. Besides causing health problem, it is also the causes of
global warming. Give 3 (THREE) steps that can be taken to reduce the
environmental pollutions.
(6 marks)
Q9. State other factors that would increase the pollution level, besides
wind factor.
(6 marks)
Q 10. With an aid of suitable diagram, state the differences between

Unstable and Stable atmospheres
(6 marks)
Q 11. With an example of air pollution, state the source and impact created
from those activities.
(6 marks)
(12 marks)
SAU4912 \ 7
SECTION E (SUSTAINABILITY AND GREEN TECHNOLOGY): ANSWER

ONE (1) QUESTION ONLY
Q12. Explain 5 (FIVE) advantages of implementation of green technology

towards global environment
(5 marks)
Q13. Explain the concept of between sustainability and green technology,
by giving example of application in wastewater treatment plant.
(5 marks)
S14. Discuss ONE (l) example of alternative energy (e.g. bioelectricity,
bioplastic, biodiesel) in relation to the establishment of green
technology in minimizing the resource from fossil fuels.
(5 marks)
S15. Explain the THREE (3) ways in which environmental issues could be
managed within municipal or urban area.
(5 marks)
(5 marks)

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FAKULTI KEJURUTERAAN AWAM

SOALAN PEPERIKSAAN SEMESTER JULAI

BIL KOD MATA PELAJARAN NAMA MATA PELAJARAN MUKASURAT

1 SAB 1023 ENGINEERING SURVEY

JABATAN/BAHAGIAN : PERPUSTAKAAN SULTANAH ZANARIAH

BIL KOD MATA PELAJARAN NAMA MATA PELAJARAN MUKASURAT

FAKULTI KEJURUTERAAN AWAM

Ul'llVEAsrn TEKMOlOGl MAlUS1A

COURSE CODE SAB 1023

COURSE ENGINEERING SURVEY

DATE OCTOBER 2009

This examination question consists of (13) printed pages only.

SECTION A (60 marks)

1. Which of the followings describes the effects of parallax?

A. The cross-hairs are not in focus resulting in wrong staff readings.

2. Why is it necessary to keep the backsight and foresight distances approximately

A. To minimise the random errors in reading the leveling staves.

3. Which of the followings is not a source of random error in levelling?

A. Staff not vertical

5. What is the purpose of correcting the calculated (computed) reduced levels in a

A. To eliminate the effects of gross errors in the staff readings.

A. 128 0 36' 58"

9. Which of the following statements is true about linear misclosures in traverse

A. Linear misclosure can be used to determine the area of a loop traverse.

A. Traverse provides a framework that is referred to when measuring details

A. 284 0 48' 25"

12. Which of the following is NOT an example of random errors in traversing?

A. Instrument is not truly horizontal.

13. Select the correct statement pertaining to transition curves.

A. Transition curves are fixed-radius curves.

A. Increasing vehicles velocity.

15. The mInImUm required length of a transition curve IS determined by the

16. Which of the followings is NOT a type of transition curves?

17. Which of the following statements about vertical curves is FALSE?

A. Vertical curves are needed at intersection of grades.

21. Which of the following is FALSE pertaining to vertical curves characteristics?

A. Planimeter and end-areas.

26. What corrections are applied to excavated volumes In mass-haul diagram

A. Wastage and borrowage.

A. To determine the optimum haulage distance.

(S = 21) h =( ~~~) ; (S > 21) h= (S-I

Trapezoidal: A = ~ {OJ + On + 2(02 + 0 3 + .... + On_J)}

Simpson: A = ~ {O, + On + 4L(Oodd)+ 2L(Oeven)}

Prismoidal : V = ~ {AI + An + 4L(A odd ) + 2L(A even )}

COURSE MECHANICAL AND ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

DATE OCTOBER 2009

This examination question consists of(13) printed pages only.

GAMBARAJAt-i SU'5'.. Uf'JATUR:. SISTEF\., BEt-.:..ALA ....... A.-IR

... ,._._--_.~ .. ,. .. ,._..... _--_ ..-

Q2. (a) What are the properties of air controlled by an air-conditioner.

(b) Explain the operation of the cooling tower in a Centralised Air-

(c) Why are Split Units Air-conditioners more favourable as compared to

(b) Explain the functions of the counterweight in a traction elevator

(c) Fig Q3 shows a simplified traction elevator. The combined weight of

(c) Fig Q4 shows the isometric view of power exchange block. It is

HEAD LOSS THROUGH sroPVALYES

Loss 01 Head III Metres

HEAD LOSS THROUGH STOPVAtVIS

Loss Of Pressure Newton I Melre' Per Melre Run