BE8255 BEEME MCQ For All Units

BE8255 BEEME - CSE MCQ for Regulations 2017
Answer: c
Explanation: Mathematically, electric current
BE8255 - Basic can be defined as the ratio of the charge to the
time in which charge flows.
Electrical, 3. Consider a circuit with two unequal
Electronics and resistances in parallel, then
a) large current flows in large resistor
Measurement b) current is same in both
c) potential difference across each is same
Engineering d) smaller resistance has smaller conductance
Answer: c
Regulation 2017 - Explanation: In parallel combination of
resistors, the potential difference across each
CSE - II Semester resistors is the same.
4. In which of the following cases is Ohm’s

law not applicable?
a) Electrolytes
b) Arc lamps
UNIT I ELECTRICAL c) Insulators
d) Vacuum ratio values
CIRCUITS ANALYSIS
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the Ohm’s law, it
TOPIC 1.1 OHM'S LAW is applicable only to conductors. Hence,
Ohm’s law is not applicable in case of
1. Resistance of a wire is yΩ. The wire is insulators.
stretched to triple its length, then the
resistance becomes 5. A copper wire of length l and diameter d
a) y/3 has potential difference V applied at its two
b) 3y ends. The drift velocity is V. If the diameter
c) 6y of wire is made d/4, then drift velocity
d) y/6 becomes
a) V/16
Answer: b b) 16V
Explanation: Resistance of a conductor is c) V
directly proportional to its length. That is, d) V/4
when the length of conductor is tripled, its
resistance also gets tripled. Answer: b
Explanation: Drift velocity is inversely
2. An electric current of 10 A is the same as propotional to area of material i.e, V=I/nAq.
a) 10 J/C
b) 10 V/C 6. Which of the following bulbs will have
c) 10C/sec high resistance?
d) 10 W/sec a) 220V, 60W
b) 220V,100W
www.studymaterialz.in 1
c) 115V,60W Answer: a
d) 115V,100 W Explanation: The slope of the graph is the
ratio of current to voltage which indicates
Answer: a conductance.
Explanation: Resistance is directly
proportional to sqaure of voltage and
inversely proportional to the power. TOPIC 1.2 KIRCHHOFF'S LAW
7. Ohm’s law is not applicable to 1. Potential difference in electrical

a) dc circuits terminology is known as?
b) high currents a) Voltage
c) small resistors b) Current
d) semi-conductors c) Resistance
d) Conductance
Answer: d
Explanation: Ohm’s law is not applicable to Answer: a
semi-conductors and insulators. Explanation: Potential difference in electrical
terminology is known as Voltage and is
8. Conductance is expressed in terms of denoted either by V or v. It is expressed in
a) mho terms of energy per unit charge.
b) mho/m
c) ohm/m 2. The circuit in which current has a complete
d) m/ohm path to flow is called ______ circuit.
a) short
Answer: a b) open
Explanation: Conductance is the reciprocal c) closed
of resistance and is expreswsed in terms of d) open loop
mho.
Answer: c
9. Resistivity of a wire depends on Explanation: The circuit in which current has
a) length of wire a complete path to flow is called closed
b) cross section area circuit. When the current path is broken so
c) material that current cannot flow, the circuit is called
d) all of the mentioned an open circuit.
Answer: c 3. If the voltage-current characteristics is a
Explanation: Resistivity of a wire is a straight line through the origin, then the
constant and it depends on the type of element is said to be?
material used. a) Linear element
b) Non-linear element
10. In a current-voltage relationship graph of c) Unilateral element
a linear resistor, the slope of the graph will d) Bilateral element
indicate
a) conductance Answer: a
b) resistance Explanation: If the voltage-current
c) resistivity characteristic is a straight line through the
d) a constant origin, then the element is said to be Linear
element. The difference in potential energy of Controlled Voltage Source), VCCS(Voltage

charges is called Potential difference. Controlled Current Source, CCVS(Current
Controlled Voltage Source, CCCS(Current
4. The voltage across R1 resistor in the circuit Controlled Current Source).
shown below is?
7. Find the voltage Vx in the given[/expand]
circuit.
a) 10
a) 10 b) 20
b) 5 c) 30
c) 2.5 d) 40
d) 1.25
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: From the circuit applying
Explanation: According to voltage divider Kirchhoff’s voltage law, we can write 50=
rule, 10v is divide equally across resistors R1 15+ 10+ 15+Vx => Vx= 10V.
and R2. So the voltage across R1 will be 5v.
8. If the resistances 1Ω, 2Ω, 3Ω, 4Ω are
5. The energy stored in the inductor is? parallel, then the equivalent resistance is?
a) Li²/4 a) 0.46Ω
b) Li²/2 b) 0.48Ω
c) Li² c) 0.5Ω
d) Li²/8 d) 0.52Ω
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: The energy stored in the Explanation: The equivalent resistance 1/Rt=
inductor the area under the power of the (1/R1)+(1/R2)+(1/R3)+(1/R4). And R1, R2,
inductor and is given by W= ʃpdt = ʃLidi =
R3, R4 are 1Ω, 2Ω, 3Ω, 4Ω respectively. =>
Li²/2.
Rt= 0.48Ω.
6. How many types of dependent or
controlled sources are there?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 4 dependent or
controlled sources. They are VCVS(Voltage
9. Find total current(mA) in the circuit. Answer: a

Explanation: KVL is based on the law of
conservation of energy.
2. In a circuit with more number of loops,

which law can be best suited for the analysis?
a) KCL
b) Ohm’s law
c) KVL
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
a) 1 Explanation: KVL can be best suited for
b) 2 circuits with more number of loops.
c) 3
d) 4 3. Determine the unknown voltage drop in the
circuit below
Answer: a
a) 11V
Explanation: R2 is parallel to R3. So
b) 10V
equivalent resistance of R2 and R3 is 1K. The c) 19V
total resistance in the circuit is (1+1+1)K= d) 5V
3K.Current in the circuit is 3V/3KΩ= 1mA.
Answer: c
10. If the resistances 3Ω, 5Ω, 7Ω, 9Ω are in Explanation: By applying KVL to the loop,
series, then their equivalent resistance(Ω) is? we get,
a) 9 2 + 1 + V + 3 + 5 – 30 = 0.
b) 20
c) 24 4. Determine V in the circuit
d) 32 a) 28.8V
b) 34.4v
Answer: c c) -28.8V
Explanation: If the resistances are in series, d) 28V
then equivalent resistance is the sum of all the
resistances that are in series. Equivalent Answer: c
resistance is (3+5+7+9)Ω= 24Ω. Explanation: First, apply KCL to the second
node i.e, i6 + I = i8 . Next, apply KVL to the
first loop i.e, -20 + V2 + V5 =0. But V2 =
TOPIC 1.2.1INSTANTANEOUS 7*2=14V. Obtain V5 and I5=V5/5. Again
POWER apply KVL to central loop i.e, -V5 + V6 + V
= 0.
1. Kirchhoff’s voltage law is based on Apply KCL to the first node again, seek the
principle of conservation of value of V6 and finally we get V.
a) energy
b) momentum 5. Find V and I in the circuit
c) mass a) -39V , -4.875A
d) charge b) 39V , -4.875A
c) -39v , 4.875a
d) 39V , 4.875A
Answer: a 9. Find V and I in the circuit

Explanation: By applying KVL to the loop, a) 19V, 0.0633A
we get, b) -19V, 0.0633A
+30+9-V = 0. then, I=V/8. c) 19V, -0.0633A
d) -19V,- 0.0633A
6. Mathematically, Kirchhoff’s Voltage law
can be as Answer: a
a) ∑_(k=0)n(V) = 0 Explanation: By applying KVL to the loop,
we get,
b) V2∑_(k=0)n(V) = 0
-12-7+V = 0. then, I=V/300.
c) V∑_(k=0)n(V) = 0
d) none of the mentioned
TOPIC 1.3 SERIES AND
Answer: a PARALLEL CIRCUIT ANALYSIS
Explanation: According to KVL, the sum of WITH RESISTIVE
all voltages of branches in a closed loop is
zero.
1. It is preferable to connect bulbs in series or
7. Determine the value of V and the power in parallel?
supplied by the independent current source a) Series
a) 20V , 300mw b) Parallel
b) 27V , 498mW c) Both series and parallel
c) 26.6v , 532mW d) Neither series nor parallel
d) 25V , 322mW
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: Bulbs are connected in parallel
Explanation: Apply KCL to the node, we get so that even if one of the bulbs blow out, the
i – 2i1 – 0.02 – i1 = 0. Next, apply ohm’s law others continue to get a current supply.
to each resistor, i=v/4000 and i1= -v/6000 and
substitute in the above equation. For the 2. Calculate the total resistance between the
power supplied by the independent source P = points A and B.
V*0.02A.
8. Determine V in the circuit

a) -11.6V
b) 23.2V
c) -23.2V
d) 11.6V a) 7 ohm
b) 0 ohm
Answer: a
c) 7.67 ohm
Explanation: First, apply KCL to the second
d) 0.48 ohm
node i.e, i8 + I = i10 . Next, apply KVL to the
first loop i.e, -20 + V i1 + V6 =0. But V4 = Answer: c
4*4=16V. Obtain V6 and I6=V6/6. Again Explanation: 1 ohm in parallel with 2 ohm
apply KVL to central loop i.e, -V6 + V8 + V give 2/3 ohm equivalent which is in series
= 0. with 4 ohm and 3 ohm so total resistance
Apply KCL to the first node again, seek the between A and B = 4 + 2/3 + 3 = 23/3 = 7.67
value of V8 and finally we get V. ohm.
3. Calculate the equivalent resistance between This is in parallel with 7 ohm to give
A and B. equivalent resistance between A and B is 3.56
ohm.
5. Batteries are generally connected in______

a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Either series or parallel
d) Neither series nor parallel
Answer: a
Explanation: Batteries are generally
connected in series so that we can obtain the
a) 60 ohm desired voltage since voltages add up once
b) 15 ohm they are connected in series.
c) 12 ohm
d) 48 ohm 6. In a _________ circuit, the total resistance
is greater than the largest resistance in the
Answer: c circuit.
Explanation: 5 ohm and 15 ohm are a) Series
connected in series to give 20 ohm.10ohm b) Parallel
and 20 ohm are connected in series to give 30 c) Either series or parallel
ohm. Now both equivalent resistances d) Neither series nor parallel
(20ohm and 30 ohm) are in parallel to give
equivalent resistance 20*30/(20+30) = 12 Answer: a
ohm. Explanation: In series circuits, the total
resistance is the sum of all the resistance in
4. Calculate the resistance between A and B. the circuit, hence the total is greater than the
largest resistance.
7. In a ____________ circuit, the total

resistance is smaller than the smallest
resistance in the circuit.
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Either series or parallel
a) 3.56 ohm d) Neither series nor parallel
b) 7 ohm
c) 14.26 ohm Answer: b
d) 29.69 ohm Explanation: in a parallel circuit, the
equivalent resistance=1/sum of the
Answer: a reciprocals of all the resistances in the circuit.
Explanation: The 1 ohm, 2 ohm and 3 ohm Hence it is smaller than the smallest
resistors are connected in parallel. Its resistance in the circuit.
equivalent resistance is in series with the 4
ohm resistor and the parallel connection of 8. Which is the most cost efficient
the 5 ohm and 6 ohm resistor. The equivalent connection?
resistance of this combination is 80/11 ohm. a) Series
b) Parallel Answer: a
c) Either series or parallel Explanation: R=20||20||20=6.67 ohm. The
d) Neither series nor parallel three 20 ohm resistors are in parallel and re-
sistance is measured across this terminal.
Answer: a
Explanation: The advantage of series-
connections is that they share the supply TOPIC 1.4 CAPACITIVE AND
voltage, hence cheap low voltage appliances INDUCTIVE NETWORK
may be used.
1. The symbol used for inductance is
9. Calculate the equivalent resistance between __________
A and B. a)
b)
a) 2 ohm
b) 4 ohm
c) 6 ohm
d) 8 ohm c)
Answer: b
Explanation: R=((2+3)||5)+1.5)||4. The 2 and
the 3 ohm resistor are in series. The
equivalent of these two resistors is in parallel d)
with the 5 ohm resistor. The equivalent of
these three resistances is in series with the 1.5
ohm resistor. Finally, the equivalent of these
resistances is in parallel with the 4 ohm
resistor.
10. Calculate the equivalent resistance

between A and B. Answer: c
Explanation: is the
symbol used to represent inductance.
2. The symbol used for capacitance is

a) 6.67 ohm
_____________
b) 46.67 ohm
a)
c) 26.67 ohm
d) 10.67 ohm
c) Resistance
d) Capacitance
Answer: a
Explanation: Any small change in voltage
occurs within zero time across the gives an
b) infinite current which is practically
impossible. So, in a fixed capacitor, the
voltage cannot change abruptly.
5. The Inductor doesn’t allow sudden changes

in ___________
a) Voltage
c)
b) Current
c) Resistance
d) Inductance
d) Answer: b
Explanation: Any small change in current
occurs within zero time across the gives an
infinite voltage which is practically
impossible. So, in a fixed inductor, the
voltage cannot change abruptly.
6. The expression for energy of an inductor

Answer: b ____________
a) ½ LI
b) L/2I
c) ½ L2I
Explanation: is the d) ½ LI2
symbol used to represent capacitance.
Answer: d
3. The formula used to find the capacitance C Explanation: E=∫p dt
is __________ =∫ LI*(dI/dt).dt
a) Q/v = L∫I dI
b) Qv = ½ LI2.
c) Q-v
d) Q + v 7. The units for inductance is _________ and
capacitance is ___________
Answer: a a) Faraday, Henry
Explanation: Q=cv. Q-charge, V-voltage, c- b) Coulomb, Faraday
capacitance. c) Henry, Faraday
d) Henry, Coulomb
4. The capacitor doesn’t allow sudden
changes in ___________ Answer: c
a) Voltage Explanation: The unit for inductance is
b) Current ‘Henry’ and capacitance is ‘Faraday’.
8. The voltage applied to a pure capacitor of 11. A voltage across a capacitor of 0.5F is
50*10-6 F is as shown in figure. Calculate the defined by
current for 0-1msec. V (t) = [0, t<0
2t, 0<t<2s
4e-(t-2), t>2s] Find i (t).
a) -2e-(t-2) A
b) -4e-(t-2) A
c) -20e-(t-2) A
d) -12e-(t-2) A
a) 5A Answer: a
b) 1A Explanation: i= C*(dv/dt).
c) -5A
12. If the voltage across a capacitor is
d) -1A
constant, then current passing through it is
________
Answer: a
a) 1
Explanation: For 0≤t≤1msec,
b) 0
V (t) =m*t (y=mx form)
c) -1
→100= 1*10-3*m →m= 1*105 d) Infinity
→ V (t) = 1*105t
Current I (t) = c. d (v (t))/dt = 50*10-6* (d Answer: b
(1*105t)/dt) = 5A. Explanation: I= c*(dv/dt).
9. If a capacitor of capacitance 9.2F has a 13. An Inductor works as a ___________

voltage of 22.5V across it. Calculate the circuit for DC supply.
energy of the capacitor. a) Open
a) 5062.5W b) Short
b) 506.25W c) Polar
c) 50.625W d) Non-polar
d) 50625W
Answer: b
Explanation: Induced voltage across an
Answer: b
inductor is zero if the current flowing through
Explanation: E= ½ cv2. it is constant. I.e. Inductor works as a short
circuit for DC supply.
10. The voltage applied to the 212mH
inductor is given by v(t)= 15e-5tv. Calculate 14. The insulating medium between the two
the current. plates of capacitor is known as __________
a) 16.782e-10t a) Electrode
b) 15.75e-5t b) Capacitive medium
c) Conducting medium
c) 11.27e-10t
d) Dielectric
d) 14.15e-5t
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: The conducting surfaces are
Explanation: Current I(t)= 1/L 0∫t v*dt.
called electrodes and the insulating medium is c) 11.33V, 26.67V

called Dielectric. d) 13V, 12V
15. If the current flowing through an inductor Answer: c

of inductance 0.3Henry is 5.3t2+4.7t. Explanation: The nodal equations are:
Calculate the power. 2V1-V2=-4
a) 0 -4V1+5V2=88
b) 1 Solving these equations simultaneously, we
get V1=11.33V and V2=26.67V.
c) 16.854t3+22.41t2+6.62t
d) 15.3t3+27.8t2+19 3. Find the node voltage V.
Answer: c
Explanation: P= L*i*(di/dt).
TOPIC 1.5 NODAL ANALYSIS
1. Find the value of the node voltage V.
a) 1V
b) 2V
c) 3V
d) 4V
Answer: d
a) -60V Explanation: The nodal equation is:
b) 60V (V-10)/2+(V-7)/3+V/1=0
c) 40V Solving for V, we get V=4V.
d) -40V
4. Calculate the node voltages.
Answer: a
Explanation: The node equation is:
-2+8+V/10=0 => 6 + v/10 = 0 => v = -10*6 =
-60V
Solving this equation, we get V = -60V.
2. Calculate the node voltages V1 and V2.
a) 30.77V, 7.52V, 18.82V

b) 32.34V, 7.87V, 8.78V
c) 34.34V, 8.99V, 8.67V
d) 45.44V, 6.67V, 7.77V
a) 12V, 13V Answer: a

b) 26.67V, 11.33V Explanation: The nodal equations,
considering V1, V2 and V3 as the first, c) 8

second and third node respectively, are: d) 7
-8+(V1-V2)/3-3+(V1-V3)/4=0
3+V2+(V2-V3)/7+(v2-V1)/3=0 Answer: b
-2.5+(V3-V2)/7+(V3-V1)/4+V3/5=0 Explanation: One node is taken as reference
Solving the equations simultaneously, we get node so, the number of equations we get is
V1=30.77V, V2=7.52V and V3=18.82V. always one less than the number of nodes in
the circuit, hence for 10 nodes we get 9
5. Find the value of V1 and V2. equations.
8. Nodal analysis can be applied for________

a) Planar networks
b) Non-planar networks
c) Both planar and non-planar networks
d) Neither planar nor non-planar networks
Answer: c
Explanation: Nodal analysis can be applied
for both planar and non-planar networks since
a) 87.23V, 29.23V
each node, whether it is planar or non-planar,
b) 23.32V, 46.45V
c) 64.28V, 16.42V can be assigned a voltage.
d) 56.32V, 78, 87V
9. How many nodes are taken as reference
Answer: c nodes in a nodal analysis?
Explanation: The nodal equations are: a) 1
0.3V1-0.2V2=16 b) 2
-V1+3V2=-15 c) 3
Solving these equations simultaneously, we d) 4
get V1=64.28V and V2=16.42V.
Answer: a
6. Nodal analysis is generally used to Explanation: In the nodal analysis, one node
determine_______ is treated as the reference node and the
a) Voltage voltage at that point is taken as 0.
b) Current
c) Resistance TOPIC 1.6 MESH ANALYSIS
d) Power
1. Mesh analysis is applicable for non planar
Answer: a
networks also.
Explanation: Nodal analysis uses Kirchhoff’s
a) true
Current Law to find all the node voltages.
b) false
Hence it is a method used to determine the
voltage. Answer: b
Explanation: Mesh analysis is applicable
7. If there are 10 nodes in a circuit, how many
only for planar networks. A circuit is said to
equations do we get?
be planar if it can be drawn on a plane surface
a) 10
without crossovers.
b) 9
2. A mesh is a loop which contains ____ 5. If there are 5 branches and 4 nodes in
number of loops within it. graph, then the number of mesh equations
a) 1 that can be formed are?
b) 2 a) 2
c) 3 b) 4
d) no loop c) 6
d) 8
Answer: d
Explanation: A loop is a closed path. A mesh Answer: a
is defined as a loop which does not contain Explanation: Number of mesh equations= B-
any other loops within it. (N-1). Given number of branches = 5 and
number of nodes = 4. So Number of mesh
3. Consider the circuit shown below. The equations = 5-(4-1) =2.
number mesh equations that can be formed
are? 6. Consider the circuit shown in the figure.
Find voltage Vx.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
a) 1
Answer: b b) 1.25
Explanation: We know if there are n loops in c) 1.5
the circuit, n mesh equations can be formed. d) 1.75
So as there are 2 loops in the circuit. So 2
mesh equations can be formed. Answer: b
Explanation: Consider current I1 (CW) in the
4. In the figure shown in the question 2, the loop 1 and I2 (ACW) in the loop 2. So, the
current through loop 1 be I1 and through the equations will be Vx+I2-I1=0. I1=5/2=2.5A.
loop 2 be I2, then the current flowing through I2=4Vx/4= Vx. Vx+Vx-2.5=0. Vx =1.25V.
the resistor R2 will be?
a) I1 7. Consider the circuit shown below. Find the
b) I2 current I1.
c) I1-I2
d) I1+I2
Answer: c
Explanation: Through the resistor R2 both
the currents I1, I2 are flowing. So the current
through R2 will be I1-I2.
(2+5+3)I2 = 4. -6(I1) + 10(I3) = -4 + 20. On

solving the above equations, I3 = 4.7A.
10. Find current through R2 resistor.
M
O
a) 3.3
b) 4.3
C
c) 5.3
d) 6.3
T.
a) 3
Answer: b b) 3.25
Explanation: According to mesh analysis,
O
c) 3.5
(1+3+6)I1 – 3(I2) – 6(I3) =10 d) 3.75
-3(I1) + (2+5+3)I2 =4 -6(I1) + 10(I3) = -4 +20
On solving the above equations, I1=4.3A. SP
Answer: d
Explanation: Applying mesh analysis, 5(I1)
+ 2(I1-I2) = 10. 10(I2) + 2(I2-I1) + 40 = 0. On
G
8. Find the current I2 (A) in the figure shown
in the question 7. solving, I1 = 0.5A, I2 = -3.25A. So current
LO
a) 1.7 through R2 resistor is 0.5-(-3.25) = 3.75 A.

b) 2.6
c) 3.6
d) 4.6 TOPIC 1.7 NETWORK
.B
THEOREMS
Answer: a
17
Explanation: According to mesh analysis,

1. Energy per unit charge is ____________
(1+3+6)I1 – 3(I2) – 6(I3) = 10. -3(I1) +
a) Power
(2+5+3)I2 = 4. -6(I11) + 10(I3) = -4 + 20 On b) Voltage
-R
solving the above equations, I2 =1.7A. c) Current

d) Capacitance
9. Find the current I3 (A) in the figure shown
SE
in the question 7. Answer: b

a) 4 Explanation: The work or energy per unit
b) 4.7 charge utilised in the process of separation of
charges is known as Voltage or Potential
C
c) 5
d) 5.7 difference. The phenomenon of transfer of
charge from one point to another is termed
Answer: b Current. The rate at which the work is done is
Explanation: According to mesh analysis, called Power. Charge per unit voltage is
(1+3+6)I1 – 3(I2) – 6(I3) = 10. -3(I1) + Capacitance.
2. A conductor is said to have resistance of 5. Unit of inductance is ________

one ohm if a potential difference of one volt a) Weber
across its terminals causes a current of X b) Henry
ampere to flow through it. X=? c) Farad
a) 4 d) Tesla
b) 2
c) 3 Answer: b
d) 1 Explanation: The unit of inductance is
Henry. Weber is the unit of magnetic flux.
Answer: d Tesla is the unit of flux density. Farad is the
Explanation: Ohm’s law states that the unit of capacitance.
potential difference (voltage) across a
conductor is proportional to the current 6. Inductance of an inductor is inversely
through it. The constant of proportionality is proportional to its ___________
called the Resistance(R). a) Number of turns
According to Ohm’s law, V = IR (where V is b) Area of cross section
the potential difference between two points c) Absolute permeability
which include a resistance R). d) Length
–> I = V/R = 1V/1Ω = 1A.
Answer: d
3. Resistance depends on the temperature of Explanation: Inductance of an inductor, L =
the conductor. µN2A/l
a) True From the above equation, Inductance of an
b) False inductor is inversely proportional to its
length.
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistance is directly 7. Energy stored in an inductor is ________
proportional to its length, inversely a) LI
proportional to the area of cross section of the b) LI2
conductor, depends on the nature of the c) LI/2
material and on the temperature of the
d) LI2/2
conductor.
4. A 25 Ω resistor has a voltage of 150 sin377 Answer: d

t. Find the corresponding power. Explanation: V = L di
dt
a) 900 sin2 337 t dE = Vidt = L idt = Lidt

di
dt
I I
b) 90 sin2 337 t E = ∫ dE = ∫ Lidt = LI .

0 0
1
2
2
c) 900 sin2 377 t

8. An inductor of 3mH has a current i = 5(1 –
d) 9 sin2 337 t
e-5000t). Find the corresponding maximum
Answer: c energy stored.
Explanation: Given R = 25 Ω and v = 150 a) 37.5 mJ
sin 377 t b) 375 J
i= v
=
150sin377t
= 6 sin 377 t c) 37.5 kJ
R 25
d) 3.75 mJ
p = vi = (150 sin 377 t)(6 sin 377 t) = 900
sin2 377 t.
Answer: a following is incorrect?

Explanation: Given L = 3 mH, i = 5(1 – e- a) i = 0 for t < 0
5000t) b) i = 20µA for 0 < t < 2s
V=L c) i = 40et-2µA for t > 2s
di
dt
= 3 × 10
−3 d
dt
−5000t
[5(1 − e
−5000t
)] = 75e d) i = -40et-2µA for t > 2s
I = i(∞) = 5(1 – e-∞) = 5 A
Answer: c
E = LI2 = 0.5 × 3 × 10-3 × 52 = 37.5 mJ.
1
2 Explanation: Using i = C dv
dt
For t < 0, i = 0
9. The capacitance of a capacitor does not
depend on the absolute permittivity of the For 0 < t < 2s, v = 2t; i = 10 × 10-6 (2t) =
d
dt
medium between the plates. 20 µA

a) True For t > 2s, v = 4e-(t-2)
b) False i = 10 × 10-6 [4e-(t-2)] = 10 × 10-6[-4e-(t-2)]
d
dt
Answer: b = -40e-(t-2)µA.
Explanation: C = Ɛ A
Where d is the distance between the plates, A TOPIC 1.8 THEVENINS

is the cross-sectional area of the plates and Ɛ THEOREM
is absolute permittivity of the medium
between the plates.
1. Calculate the Thevenin resistance across
Hence, the capacitance of a capacitor depends
the terminal AB for the following circuit.
on the absolute permittivity of the medium
between the plates.
10. Which of the following is not the energy

stored in a capacitor?
a)
2
CV
b) QV
2
2
c)
Q
2C
a) 4.34 ohm
d) QC
2 b) 3.67 ohm
c) 3.43 ohm
Answer: d d) 2.32 ohm
Explanation: Energy stored in a capacitor, E
Answer: b
2
= CV
Since C = Q/V Explanation: Thevenin resistance is found by

E= CV
= =
2
.
QV QC opening the circuit between the specified
2 2 2
terminal and shorting all voltage sources.
When the 10V source is shorted, we get:
⎧0
Rth=(1||2)+3=3.67 ohm.
11. A voltage is defined by v(t) = ⎨2t
⎩ −(t−2)
4e
⎧t < 0
for ⎨0 < t < 2s respectivelyand is applied

⎩
t > 2s
to the 10 µF capacitor. Which of the
2. Calculate Vth for the given circuit. we get Rth, 4 ohm and Vth in series.
Applying Ohm’s law, I=Vth/(4+Rth) = 0.86A.
4. The Thevenin voltage is the__________

a) Open circuit voltage
b) Short circuit voltage
c) Open circuit and short circuit voltage
d) Neither open circuit nor short circuit
voltage
a) 5.54V
b) 3.33V Answer: a
c) 6.67V Explanation: Thevenin voltage is obtained
d) 3.67V by opening the specified terminals so it is
open circuit voltage. It is not the short circuit
Answer: c voltage because if specified terminals are
Explanation: 4 ohm is removed and then v shorted voltage is equal to zero.
across 2 ohm is calculated by voltage divider
2*10/(2+1) = 6.67V. Voltage between A and 5. Thevenin resistance is found by ________
B i.e. Vth is equal to voltage across 4 ohm a) Shorting all voltage sources
resistance since no current flow through 3 b) Opening all current sources
ohm resistance. So, Vth = 6.67V. c) Shorting all voltage sources and opening
all current sources
d) Opening all voltage sources and shorting
3. Calculate the current across the 4 ohm
all current sources
resistor.
Answer: c
Explanation: Ideal current sources have
infinite internal resistance hence behave like
an open circuit whereas ideal voltage sources
have zero internal resistance hence behave as
a short circuit.
a) 0.86A 6. Thevenin’s theorem is true for __________

b) 1.23A a) Linear networks
b) Non-Linear networks
c) 2.22A
c) Both linear networks and nonlinear
d) 0.67A
networks
Answer: a d) Neither linear networks nor non-linear
Explanation: Thevenin resistance is found by networks
opening the circuit between the specified
terminal and shorting all voltage sources. Answer: a
When the 10V source is shorted, we get: Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem works for
Rth=(1||2)+3=3.67 ohm. only linear circuit elements and not non-linear
Vth is calculated by opening the specified ones such as BJT, semiconductors etc.
terminal.
7. In Thevenin’s theorem Vth is __________
Using voltage divider, Vth= a) Sum of two voltage sources
2*10/(2+1)=6.67V. b) A single voltage source
On drawing the Thevenin equivalent circuit,
c) Infinite voltage sources network hence we cannot apply Thevenin’s

d) 0 theorem for it.
Answer: b
Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem states that TOPIC 1.9 NORTON THEOREM
a combination of voltage sources, current
sources and resistors is equivalent to a single 1. The Norton current is the_______
voltage source V and a single series resistor a) Short circuit current
R. b) Open circuit current
c) Open circuit and short circuit current
8. Vth is found across the ____________ d) Neither open circuit nor short circuit
terminals of the network. current
a) Input
b) Output Answer: a
c) Neither input nor output Explanation: Norton current is obtained by
d) Either input or output shorting the specified terminals. So, it is the
short circuit current. It is not the open circuit
Answer: b current because if specified terminals get
Explanation: According to Thevenin’s open circuited then current is equal to zero.
theorem, Vth is found across the output
terminals of a network and not the input 2. Norton resistance is found by?
terminals. a) Shorting all voltage sources
b) Opening all current sources
9. Which of the following is also known as c) Shorting all voltage sources and opening
the dual of Thevenin’s theorem? all current sources
a) Norton’s theorem d) Opening all voltage sources and shorting
b) Superposition theorem all current sources
c) Maximum power transfer theorem
d) Millman’s theorem Answer: c
Explanation: Ideal current sources have
Answer: a infinite internal resistance hence behave like
Explanation: Norton’s theorem is also known an open circuit whereas ideal voltage sources
as the dual of Thevenin’s theorem because in have zero internal resistances hence behave as
Norton’s theorem we find short circuit current a short circuit. So, to obtain Norton
which is the dual of open circuit voltage-what resistance, all voltage sources are shorted and
we find in Thevenin’s theorem. all current sources are opened.
10. Can we use Thevenin’s theorem on a 3. Norton’s theorem is true for __________
circuit containing a BJT? a) Linear networks
a) Yes b) Non-Linear networks
b) No c) Both linear networks and nonlinear
c) Depends on the BJT networks
d) Insufficient data provided d) Neither linear networks nor non-linear
networks
Answer: b
Explanation: We can use Thevenin’s theorem Answer: a
only for linear networks. BJT is a non-linear Explanation: Norton’s theorem works for
only linear circuit elements and not non-linear

ones such as BJT, semiconductors etc.
4. In Norton’s theorem Isc is__________

a) Sum of two current sources
b) A single current source
c) Infinite current sources
d) 0
a) 10 ohm
M
Answer: b b) 11 ohm
Explanation: Norton’s theorem states that a c) 12 ohm
O
combination of voltage sources, current d) 13 ohm
sources and resistors is equivalent to a single
C
current source IN and a single parallel resistor Answer: c
Explanation: Shorting all voltage sources
RN.
T.
and opening all current sources we have:
RN=(3||6)+10 = 12 ohm.
5. Isc is found across the ____________
O
terminals of the network. 8. Calculate the short circuit current is the 5
a) Input ohm resistor is the load resistance.
b) Output
c) Neither input nor output
d) Either input or output
SP
G
Answer: b
Explanation: According to Norton’s theorem,
LO
Isc is found through the output terminals of a

network and not the input terminals.
a) 0.72A
.B
6. Can we use Norton’s theorem on a circuit b) 0.32A

containing a BJT? c) 0.83A
a) Yes d) 0.67A
17
b) No
c) Depends on the BJT Answer: a
d) Insufficient data provided Explanation: Since the 5 ohm is the load
-R
resistance, we short it and find the resistance

Answer: b through the short.
Explanation: We can use Norton’s theorem If we apply source transformation between
SE
only for linear networks. BJT is a non-linear the 6 ohm resistor and the 1A source, we get
network hence we cannot apply Norton’s a 6V source in series with a 6 ohm resistor.
theorem for it. Now we have two meshes. Let us consider I1
C
flowing in the first mesh and I2 flowing in the

7. Calculate the Norton resistance for the second mesh.
following circuit if 5 ohm is the load The mesh equations are:
resistance. 9I1-6I2=4
-6I1+16I2=6
On solving these equations simultaneously,
we get I2=0.72A, which is the short circuit
current.
9. Find the current in the 5 ohm resistance Answer: a

using Norton’s theorem. Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem is also
known as the dual of Norton’s theorem
because in Norton’s theorem we find short
circuit current which is the dual of open
circuit voltage-what we find in Thevenin’s
theorem.
M
TOPIC 1.10 MAXIMUM POWER
a) 1A TRANSFER THEOREM
O
b) 1.5A
c) 0.25A
1. The maximum power is delivered from a
C
d) 0.5A
source to its load when the load resistance is
______ the source resistance.
T.
Answer: d
Explanation: Shorting all voltage sources a) greater than
and opening all current sources we have: b) less than
O
RN=(3||6)+10 = 12 ohm. c) equal to
d) less than or equal to
Since the 5 ohm is the load resistance, we
short it and find the resistance through the
short.
If we apply source transformation between
SP
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum power is
delivered from a source to its load when the
G
the 6 ohm resistor and the 1A source, we get load resistance is equal to the source
a 6V source in series with a 6 ohm resistor. resistance. The maximum power transfer
LO
Now we have two meshes. Let us consider I1 theorem can be applied to both dc and ac
flowing in the first mesh and I2 flowing in the circuits.
second mesh.
.B
The mesh equations are: 2. If source impedance is complex, then

9I1-6I2=4 maximum power transfer occurs when the
-6I1+16I2=6 load impedance is _______ the source
17
On solving these equations simultaneously, impedance.

we get I2=0.72A, which is the short circuit a) equal to
current. b) negative of
-R
Connecting the current source in parallel to c) complex conjugate of

RN which is in turn connected in parallel to d) negative of complex conjugate of
the load resistance=5ohm, we get Norton’s
SE
equivalent circuit. Answer: c

Using current divider: I = 0.72*12/(12+5) = Explanation: The maximum power transfer
0.5 A. theorem can be applied to complex
impedance circuits. If source impedance is
C
10. Which of the following is also known as complex, the maximum power transfer occurs
the dual of Norton’s theorem? when the load impedance is complex
a) Thevenin’s theorem conjugate of the source impedance.
b) Superposition theorem
c) Maximum power transfer theorem 3. If the source impedance is complex, then
d) Millman’s theorem the condition for maximum power transfer is?
a) ZL = ZS
b) ZL = ZS*
c) ZL = -ZS
d) ZL = -ZS*
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum power is
transferred when the load resistance is equal
to the source resistance. The condition for
maximum power transfer is ZL = ZS*.
a) 15-j20
4. If ZL = ZS*, then? b) 15+j20
a) RL = 1 c) 20-j15
d) 20+j15
b) RL = 0
c) RL = -RS Answer: a
d) RL = RS Explanation: The maximum power transfer
occurs when the load impedance is equal to
Answer: d the complex conjugate of source impedance
Explanation: If ZL = ZS*, then RL = RS. This ZS. ZL = ZS* = (15-j20) Ω.
means that the maximum power transfer
occurs when the load impedance is equal to 7. The load current in the circuit shown in the
the complex conjugate of source impedance question 6 is?
ZS. a) 1.66∠90⁰
b) 1.66∠0⁰
5. For ZL = ZS*, the relation between XL and c) 2.66∠0⁰
XS is? d) 2.66∠90⁰
a) XL = XS
Answer: b
b) XL = 0
Explanation: The load current is the ratio of
c) XL = 1 voltage to the impedance. So the load current
d) XL = -XS is I=(50∠0o)/(15+j20+15-j20) =1.66∠0o A.
Answer: d 8. The maximum power delivered by the

Explanation: For ZL = ZS*, the relation source in the circuit shown in the question 6
between XL and XS is XL = -XS. Maximum is?
power transfer is not always desirable since a) 39.33
the transfer occurs at a 50 percent efficiency. b) 40.33
c) 41.33
6. In the circuit shown below, find the value d) 42.33
of load impedance for which source delivers
maximum power. Answer: c
Explanation: The term power is defined as
the product of the square of current and the
impedance. So the maximum power delivered
by the source in the circuit is P = I2RxZ =
1.662×15 = 41.33W.
9. For the circuit shown, the resistance R is c) Removed

variable from 2Ω to 50Ω. What value of RS d) Undisturbed
results in maximum power transfer across
terminals ‘ab’. Answer: a
Explanation: In superposition theorem when
we consider the effect of one voltage source,
all the other voltage sources are shorted and
current sources are opened.
2. In superposition theorem, when we

consider the effect of one current source, all
the other voltage sources are ____________
a) Shorted
a) 1 b) Opened
b) 2 c) Removed
c) 3 d) Undisturbed
d) 4
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: In superposition theorem,
Explanation: As RL is fixed, the maximum whether we consider the effect of a voltage or
power transfer theorem does not apply. current source, voltage sources are always
Maximum current flows in the circuit when shorted and current sources are always
RS is minimum. So RS = 2Ω. opened.
10. Find the maximum power delivered by 3. In superposition theorem, when we

the source in the circuit shown in the question consider the effect of one voltage source, all
9. the other current sources are ____________
a) 96.6 a) Shorted
b) 97.6 b) Opened
c) 98.6 c) Removed
d) 99.6 d) Undisturbed
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: ZT = RS – j5+ RL = 2-j5+20 = Explanation: In superposition theorem when
we consider the effect of one voltage source,
22.56∠-12.8⁰Ω. I=VS/ZT = all the other current sources are opened and
-50∠0⁰/22.56∠-12.8⁰ = 2.22∠-12.8⁰A. P = voltage sources are shorted.
I2R= 2.222×20=98.6W.
4. In superposition theorem, when we
consider the effect of one current source, all
TOPIC 1.11 SUPERPOSITION the other current sources are ____________
THEOREM, a) Shorted
b) Opened
1. In superposition theorem, when we c) Removed
consider the effect of one voltage source, all d) Undisturbed
the other voltage sources are ____________
Answer: b
a) Shorted
Explanation: In superposition theorem,
b) Opened
whether we consider the effect of a voltage or Answer: d

current source, current sources are always Explanation: Due to the 3A source, we short
opened and voltage sources are always the 16V and 10V source and open the 15A
shorted. source. From the resulting circuit, we can use
current divider to find the current in the 20
5. Find the value of Vx due to the 16V ohm branch and then multiply it with the
source. resistance to find the voltage.
I20 = 3*80/(20+80)=2.4A
Vx=20*2.4=48V.
7. Find the value of Vx due to the 10V

source.
a) 4.2V
b) 3.2V
c) 2.3V
d) 6.3V
Answer: b a) 1V
Explanation: When we consider the 16V b) 2V
source, we short the 10V source and open the c) 3V
15A and 3A source. From the resulting series d) 4V
circuit we can use voltage divider to find Vx.
Vx = 16*20/(20+80)=3.2A. Answer: b
Explanation: Due to the effect of the 10V
6. Find Vx due to the 3A source. source, we short the 16V source and open the
3A and 15A source. From the resulting series
circuit, we can use voltage divider to find the
value of Vx.
Vx=10*20/(80+20)=2V.
a) 56V
b) 78V
c) 38V
d) 48V
8. Find the voltage due to the 15A source. Answer: c

Explanation: Power across an element is not
equal to the power across it due to all the
other sources in the system. The power in an
element is the product of the total voltage and
the total current in that element.
TOPIC 1.12 HREE PHASE
M
SUPPLY
O
1. In a balanced three-phase system-delta
load, if we assume the line voltage is VRY =
C
a) 0V
V∠0⁰ as a reference phasor. Then the source
b) 2V
T.
voltage VYB is?
c) 4V
d) 6V a) V∠0⁰
b) V∠-120⁰
O
Answer: a c) V∠120⁰
Explanation: Due to 15 A current source,
10V and 16V sources get shorted and the 3A
source acts as an open circuit. Since the 10V
source is shorted, it acts as a low resistance
SP
d) V∠240⁰
Answer: b
Explanation: As the line voltage VRY =
G
path and current flows only within that loop
V∠0⁰ is taken as a reference phasor. Then the
and do not flow to the 20 ohm resistor. Hence
LO
the voltage is 0V. source voltage VYB is V∠-120⁰.
9. Superposition theorem is valid for 2. In the question 1, the source voltage VBR
.B
_________ is?
a) Linear systems a) V∠120⁰
b) Non-linear systems b) V∠240⁰
17
c) Both linear and non-linear systems c) V∠-240⁰

d) Neither linear nor non-linear systems d) V∠-120⁰
-R
Answer: a
Answer: c
Explanation: Superposition theorem is valid
Explanation: As the line voltage VRY =
only for linear systems because the effect of a
V∠0⁰ is taken as a reference phasor. Then the
SE
single source cannot be individually

calculated in a non-linear system. source voltage VBR is V∠-240⁰.
10. Superposition theorem does not work for 3. In a delta-connected load, the relation
C
________ between line voltage and the phase voltage

a) Current is?
b) Voltage a) line voltage > phase voltage
c) Power b) line voltage < phase voltage
d) Works for all: current, voltage and power c) line voltage = phase voltage
d) line voltage >= phase voltage
Answer: c 7. A three phase, balanced delta connected

Explanation: In a delta-connected load, the load of (4+j8) Ω is connected across a 400V,
relation between line voltage and the phase 3 – Ø balanced supply. Determine the phase
voltage is line voltage = phase voltage. current IR . Assume the phase sequence to be
RYB.
4. If the load impedance is Z∠Ø, the current
a) 44.74∠-63.4⁰A
(IR ) is?
b) 44.74∠63.4⁰A
a) (V/Z)∠-Ø c) 45.74∠-63.4⁰A
b) (V/Z)∠Ø d) 45.74∠63.4⁰A
c) (V/Z)∠90-Ø
d) (V/Z)∠-90+Ø Answer: a
Explanation: Taking the line voltage VRY =
Answer: a
V∠0⁰ as a reference VRY = 400∠0⁰V, VYB =
Explanation: As the load impedance is Z∠Ø,
400∠-120⁰V and VBR = 400∠-240⁰V.
the current flows in the three load impedances
and the current flowing in the R impedance is Impedance per phase = (4+j8) Ω =
IR = VBR∠0⁰/Z∠Ø = (V/Z)∠-Ø. 8.94∠63.4⁰Ω. Phase current IR =
(400∠0o)/(8.94∠63.4o )= 44.74∠-63.4⁰A.
5. In the question 4, the expression obtained
for current (IY) is? 8. In the question 7, determine the phase
a) (V/Z)∠-120+Ø current IY.
b) (V/Z)∠120-Ø a) 44.74∠183.4⁰A
c) (V/Z)∠120+Ø b) 45.74∠183.4⁰A
d) (V/Z)∠-120-Ø c) 44.74∠183.4⁰A
d) 45.74∠-183.4⁰A
Answer: d
Explanation: As the load impedance is Z∠Ø, Answer: c
the current flows in the three load impedances Explanation: Taking the line voltage VRY =
and the current flowing in the Y impedance is V∠0⁰ as a reference VRY = 400∠0⁰V, VYB =
IY = VYB∠120⁰/Z∠Ø = (V/Z)∠-120-Ø.
400∠-120⁰V and VBR = 400∠-240⁰V.
6. In the question 4, the expression obtained Impedance per phase = (4+j8)Ω =
for current (IB) is? 8.94∠63.4⁰Ω. Phase current IY =
a) (V/Z)∠-240+Ø (400∠120o)/(8.94∠63.4o )= 44.74∠-183.4⁰A.
b) (V/Z)∠-240-Ø
c) (V/Z)∠240-Ø 9. In the question 7, determine the phase
current IB.
d) (V/Z)∠240+Ø
a) 44.74∠303.4⁰A
Answer: b b) 44.74∠-303.4⁰A
Explanation: As the load impedance is Z∠Ø, c) 45.74∠303.4⁰A
the current flows in the three load impedances d) 45.74∠-303.4⁰A
and the current flowing in the B impedance is
IB = VBR∠240⁰/Z∠Ø = (V/Z)∠-240-Ø. Answer: b
Explanation: Taking the line voltage VRY =
V∠0⁰ as a reference VRY = 400∠0⁰V, VYB =
400∠-120⁰V and VBR = 400∠-240⁰V. expressed in watts and apparent power is

Impedance per phase = (4+j8) Ω = expressed in Volt Ampere (VA).
8.94∠63.4⁰Ω. Phase current IB =
3. The expression of reactive power (Pr) is?
(400∠240o)/(8.94∠63.4o)= 44.74∠-303.4⁰A. a) VeffImsinθ
b) VmImsinθ
10. Determine the power (kW) drawn by the
load. c) VeffIeffsinθ
a) 21 d) VmIeffsinθ
b) 22
c) 23 Answer: c
d) 24 Explanation: The expression of reactive
power (Pr) is VeffIeffsinθ Volt Amperes
Answer: d Reactive (VAR). Reactive power =VeffIeffsinθ
Explanation: Power is defined as the product
Volt Amperes Reactive (VAR).
of voltage and current. So the power drawn
by the load is P = 3VPhIPhcosØ = 24kW.
4. The power factor is the ratio of ________
power to the ______ power.
TOPIC 1.13 INSTANTANEOUS, a) average, apparent
b) apparent, reactive
REACTIVE AND APPARENT c) reactive, average
POWER d) apparent, average
1. The reactive power equation (Pr) is? Answer: a

Explanation: The power factor is the ratio of
a) Ieff2 (ωL)sin2(ωt+θ) average power to the apparent power. Power
b) Ieff2 (ωL)cos2(ωt+θ) factor =(average power)/(apparent power).
c) Ieff2 (ωL)sin(ωt+θ) 5. The expression of true power (Ptrue) is?
d) Ieff2 (ωL)cos(ωt+θ) a) Pasinθ
b) Pacosθ
Answer: a
c) Patanθ
Explanation: If we consider a circuit
consisting of a pure inductor, the power in the d) Pasecθ
inductor is reactive power and the reactive
power equation (Pr) is Pr =Ieff2 Answer: b
Explanation: True power is the product of
(ωL)sin2(ωt+θ). the apparent power and cosθ. The expression
of true power (Ptrue) is Pacosθ. True power =
2. Reactive power is expressed in?
a) Watts (W) Pacosθ.
b) Volt Amperes Reactive (VAR)
c) Volt Ampere (VA) 6. The average power (Pavg) is expressed as?
d) No units a) Pasecθ
b) Patanθ
Answer: b
Explanation: Reactive power is expressed in c) Pacosθ
Volt Amperes Reactive (VAR) and power is d) Pasinθ
Answer: c 10. In the question 8 determine the average

Explanation: The average power is the power.
product of the apparent power and cosθ. The a) 365
average power (Pavg) is expressed as Pacosθ. b) 370
Average power = Pacosθ. c) 375
d) 380
7. The equation of reactive power is?
Answer: c
a) Pacosθ
Explanation: The average power, Pavg =
b) Pasecθ
VeffIeffcosθ. We know the values of Veff, Ieff
c) Pasinθ
are Veff = 625 and Ieff – 0.6.So the average
d) Patanθ
power = 625 x 0.6 = 375W.
Answer: c
Explanation: The reactive power is the TOPIC 1.14 STAR DELTA
product of the apparent power and sinθ. The CONVERSION.
equation of reactive power is Pasinθ. Reactive
power = Pasinθ. 1. Find the equivalent delta circuit.
8. A sinusoidal voltage v = 50sinωt is applied

to a series RL circuit. The current in the
circuit is given by I = 25sin (ωt-53⁰).
Determine the apparent power (VA).
a) 620
b) 625
c) 630
d) 635
Answer: c
Explanation: The expression of apparent a) 9.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
power (VA) is Papp= VeffIeff = (Vm/√2)×(Im/ b) 10.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
√2). On substituting the values Vm = 50, Im c) 9.69 ohm, 34.71 ohm, 6.59 ohm
=25, we get apparent power = (50×25)/2 = d) 10.69 ohm, 35.71 ohm, 7.59 ohm
625VA.
Answer: a
9. Find the power factor in the question 8. Explanation: Using the star to delta
a) 0.4 conversion:
b) 0.5 R1 = 4.53+6.66+4.53*6.66/1.23 = 35.71 ohm
c) 0.6 R2 = 4.53+1.23+4.53*1.23/6.66 = 6.59 ohm
d) 0.7 R3 = 1.23+6.66+1.23*6.66/4.53 = 9.69 ohm.
Answer: c 2. Which, among the following is the correct
Explanation: In sinusoidal sources the power expression for star-delta conversion?
factor is the cosine of the phase angle a) R1=Ra*Rb/(Ra+Rb+Rc),
between the voltage and the current. The R2=Rb*Rc/(Ra+Rb+Rc),
expression of power factor = cosθ = cos53⁰ = R3=Rc*Ra/(Ra+Rb+Rc)b)
0.6.
b) R1=Ra/(Ra+Rb+Rc), R2=Rb/(Ra+Rb+Rc), 4. Delta connection is also known

Rc=/(Ra+Rb+Rc) as____________
c) R1=Ra+Rb+Ra*Rb/Rc, a) Y-connection
R2=Rc+Rb+Rc*Rb/Ra, b) Mesh connection
R3=Ra+Rc+Ra*Rc/Rb c) Either Y-connection or mesh connection
d) R1=Ra*Rb/Rc, R2=Rc*Rb/Ra, d) Neither Y-connection nor mesh connection
R3=Ra*Rc/Rb
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: Delta connection is also known
Explanation: After converting to delta, each as mesh connection because its structure is
delta connected resistance is equal to the sum like a mesh, that is, a closed loop which is
of the two resistance it is connected planar.
to+product of the two resistances divided by
the remaining resistance. Hence 5. Ra is resistance at A, Rb is resistance at B,
R1=Ra+Rb+Ra*Rb/Rc, Rc is resistance at C in star connection. After
R2=Rc+Rb+Rc*Rb/Ra, transforming to delta, what is resistance
R3=Ra+Rc+Ra*Rc/Rb. between B and C?
a) Rc+Rb+Rc*Rb/Ra
3. Find the equivalent resistance between X b) Rc+Rb+Ra*Rb/Rc
and Y. c) Ra+Rb+Ra*Rc/Rb
d) Rc+Rb+Rc*Ra/Rb
Answer: a
Explanation: After converting to the delta,
each delta connected resistance is equal to the
sum of the two resistances it is connected
to+product of the two resistances divided by
the remaining resistance. Hence, resistance
between B and C = Rc+Rb+Rc*Rb/Ra.
6. Ra is resistance at A, Rb is resistance at B,
a) 3.33 ohm Rc is resistance at C in star connection. After
b) 4.34 ohm transforming to delta, what is resistance
c) 5.65 ohm between A and C?
d) 2.38 ohm a) Ra+Rb+Ra*Rb/Rc
b) Ra+Rc+Ra*Rc/Rb
Answer: d c) Ra+Rb+Ra*Rc/Ra
Explanation: The 3 2ohm resistors are d) Ra+Rc+Ra*Rb/Rc
connected in star, changing them to delta, we
have R1=R2=R3= 2+2+2*2/2=6 ohm. Answer: b
The 3 6ohm resistors are connected in parallel Explanation: After converting to the delta,
to the 10 ohm 5 ohm and 10ohm resistors each delta connected resistance is equal to the
respectively. sum of the two resistances it is connected
This network can be further reduced to a to+product of the two resistances divided by
network consisting of a 3.75ohm and the remaining resistance. Hence, resistance
2.73ohm resistor connected in series whose between A and C = Ra+Rc+Ra*Rc/Rb.
resultant is intern connected in parallel to the
3.75 ohm resistor.
7. Ra is resistance at A, Rb is resistance at B, 10. Find the equivalent resistance between A

Rc is resistance at C in star connection. After and B.
transforming to delta, what is resistance
between A and B?
a) Rc+Rb+Ra*Rb/Rc
b) Ra+Rb+Ra*Rc/Rb
c) Ra+Rb+Ra*Rb/Rc
d) Ra+Rc+Ra*Rc/Rb
Answer: c
Explanation: After converting to the delta, a) 32ohm
each delta connected resistance is equal to the b) 31ohm
sum of the two resistances it is connected c) 30ohm
to+product of the two resistances divided by d) 29ohm
the remaining resistance. Hence, resistance
between A and B = Ra+Rb+Ra*Rb/Rc. Answer: d
Explanation: The equivalent resistance
8. If a 1ohm 2ohm and 32/3ohm resistor is between node 1 and node 3 in the star
connected in star, find the equivalent delta connected circuit is R=
connection. (10×10+10×11+11×10)/11=29ohm.
a) 34 ohm, 18.67 ohm, 3.19 ohm
b) 33 ohm, 18.67 ohm, 3.19 ohm
c) 33 ohm, 19.67 ohm, 3.19 ohm
d) 34 ohm, 19.67 ohm, 3.19 ohm
UNIT II ELECTRICAL
Answer: a
Explanation: Using the formula for delta to MACHINES
star conversion:
Using the formula for delta to star TOPIC 2.1 TYPES OF MOTOR,
conversion:
R1=1+2+1*2/(32/3)
CONSTRUCTION, PRINCIPLE
R2=1+32/3+1*(32/3)/2
R3=2+32/3+2*(32/3)/1. 1. What is the special feature of single phase
induction motor?
9. If an 8/9ohm, 4/3ohm and 2/3ohm resistor a) high starting torque
is connected in star, find its delta equivalent. b) low starting torque
a) 4ohm, 3ohm, 2ohm c) average starting torque
b) 1ohm, 3ohm, 2ohm d) zero starting torque
c) 4ohm, 1ohm, 2ohm
d) 4ohm, 3ohm, 1ohm Answer: d
Explanation: The single phase induction
Answer: a motor has no inherent starting torque. Thus
Explanation: Using the formula for the star special means should be used to make it self
to delta conversion: starting.
R1=8/9+4/3+(8/9)*(4/3)/(2/3)
R2=8/9+2/3+(8/9)*(2/3)/(4/3) 2. How many methods are present in the self
R3=2/3+4/3+(2/3)*(4/3)/(8/9). starting of the single phase induction motor?
a) 1
b) 2 Answer: d
c) 3 Explanation: The running winding displaces
d) 4 the starting winding by 90°. The required
phase displacement is obtained by connecting
Answer: c a suitable impedance in series with any of the
Explanation: There are 3 methods involved windings.
in the self starting of the single phase
induction motor. They are split phase starting, 6. When is the starting winding cut out of the
shaded pole starting, repulsion motor starting. circuit in the split phase motor?
a) when the motor speed reaches 65 % of the
3. What are the names of the windings used in full load speed
the split phase starting? b) when the motor speed reaches 75 % of the
a) starting windings full load speed
b) auxiliary windings c) when the motor speed reaches 50 % of the
c) starting or auxiliary windings full load speed
d) starting and auxiliary windings d) when the motor speed reaches 85 % of the
full load speed
Answer: c
Explanation: The single phase induction Answer: b
motor is not self starting. The starting or Explanation: The single phase induction
auxiliary windings are used along with the motor is not a self starting machine and hence
running or main windings. starting windings are connected in series with
the running winding. The starting windings
4. What is the displacement of the running are cut out when the motor speed reaches 75
and the starting windings used? % of the full load speed.
a) running winding displaces the starting
winding by 180° 7. What is the shaded pole starting method?
b) running winding displaces the starting a) part of the pole is shaded by open circuited
winding by 90° copper ring
c) starting winding displaces the running b) part of the pole is shaded by short circuited
winding by 90° copper ring
d) starting winding displaces the running c) the pole is shaded by open circuited copper
winding by 180° ring
d) the pole is shaded by short circuited copper
Answer: b ring
Explanation: The split phase starting makes
use of the starting windings along with the Answer: b
running windings. The running winding Explanation: One of the starting methods of
displaces the starting windings by 900. the single phase induction motor is the shaded
pole starting method. Here the part of the pole
5. How is the required phase displacement is shaded by the short circuited copper ring.
between the current in the running and
starting windings obtained? 8. What happens in the shaded pole starting
a) by connecting a suitable resistor method according to the displacement?
b) by connecting a suitable capacitor a) displacement between shaded and
c) by connecting a suitable inductor unshaded portion varies between 20°-25°
d) by connecting a suitable impedance b) displacement between shaded and
unshaded portion varies between 20°-35°
c) displacement between shaded and Answer: c

unshaded portion varies between 20°-30° Explanation: The repulsion motor starting
d) displacement between shaded and method is one of the methods used in the
unshaded portion varies between 30°-45° starting of the single phase induction motor.
Here the cage winding is replaced by the
Answer: c commutator windings.
Explanation: The shaded pole starting
method is that the part of the pole is shaded 12. What happens in the repulsion motor
by short circuited copper ring. The starting method?
displacement between shaded and unshaded a) the cage windings is dominant
portion varies between 200-300. b) the commutator windings are dominant
c) the rotor windings are dominant
9. For what type of machines is the shaded d) the stator windings are dominant
pole starting method suitable?
a) for outputs below 60 watt Answer: b
b) for output below 50 watt Explanation: The repulsion motor starting
c) for output below 40 watt method is one of the starting methods of
d) for output above 50 watt single phase induction motor. The
commutator windings are dominant and
Answer: a hence gives good starting torque.
Explanation: The efficiency of the shaded
pole starting method is very low. The shaded 13. What is the range of output watt for the
pole starting method is used for outputs shaded pole induction machine?
below 60 watts. a) 0.37-50
b) 90-750
10. When is the repulsion motor starting c) 90-3700
method used? d) 7.5-370
a) when low starting torque is required
b) when high starting torque is required Answer: a
c) when high running torque is required Explanation: The range of output watt for
d) when low running torque is required capacitor type induction motor is 90-750 and
that of the repulsion start motor is 90-3700.
Answer: b The range of output watt for resistor type
Explanation: The repulsion motor starting induction motor is 7.5-370 and that of the
method is one of the 3 methods of starting the shaded pole type is 0.37-50.
single phase induction motor. It is used when
the high starting torque is required. 14. What is the range of the starting current of
capacitor type induction motor?
11. What is the specialty in the repulsion a) 5-7
motor starting method? b) 4–6
a) cage winding is replaced by armature c) 2-6
windings d) 2-3
b) cage winding is replaced by field windings
c) cage winding is replaced by commutator Answer: b
windings Explanation: The range of starting current is
d) cage winding is replaced by bearings 5-7 for resistor type induction motor and that
of the repulsion start motor is 2-3. The range
of the starting current of capacitor induction Answer: a

motor is 4-6. Explanation: In a DC machine magnetic
structure is such that the flux density wave in
15. What is the range of the starting torque of the air gap is flat topped with quarter wave
shaded pole induction motor? symmetry as long as armature current is equal
a) 2-4 to 0. For non-zero value of armature current,
b) 2-3.5 this quarter wave symmetry is disturbed
c) 0.2-0.3 because of armature reaction.
d) 0.25-0.5
3. In a DC machine, average energy stored in
Answer: c the magnetic field remains constant
Explanation: The range of starting torque in independent of the armature rotation.
the capacitor induction motor is 2-3.5 and that a) True
of the repulsion start induction motor is 2-4. b) False
The range of the starting torque of the shaded
pole induction motor is 0.2-0.3. Answer: True
Explanation: In a DC machine, barring the
irrecoverable losses of both electric and
TOPIC 2.2 EMF AND TORQUE magnetic origin, there is balance between
EQUATION OF MOTOR electrical and mechanical powers of the
machine; the average energy stored in the
1. In which mode machine is operating, given magnetic field remains constant irrespective
that conductor current is in the same direction of armature rotation.
of conductor emf?
a) Motoring 4. Emf produced by DC machine, for zero
b) Generating armature current (E1) and non-zero armature
c) Can’t be determined using directions current (E2) can be related as__________
d) In both modes for different cycles a) E1 = E2
b) E1 > E2
Answer: b c) E1 < E2
Explanation: If the conductor current is in d) Can’t be determined
the same direction of conductor emf then
machine outputs electrical power and absorbs Answer: a
mechanical power. So, when mechanical Explanation: In a DC machine flux density
power is absorbed machine is said to be in a wave in the air gap is flat topped with quarter
generating mode. When conductor emf and wave symmetry as long as armature current is
conductor current are in opposite directions equal to 0. For non-zero value of armature
then machine is said to be in a motoring current, this quarter wave symmetry is
mode. disturbed because of armature reaction. Emf
produced is independent of B-wave shape,
2. Nature of the flux density wave in the air thus we will get same value for both cases.
gap is__________ (for armature current equal
to 0) 5. Average coil emf for 20 coil turns (E1) and
a) Flat topped with quarter wave symmetry 40 coil turns (E2), will have ratio
b) Point topped with quarter wave symmetry E1/E2=____ (assuming all other parameters
c) Flat topped with half wave symmetry same for both machines).
d) Point topped with half wave symmetry a) 1/2
b) 2/1
c) 1/4 b) 3
d) 4/1 c) 2.5
d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation: Emf generated in a DC Answer: c
machine is directly proportional to number of Explanation: In an emf equation Nc= Cp *
coil turns, Flux per pole, number of poles and Np. Here, Cp= coils/ parallel path. Np is
armature speed in rad/s. Thus, ratio E1/E2= defined as number of turns per parallel paths
20/40 (assuming all other parameters same which is also called as ratio of total armature
for both machines). conductors to the twice of number of parallel
paths. Np= 10/(2*2)= 10/4= 2.5.
6. What is the average coil emf generated in a
4-pole DC machine having flux/pole equal to 9.What is the torque equation in terms of B,
0.1 wb rotating at 1500 rpm? (No. of coil Ic, l, Zr (r= mean air gap radius)?
sides = 100) a) Bav*Ic*l*Zr
a) 19 kV b) Bav*Ic*l/Zr
b) 1.9 kV c) Bav*Ic*Zr/l
c) 190 V d) Can’t be expressed
d) 19 V
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: Avg. conductor force f=
Explanation: Average coil emf generated= Bav*l*Ic. Here, Bav= Average flux density
∅ωNP/π. over pole, l= acyive conductor length. Thus,
E= 0.1*1500*100*4/3.14 torque T= Z*f = Bav*l*Ia*Z. This torque is
E= 60000/3.14 constant because both the flux density wave
E≅ 19 Kv. and current distribution is fixed in space at all
times.
7. Emf and torque produced in a DC machine T developed= Bav*Ic*l*Zr (Here, r= mean
are proportional to ________ and _________ air gap radius).
respectively.
a) Armature speed and armature emf 10. What is the value of pole pitch (in SI unit)
b) Armature emf and armature speed for mean air gap radius= 0.5mm and P=4?
c) Armature current and armature emf a) 0.785* 10-6
d) Armature speed and armature current b) 0.785* 10-3
c) 0.785* 10-2
Answer: d
Explanation: Average coil emf generated= d) 0.785* 10-4
∅ωNP/π. Machine torque = ka*∅*Ia. Thus,
average coil emf generated can also be Answer: b
Explanation: Pole pitch is called as center to
represented as ka*∅*ω. So, average coil emf
center distance between two adjacent poles.
is directly proportional to ω (armature speed) When measured in electrical degrees one pole
and average torque is directly proportional to itch is equal to 1800. Pole pitch can be
Ia (armature current). calculated as ratio of 2πr/P.
8. What is the value of Np in an average coil Pole pitch= 2*3.14* 0.5* 10-3 / 4= 0.785* 10-
emf equation, for 10 armature conductors 3 m.
with 2 parallel paths?
a) 2
TOPIC 2.3 MOTOR -

APPLICATION SPEED
CONTROL
1. The PWM control of DC motor varies

_________
a) linearly with speed
b) inversely with speed
c) parabolically with speed
d) exponentially with speed
Answer: a
Explanation: In PWM technique duty ratio is
a linear function with respect to speed.
2. Ward-Leonard system of system of speed

control is not recommended for _________
a) constant speed operation
b) Wide speed
c) frequent-motor reversed
d) very slow speed b)
Answer: a
Explanation: Ward-Leonard system of
system of speed control is not recommended
for constant speed operation.
3. Mark the wrong option. Which of the

following cause and effect behaviour in speed
control is correct when field resistance is
increased.
a) Decrease in flux
b) Increase in armature current
c)
c) Increase in EMF
d) Decrease in speed
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: Field resistance speed control
Explanation: When field resistance is will make the speed above the base speed
increased, emf actually decreases, not control.
increases due to fall in flux.
5. At a very low speed, increase in field
4. The effect of field resistance speed control
resistance will _________
on a shunt motor speed torque characteristic
a) decrease the speed of motor
is?
b) increase the speed of motor
a) c) not have signicant effect on speed
d) no effect
Answer: a
Explanation: At low speed increase in
armature current caused by decrease in emf,
will not be enough to compensate for
decrease in flux in induced torque equation.
6. Small DC motors have best speed control

by _________
a) armature voltage control
b) field resistance control
c) any of the methods
Answer: a c)
Explanation: For the small dc motors it is
difficult to vary the speed using their field
control.
7. To implement armature voltage control, it

must be ensured that _________
a) it is used on separately excited machine
b) it is used on shunt machine
c) it is used on series machine
d) any of the mentioned machine
Answer: a d)
Explanation: It must be separately excited
mahcine to implement the armature voltage
control.
8. The armature resistance speed control is

best illustrated by which of the following?
a)
Answer: a
Explanation: As the field resistance increases
the speed decreases.
9. Armature voltage control works for speeds

b) _____ base speed and field resistance control
works well for speed _____ base speed.
a) below, above
b) above, below
c) above, above
d) below, below
Answer: a
Explanation: For armature voltage control,
armature current is increased so as to reduce
speed below base speed. In field control flux
is reduced so the speed would be above base
speed.
10. How does the power varies with the

variations in the speed, for a dc shunt motor?
a) d)
b)
Answer: a
Explanation: After the base speed is attained,
the power consumed becomes constant as the
speed remains constant in a shunt machine.
11. The torque limit of speed for a shunt

motor _________
a) remains constant till base speed
b) remains constant after base speed
c) varies linearly after base speed
d) varies inversely till base speed
Answer: a
c) Explanation: The torque limit of the shunt
motor remains constant till the base speed.
12. A laboratory group was working with a

set of 3-hp shunt DC motor. But there was a
mistake that it was fused with a 0.3A fuse
instead 3A fuse. Then it was started
_________
a) a flash occurred instantly
b) it ran for 3s and fuse was blown
c) it ran normal constructed of ferromagnetic material with

d) none of the mentioned salient poles.
Answer: b 2. In a three-stack 12/8-pole VR motor, the

Explanation: Due to the wrong usage of the rotor pole pitch is
fuse wire, it could not sustain the current and a) 15º
in few seconds it was blown off. b) 30º
c) 45º
13. Run-away for large DC machine is d) 60º
avoided by using _________
a) a turn or two of cumulative compounding Answer: c
b) compensating winding Explanation: Pole pitch is defined as the
c) stablizer winding number of armature slots to the pole pitch and
d) all of the mentioned here this has been converted into degrees.
Answer: b 3. A stepper motor having a resolution of 300

Explanation: The runaway in large machine steps/rev and running at 2400 rpm has a pulse
is avoided by using compensating winding. rate of- pps.
a) 4000
14. Why does DC motor sometimes run too b) 8000
fast when under-loaded? c) 6000
a) Due to weak field d) 10,000
b) Due to high line voltage
c) Due to brush-shifted to neutral Answer: c
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Pulse per second is
mathematically given as PPS = (Rpm/60)*
Answer: a (number of steps per minute).
Explanation: All of the reasons cause the dc
motor to increase in speed when under 4. If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch
loaded. of 36º and a step angle of 9º, the number of
its phases must be
a) 4
TOPIC 2.4 BASICS OF STEPPER b) 2
MOTOR c) 3
d) 6
1. A variable reluctance stepper motor is
constructed of ______________ material with Answer: a
salient poles. Explanation: Step angle is defined as =(Ns-
a) Paramagnetic Nr)/(Ns+Nr)*360.
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic 5. The rotor of a stepper motor has no
d) Non-magnetic a) Windings
b) Commutator
Answer: b c) Brushes
Explanation: A variable reluctance stepper d) All of the mentioned
motor is the motor that has motion in steps
with respect to increase in time and Answer: d
Explanation: The rotor is the rotatory part of
the motor of a stepper motor and has no c) Dc to ac

windings, commutator and brushes. d) Digital-to-analogue
6. A stepping motor is a ____________ Answer: d

device. Explanation: A stepper motor is a motor in
a) Mechanical which the motion is in steps and it is an
b) Electrical increemental device and may be considered
c) Analogue as a digital to analog converter.
d) Incremental
10. What is the step angle of a permanent-
Answer: d magnet stepper motor having 8 stator poles
Explanation: A stepping motor is a motor in and 4 rotor poles?
which the motion in the form of steps and is a a) 60º
incremental device i which as the time b) 45º
increases the steps are increased. c) 30º
d) 15º
7. The rotational speed of a given stepper
motor is determined solely by the Answer: b
a) Shaft load Explanation: Step angle is defined as =(Ns-
b) Step pulse frequency Nr)/(Ns+Nr)*360 where Ns is the number of
c) Polarity of stator current stator poles and Nr is the number of rotor
d) Magnitude of stator current. poles.
Answer: b
Explanation: The stator part of a motor is the TOPIC 2.5 BRUSHLESS DC
stationary part of the motor and rotational MOTORS
speed of a given stepper motor is given by the
step pulse frequency. 1. In BLDC motor field winding is kept on
_______________
8. Which of the following phase switching a) Stator
sequence represents half-step operation of a b) Rotor
VR stepper motor ? c) Can be placed anywhere
a) A, B, C,A…….. d) Absent
b) A, C, B,A…….
c) AB, BC, CA, AB…….. Answer: b
d) A, AB, B, BC…….. Explanation: Unlike conventional DC motor,
BLDC motor has its field winding rotating.
Answer: d Unlike PMDC motor field winding is present.
Explanation: In the half step operation of a Thus, it is placed on rotor. In BLDC motor
Variable reluctance motor physical step we have fixed commutators, with brush gear
resolution is multiplied by 2 and control rotating with speed of rotor field.
signals appear to be digital rather than analog.
2. By electronic circuitry BLDC can be
9. A stepper motor may be considered as a controlled for both constant and variable
____________ converter. torque operation.
a) Dc to dc a) True
b) Ac to ac b) False
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: In BLDC because of rotor Explanation: BLDC motors are widely used
position feedback triggering of in various applications of medical industry.
thyristors/transistors, the stator and rotor field Sensor less BLDC motor and with sensor
always remain in synchronism as the BLDC motors are used because of easy
frequency of triggering automatically adjusts operation and high reliability compare to
to motor speed. The length of on-time of the conventional motors.
transistors determines motor torque
magnitude. 6. Construction of BLDC is exactly similar to
the ______________
3. Which of the following is not an advantage a) Conventional DC motor
of BLDC motor over conventional DC motor. b) Induction motor
a) Less maintenance c) Permanent magnet synchronous motor
b) Long life d) Totally different construction
c) No risk of explosion or possibility of RF
radiation Answer: c
d) Low cost Explanation: Construction of BLDC motor is
exactly similar to the PMSM i.e. permanent
Answer: d magnet synchronous motor. BLDC is
Explanation: The brushless DC motor being considered as machine working like DC with
more expensive compare to DC motor of construction similar to the AC synchronous
same kW ratings, serves many other machine.
advantages like long life, less maintenance,
rapid response, linear characteristic, no 7. Typical brushless motor doesn’t have
sparking and many more. ______________
a) Commutator
4. In BLDC motor driver module, we do not b) Permanent magnet
require ______________ c) Electronic controller
a) SCRs d) Fixed armature
b) Power transistors
c) FETs Answer: a
d) Transistors Explanation: A typical brushless motor has
permanent magnets which rotate around a
Answer: d fixed armature. An electronic controller
Explanation: The stator is connected to a replaces the brush-commutator assembly of
variable voltage current source through an the brushed conventional DC motor, which
inductor and an inverter comprising six SCRs continually switches the phase to the
(S1 to S6). In place of SCRs, power transistor windings to keep the motor turning.
or FETs could be used according to power
rating of the motor. 8. BLDC can be used instead ____________
a) Synchronous motor
5. In medical fields which DC motor is b) Normal brushed DC motor
widely used? c) Induction motor
a) PMDC d) Air motor
b) BLDC
c) Brushed DC motor Answer: b
d) Cannot be determined Explanation: Brushless motors fulfil almost
all functions originally performed by brushed
DC motors, but cost and control complexity b) Low LV currents

prevent brushless motors from replacing c) High impedance
brushed motors completely in the lowest-cost d) On-load tap-changer
areas. Brushless motors are now dominating
many applications, particularly devices such Answer: d
as computer hard drives and CD/DVD Explanation: An on-load tapchanger is
players. required to allow for variation of the HV
system volts and generator power factor. LV
volts will generally remain within š5% under
TOPIC 2.6 TRANSFORMERS- the control of the generator automatic voltage
INTRODUCTION- TYPES AND regulator (AVR).
CONSTRUCTION
4. Generator transformers can undergo
sudden load-changes.
1. Generator transformers are
a) True
________________
b) False
a) Step-up transformers
b) Step-down transformers Answer: a
c) Auto-transformers Explanation: Generator transformers may be
d) One-one transformers subjected to sudden load rejection due to
operation of the electrical protection on the
Answer: a
generator. This can lead to the application of
Explanation: Generator transformers are
a sudden overvoltage to the terminals
employed in generating stations to connect
connected to the generator.
the power station to the transmission system.
Generator transformers step up the generator 5. Station transformers are generally used for
output at low voltage to the voltage at which ____________
the transmission system operates. a) Providing generator voltage to
transmission
2. In the CCGT, how many step-up
b) Providing power to load from transmission
transformers will require?
c) Isolating DC
a) 3
d) To supply power section auxiliary
b) 4
c) 5 Answer: d
d) 6 Explanation: The station transformer
generally supplies the power station auxiliary
Answer: b
system for starting up the boiler/turbine
Explanation: In the case of combined cycle
generator unit or gas turbine/generator and for
gas turbine (CCGT) plants this can mean
supplying those loads which are not
having four step-up transformers, three
specifically associated with the generating
associated with the gas turbines (each rated
unit, for example lighting supplies, cranes,
about 150 MW) and one with the steam
workshops and other services.
turbine (rated about 250 MW) on a single
unit. 6. Which of the following does not follow the
criteria of station transformer?
3. Which of the following is one of the
a) LV at 11 kV
criteria of selecting particular generator
b) HV at 275-400 kV
transformer?
a) Low HV voltage
c) Low impedance c) 400 kV

d) On-load tap-changer required d) Not required
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: According to the UK standards, Explanation: Paralleling of unit and station
Impedance must be such that it can be transformers during changeover of station and
paralleled with the unit transformer at 11 kV unit supplies can result in a large circulating
to allow changeover from station to unit current between station and unit switchboard.
supplies and vice versa without loss of This generally adds to the unit transformer
continuity and without exceeding the load current, and subtracts from that of the
permissible fault level for the unit and station station transformer.
switchgear this usually means that it is about
15%. 10. On-load power factor for generator
transformer is __________
7. Operating load factor of station transformer a) high
must be _________ b) low
a) low c) can’t define
b) high d) zero
c) zero
d) infinite Answer: a
Explanation: in the case of the generator
Answer: a transformer, operating load factor is high, so
Explanation: Operating load factor is low, that load losses and no-load losses should
i.e. for much of its life the station transformer both be as low as is economically practicable.
will run at half-load or less. Load losses can (Except in some nuclear stations, where two
therefore be relatively high, but fixed losses fully rated unit transformers are provided per
should be as low as possible. unit for system security purposes.)
8. For a unit transformer HV voltage must be Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning
_____________ Series – Transformers.
a) 400 kV
b) 200 kV
c) 24 kV
TOPIC 2.7 WORKING
d) 100 kV PRINCIPLE OF IDEAL
TRANSFORMER
Answer: c
Explanation: The HV voltage is relatively 1. A transformer cannot work on the DC
low, being equal to the generator output supply because __________________
voltage, i.e. usually between 11 and 23.5 kV. a) There is no need to change the DC voltage
The LV voltage is usually 11 kV nominal, b) A DC circuit has more losses
although on some combined cycle gas turbine c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic
stations 6.6 kV is used to supply the unit induction are not valid since the rate of
auxiliaries. change of flux is zero
d) Cannot be determined
9. What voltage of On-load tap-changer is
required for unit transformer? Answer: c
a) 11 kV Explanation: For DC supply the direction
b) 23 kV and the magnitude of the supply remains
constant, produced flux will be constant. does have a small amount of leakage flux
Thus, rate of change of flux through the which can be accounted in detailed analysis
windings will be equal to zero. As a result, by appropriate circuit modelling.
voltage at secondary will always be equal to
0. 5. An ideal transformer will have maximum
efficiency at a load such that _____________
2. An ideal transformer has infinite primary a) copper loss = iron loss
and secondary inductances. b) copper loss < iron loss
a) True c) copper loss > iron loss
b) False d) cannot be determined
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: The primary and secondary Explanation: Maximum efficiency of a
windings have zero resistance. It means that transformer is defined at the that values when,
there is no ohmic power loss and no resistive copper losses become completely equal to the
voltage drop in the ideal transformer. An iron losses. In all other cases the efficiency
actual transformer has finite but small will be lower than the maximum value.
winding resistances.
6. Which of the following statement
3. In a transformer the resistance between its regarding an ideal single-phase transformer is
primary and secondary is ______________ incorrect? Transformer is having a turn ratio
a) Zero of 1: 2 and drawing a current of 10 A from
b) Very small 200 V AC supply is incorrect?
c) Cannot be predicted a) It’s a step-up transformer
d) Infinite b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V
c) Its rating is 2 kVA
Answer: d d) Its secondary current is 20 A
Explanation: Since the primary and
secondary windings are not connected to each Answer: d
other, one can say there exists the resistance Explanation: Since turns ratio is equal to 1:2
of infinite ohms. These windings are the transformer will give higher voltage at
connected to each other magnetically not secondary with respect to the primary
electrically. voltage, and current in secondary thus will be
halved. In last option current is doubled
4. Identify the correct statement relating to which is opposite to the ratings given.
the ideal transformer.
a) no losses and magnetic leakage 7. Ideal transformer core has permeability
b) interleaved primary and secondary equal to _____
windings a) Zero
c) a common core for its primary and b) Non-zero finite
secondary windings c) Negative
d) core of stainless steel and winding of pure d) Infinite
copper metal
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: The core has infinite
Explanation: There is no leakage flux so that permeability so that zero magnetizing current
all the flux is confined to the core and links is needed to establish the requisite amount of
both the windings. An actual transformer
flux in the core. The core-loss (hysteresis as turns on a common magnetic core. The
well as eddy-current loss) is considered zero. voltage of the source to which the primary is
connected is v = √2 V cos wt. while the
8.Turns ratio of the transformer is directly secondary is initially assumed to be an open
proportional to ____________ circuited. As a consequence, flux f is
a) Resistance ratio established in the core such that e = v = N1
b) Currents ratio dφ/dt.
c) Voltage ratio
d) Not proportional to any terms 11. Which of the following is the wrong
expression?
Answer: c a) i1N1=i2N2
Explanation: According to the voltage b) i1v1=i2v2
expression, emf induced in the primary is
c) i1N2=i2N1
directly proportional to the change in the flux
with respect to the time and number of turns d) v2N1=v1N2
of the primary winding. Similarly, for
secondary winding. Answer: c
Explanation: According to the
9. Which of the following statement is correct transformation ratio, current flowing through
regarding turns ratio? the transformer is inversely proportional to
a) Current ratio and turns ratio are inverse of the number turns of winding and voltage
each other applied across it. While, voltage applied is
b) Current ratio is exactly same to the voltage directly proportional to the number of turns.
ratio
c) Currents ratio is exactly same to the turns 12. For transformer given, turns ratio is equal
ratio to a, what will be the impedance of primary
d) Voltage ratio and turns ratio are inverse of with respect to secondary?
each other a) a2 times the secondary impedance
b) a times secondary impedance
Answer: a c) secondary impedance/a
Explanation: Voltage ratio of transformer
d) secondary impedance/a2
winding is exactly similar to the turns ratio of
transformer, while voltage ratio and turns Answer: d
ratio is exactly inverse of the currents ratio. Explanation: The ratio of impedances on
Hence, by knowing any of these quantities on primary to the secondary is directly
can identify the type of transformer. proportional to the inverse of square of turns
ratio of transformer. Hence primary
10. Which of the following is the expression impedance to the secondary impedance ratio
for emf induced in primary with voltage
applied to primary of an ideal transformer? will be 1/ a2.
a) e=V
13. Power transformed in the ideal
b) V= √2*e*cos ωt
transformer with turns ratio a is _______
c) e= √2*V*cos ωt
d) Cannot say a) a2 times primary
b) a times primary
Answer: c c) primary power/ a2
Explanation: For an ideal transformer having d) primary power
a primary of N1 turns and a secondary of N2
Answer: d a) by rotating armature windings through a

Explanation: In an ideal transformer, magnetic field
voltages are transformed in the direct ratio of b) by rotating magnetic field with respect to
turns, currents in the inverse ratio and the armature windings
impedances in the direct ratio squared; while c) by designing the magnetic circuit to have
power and VA remain unaltered. Thus, variable reluctance with rotor rotation
primary power= secondary power. d) all of the mentioned
14. For a transformer with primary turns 100, Answer: d

secondary turns 400, if 200 V is applied at Explanation: All of the above mentioned
primary we will get ___________ methods will produce EMF in the armature
a) 80 V at secondary windings.
b) 800 V at secondary
c) 1600 V at secondary 2. The EMF equation e = NωrΦsinωrt is
d) 3200 V at secondary applicable to ____________
a) AC systems with time variant field flux
Answer: b b) DC systems with time variant field flux
Explanation: Voltage in the primary of the c) Both AC and DC systems with time
transformer will get modified in the invariant field flux
transformer secondary, according to the d) Both AC and DC systems with time variant
number of turns. Thus, turns are modified field flux
with 4 times the primary, we’ll get 4 times
higher voltage at secondary. Answer: c
Explanation: e = NωrΦsinωrt-NdΦ/dtcosωrt,
15. For a transformer with primary turns 400,
for time invariant field flux dΦ/dt = 0 ⇒ e =
secondary turns 100, if 20A current is flowing
NωrΦsinωrt, is the general equation, and is
through primary, we will get ___________
a) 80A at secondary applicable to both AC and DC systems.
b) 5A at secondary
c) 800A at secondary 3. In the equation for RMS value of the
d) 40A at secondary generated EMF in a full pitched coil of an AC
machine, E = Emax/√2 = √2πfrNΦ, fr depends
Answer: a on ____________
Explanation: Current in the primary of the a) rotating speed of the armature coil
transformer will get modified in the b) rotating speed of the flux density wave
transformer secondary, according to the c) relative velocity between the flux density
number of turns, in inverse proportion. Thus, wave and armature coil
turns are modified with 1/4 times the primary, d) all of the mentioned
we’ll get 4 times higher current at secondary.
Answer: c
Explanation: fr is called the rotational or
TOPIC 2.8 EMF EQUATION OF
speed frequency, since its value depends upon
TRANSFORMER the relative velocity between the flux density
wave and the armature coil.
1. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the generation of EMF in 4. In AC rotating machines, the generated or
rotating electrical machines in the armature speed EMF ___________
winding? EMF is generated ____________ a) leads Φ by 90°
b) lags Φ by 90° Answer: b

c) is in phase with working flux Explanation: The effect of short pitched coil
d) lags Φ by 180° is to reduce the generated EMF and this
reduction factor is cosε/2 and is referred to as
Answer: b coil pitch factor.
Explanation: e = Emaxcos(ωrt-π/2)
ψ = NΦcosωrt 8. A winding is distributed in the slots along
It reveals that the speed or generated EMF the air gap periphery. Which of the following
statements are true?
lags by 90° the flux that generates it, and is
true when flux is time invariant and is sine
distributed in space.
(i) to add mechanical strength to the win
5. In a short pitched coil, the coil pitch factor ding
kp, is given by ____________
(ii) to reduce the amount of conductor ma
a) kp = cosε terial required
b) kp = cosε/2
(iii) to reduce the harmonics in generate
c) kp = √2πfrNΦcosε d EMF
d) kp = cosε/2cosωrt
(iv) to reduce the size of the machine
Answer: b (v) for full utilization of iron and cond
Explanation: The effect of short pitched coil uctor materials
is to reduce the generated EMF, and this
reduction factor is cosε/2, and is referred to as
coil pitch factor. a) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
b) (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
6. Which of the following equations c) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)
represents the RMS value of the generated d) (i), (iii), (v)
EMF in a short-pitched N-turn armature coil
of an AC machine ____________ Answer: d
a) E = √2πkpfrNΦ Explanation: In rotating electrical machines,
the armature turns are usually distributed in
b) E = 2πkpfrNΦ
slots rather than concentrated in single slot.
c) E = NΦωrkpsinωrt This is essential from the view point of
d) None of the mentioned utilizing the armature periphery completely,
and add mechanical strength.
Answer: a
Explanation: EMF induced = NΦωrkpsinωrt, 9. In an AC machine, the effect of distributing
Emax = NΦωrkp when sinωrt = 1 the turns in different slots, results in a further
RMS value, E = Emax/√2 = √2πfrkpNΦ reduction of generated EMF by the factor kd.
This factor is called ____________
7. The effect of short pitched coil on the a) distribution/speed factor
generated EMF is _____________ b) coil pitch factor
a) increasing c) winding factor
b) decreasing d) all of the mentioned
c) either increasing or decreasing
Answer: a (ω+ωr) = ω+ω(1-s) = ω(2-s) and

Explanation: E = √2πkpkdfrNΦ, kd is the E = 2πf(2-s)NphrkwΦ.
distribution factor.
13. In an alternator, frequency per revolution
10. A polyphase induction motor of the slip is equal to ___________
ring or wound rotor type can be used a) number of poles
____________ b) twice the number of poles
a) for high start-up torque applications c) speed in rps
b) as a frequency converter d) number of pole-pairs
c) any of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: For a P-pole machine, in n
Answer: c rev/sec, P/2n cycles/second are generated and
Explanation: A polyphase induction motor cycles per second is referred to as frequency f
can be used as a frequency converter (or of the EMF wave. Here in this question n=1
changer) for changing the supply frequency f ⇒ frequency per revolution = P/2
to other frequencies sf and (2-s)f at the slip ⇒ number of pole pairs.
ring terminals.
14. The EMF generated in an alternator
11. The equation for slip speed is
depends upon which of the following
____________
statements are correct?
a) (ω-ωr)/ω
b) ω-ωr (i) speed
c) (ωr-ω)/ω
(ii) maximum flux per pole
d) ωr
(iii) series turns per phase
Answer: b
(iv) phase spread
Explanation: The relative speed between
rotor and rotating flux wave, i.e, (ω-ωr) is (v) coil-span
referred to as the slip speed in rad/sec
(vi) type of alternator
slip speed = (ω-ωr) rad/sec.
12. If the rotor of an induction motor is made a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
to revolve in a direction opposite to the b) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
rotating flux wave, then RMS value of EMF c) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi)
induced in one phase of rotor E is d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
proportional to ____________
a) 2-s Answer: b
b) s Explanation: Eph = √2πfkwNphΦ, here Φ =
c) 1-s total flux per pole.
d) 2+s
15. If the dimensions of all the parts of a
Answer: a synchronous generator and the number of
Explanation: Relative velocity between rotor field and armature turns are doubled, then the
winding and rotating flux wave becomes generated voltage will change by a factor of
________
a) 1 (iv) reduced tooth ripples

b) 2
(v) increased total generated EMF
c) 4
d) 8 (vi) saving in winding copper
Answer: d
Explanation: E = √2πfrNΦ, Φ = flux per pole a) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
= 4/pBplr b) (i), (ii), (vi)
c) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi)
dimensions are doubled ⇒ l1 = 2l and r1 = 2r d) (i), (iii), (vi), (iv)
⇒ Φ1 = 4Φ
Answer: b
No. of turns doubled ⇒ N1 = 2N, fr changes
Explanation: The effect of short pitched coil
only when the poles are changed ⇒ fr1 = fr is to reduce the generated EMF, and it
⇒ E1=√2πfr(2N)(4Φ) = 8E improves waveform of EMF generated per
phase, and as the windings are placed closed
The generated voltage will change by a factor
to each other, copper will be saved.
of 8.
18. The DC machines are designed with flat
16. A 6 pole machine is rotating at a speed of
topped flux density waves because
1200rpm. This speed in mechanical rad/sec
_______________
and electrical radians per second is
a) average value of brush voltage is more for
respectively?
a flat topped B-wave
a) 40π, 40π/3
b) average value of brush voltage is less for a
b) 120π, 40π
flat topped B-wave
c) 20π, 60π
c) losses for flat topped B-wave are less
d) 40π, 120π
Answer: d
Answer: a
Explanation: N = 1200rpm,P = 6 and f = Explanation: For the same value of peak flux
PN/120 = 60 cycles per sec.
density Bp, it is easy to see that average value
1cycle = 360° electrical degrees = 2π
electrical radians of brush voltage could be more for a flat
f in electrical radians per sec = 60∗2π topped B-wave than for a sinusoidal flux
electrical radians/sec = 120π elect radians/sec density wave.
speed in mechanical radians/sec = 2/P(speed
in electrical rad/sec) = 2/P(120π)=40π TOPIC 2.9 ALL DAY
mechanical rad/sec. EFFICIENCY CALCULATION.
17. The short pitch winding for an alternator
gives which of the following statements? 1. Which of the statements made here are
correct regarding the transformer?
(i) improved wave form of the generated E
MF per phase I. Maximum voltage regulation occurs at t
he leading p.f.
(ii) reduced value of self inductance of
the winding II. Maximum voltage regulation occurs whe
n load p.f. angle and
(iii) increased rating of machine
impedance angle of the leakage impedance
are same. n load p.f. angle and
III. V.R. at zero p.f. is always zero. impedance angle of the leakage impedance
are same.
IV. V.R. of a transformer may be negative
at leading p.f. III. V.R. at zero p.f. is always zero.
IV. V.R. of a transformer may be negative

a) I, III at leading p.f.
b) II, IV
c) 1, III
d) I, IV, III a) I,III
b) II,IV
Answer: b c) 1,III
Explanation: V.R. is always negative at d) I,IV,III
leading p.f. and the load p.f. angle and
impedance angle of the leakage impedance Answer: a
should be same for maximum V.R. Explanation: V.R. is always negative at
leading p.f. and the load p.f. angle and
2. Which of the statements made here are
correct regarding the transformer?
should be same for maximum V.R.
I. Maximum voltage regulation occurs at t
he leading p.f. 4. Which of the statements made here are
incorrect regarding the transformer?
II. Maximum voltage regulation occurs whe
n load p.f. angle and I. Maximum voltage regulation occurs at t
he leading p.f.
are same. II. Maximum voltage regulation occurs whe
n load p.f. angle and
III. V.R. at zero p.f. is always zero.
IV. V.R. of a transformer may be negative are same.
at leading p.f.
III. V.R. at zero p.f. is always zero.
a) I, II, III IV. V.R. of a transformer may be negative

b) II, IV at leading p.f.
c) 1, III
d) I, IV, III a) I,II,III
b) IV
Answer: a c) 1,III
Explanation: V.R. is always negative at d) I,IV,III
leading p.f. and the load p.f. angle.
Answer: b
3. Which of the statements made here are Explanation: V.R. is always negative at
incorrect regarding the transformer? leading p.f. and the load p.f. angle.
I. Maximum voltage regulation occurs at t
he leading p.f. 5. Which of the following mentioned losses
occur in a transformer?
II. Maximum voltage regulation occurs whe
a) Hysteresis losses; Eddy current losses; c) 204W

Dielectric losses; Stray load losses d) 2.04kW
b) Hysteresis losses; Eddy current losses;
c) Dielectric losses; Stray load losses Answer: a
d) Hysteresis losses; Eddy current losses; Explanation: Efficiency = 1-(losses/input) =
Stray load losses 1-(losses/output+losses)
0.98 = 1-(Losses/20000+losses)
Answer: a Losses = 408 W.
Explanation: Hysteresis losses-due to
magnetic material; Eddy current losses-on the 9. The efficiency of a 20 KVA, 2000/200 V,
core area; Dielectric losses- due to insulation single phase transformer at unity pf is 98%.
material; Stray load losses- due to leakage The given total losses at full load is 200 W.
through the parts of the transformer. The pu resistance is?
a) 0.01
6. Mutual flux ______ at the lagging loading b) 0.1
and it _____ at the leading power factor. c) 1.0
a) decreases, increases d) 0.0196
b) increases, increases
c) decreases, decreases Answer: a
d) increases, decreases Explanation: pu resistance = Ohmic
losses/KVA = 200/20000 = 0.01 pu.
Answer: a
Explanation: The mutual flux falls when the 10. The load current at which maximum
transformer is working at lagging p.f. and it efficiency occurs is independent of the load
increases at leading p.f. power factor.
a) True
7. It is possible to attain maximum efficiency b) False
in a transformer when the ______
a) core losses are equal to rated full load Answer: b
copper losses Explanation: Because Core losses and the
b) core losses are more than rated full load effective resistance of the secondary are
copper losses almost unaffected by load p.f.
c) core losses and full load copper losses are
constant 11. The full load voltage drop in a 1-phase
d) copper loss also becomes constant transformer is 2% and 4% respectively due to
resistance and leakage reactance. Then the
Answer: a voltage drop is maximum at __________
Explanation: Maximum efficiency is a) 0.45 lagging
achieved at the condition when fixed core b) 0.45 leading
losses and copper losses at rated condition are c) 0.9 lagging
equal. d) 0.9 leading
8. The efficiency of a 20 KVA, 2000/200 V, Answer: a

single phase transformer at unity pf is 98%. Explanation: Z = 4.47; cosθ = percentage
The total losses at this condition is? r/percentage z = 2/(4.47) = 0.45.
a) 408W
b) 4.08kW 12. The full load voltage drop in a 1-phase
transformer is 2% and 4% respectively due to
resistance and leakage reactance. Then the

voltage drop is zero at __________
a) 0.45 lagging
b) 0.45 leading
c) 0.9 lagging
d) 0.9 leading
Answer: c
Explanation: Z = 4.47; cosθ = percentage
x/percentage z = 4/4.47 = 0.89.
13. Core losses of a transformer as a function

of frequency is best approximated by which
of the below characteristics?
a)
d)
Answer: a
Explanation: We can represent the core
losses per cycle eq. as Pc/f = A+B*f, where A
b) and B are constants.
14. From the above graph of the core losses

per cycle is, the hysteresis losses per phase
for a transformer at a operating frequency of
40 Hz is?
c)
a) 20W
b) 30W
c) 80W
d) 32W
Answer: a UNIT III UTILIZATION

Explanation: Ph = k1*f = 0.5*40 = 20W. OF ELECTRICAL POWER
15. From the above graph of the core losses
per cycle is, the eddy losses per phase for a TOPIC 3.1 RENEWABLE
transformer at a operating frequency of 40 Hz ENERGY SOURCES
is?
1. Based on usability, Energy Resources are
classified into _____
a) primary, secondary and tertiary resources
b) primary and secondary resources
c) primary, secondary, intermediate and
tertiary resources
d) primary, intermediate and secondary
resources
Answer: d
Explanation: On the basis of usability,
Energy Resources are classified into Primary,
a) 15 W
Intermediate and Secondary Resources.
b) 20W
Primary Resources are present in nature prior
c) 35W
to human interference or modification.
d) 32W
Intermediate Resources are obtained from
Answer: a primary resources after one or more stages of
transformation while Secondary Resources
Explanation: Pe = k2*f2; are the form of energy that is finally supplied
Using the slope of the line, (k2)*50 = 0.8 – to the consumer for utilization.
0.5 = 0.3
(k2) = 0.006 2. Which of the following is not a type of
Pe = 50*50*0.006 = 15 W. primary resource?
a) Crude Oil
16. The efficiency of a transformer can be b) Coal
calculated accurately from ___________ c) Hydrogen Energy
a) Open circuit test, Short circuit test d) Sunlight
b) Open circuit test, Short circuit test,
Sumpner’s test Answer: c
c) Sumpner’s test Explanation: Hydrogen is mainly obtained
d) load test from Fossil Fuels, which are primary sources
of energy. Therefore, Hydrogen energy is a
Answer: a secondary source of energy. Crude Oil, Coal,
Explanation: OC and SC tests together can and Sunlight are the primary source of energy
help to estimate the most correct value of the since they can be directly obtained from
efficiency for the given transformer. nature.
3. The ratio of energy received from a raw And, Er = Energy required to build the system
energy source to energy spent to obtain the Therefore, Ey = Es
=
14
raw energy source is called as _____ 240 3
a) consumption ratio Or, Es = 240 x 14
b) fuel ratio Or, Es = 1120 kJ.

c) energy yield ratio
d) joule ratio 6. Which of the statements is correct about
Solar Energy?
Answer: c a) It is a renewable and conventional source
Explanation: The ratio of the energy of energy
provided by a system (like Wind Energy b) It is a non-renewable and non-conventional
Conversion Systems) over its lifetime to the source of energy
energy required to make it is called its energy c) It is a renewable and non-conventional
yield ratio. source of energy
d) It is a non-renewable source of energy
4. Energy Resources which are being used for
many decades are known as _____ Answer: c
a) conventional energy sources Explanation: Solar energy is a source of
b) non-conventional energy sources energy that has not been used traditionally
c) primary energy sources and is relatively new in terms of usage. Hence
d) fuel cells it is a non-conventional source of energy. It is
unlimited and inexhaustible and hence is a
Answer: a renewable source of energy.
Explanation: Conventional sources of energy
are those sources that are being used 7. Wind and Hydrogen energy are examples
traditionally for a long time i.e. coal, of_________
petroleum, firewood, etc. Non-conventional a) primary sources
sources are relatively new in terms of b) primary and secondary sources
utilization. respectively
c) secondary sources
5. A new renewable energy system is d) tertiary sources
designed to harvest energy from wind. The
total energy required to build the system is Answer: b
240 kJ. The energy yield ratio of the system is Explanation: Wind energy is directly
14:3. The total energy provided by the system available in the environment, so it is a
over its lifetime is _____ primary energy source while Hydrogen
a) 18,000 kJ energy is obtained from fossil fuels and hence
b) 54,000 kJ is a secondary energy source.
c) 1,120 kJ
d) 2,258 kJ 8. On the basis of long-term availability,
resources are classified into____
Answer: c a) conventional and non-conventional
Explanation: We know that the energy yield resources
ratio (Ey) of a system is given by b) renewable and non-renewable resources
Ey = Es c) primary and secondary resources
Er
d) commercial and non-commercial resources
Where Es = Energy supplied by the system
over its lifetime
Answer: b a) True
Explanation: On the basis of traditional use b) False
resources are classified into conventional and
non-conventional resources. On the basis of Answer: b
long-term availability, resources are classified Explanation: Based on Origin, energy
into renewable and non-renewable resources. resources are classified into Fossil fuels,
Based on the usability of energy, resources Nuclear, Solar, Wind, Biomass, Geothermal,
are classified into primary, intermediate and Tidal, Ocean thermal, Ocean wave and Hydro
secondary resources. Based on commercial energy.
applications, resources are classified into
commercial and non-commercial resources. 12. Which of these is the major contributor to
world pollution?
9. Which of these Energy resources is/are a) Commercial resources
widely used in industries? b) Non-Commercial Resources
a) Coal and Gasoline c) Renewable Resources
b) Wood d) Nuclear Energy
c) Biogas
d) Crop Residue Answer: a
Explanation: Commercial resources are the
Answer: a major contributor to world pollution.
Explanation: Coal and gasoline are Resources like Coal, Coke, Gasoline, etc
commercial resources that are widely used in which are used commercially produce a large
industries such as Steel, Cement, Electricity, chunk of total CO2 produced on earth. To
etc. Firewood and crop residue are generally combat this problem and for sustainable
used for domestic purposes. Biogas has some development, renewable sources should
industrial uses such as for electricity replace these forms of energy.
generation but is not used widely.
13. Half of the world’s energy needs are
10. Which of these resources does not fulfilled by renewable energy sources.
produce CO2 during electricity generation? a) True
a) Coal b) False
b) Methane
c) Uranium Answer: b
d) Biogas Explanation: 89 percent of the total energy
produced is from non-renewable resources
Answer: c i.e. Coal(27%), Natural Gas(24%), Oil(34%)
Explanation: Coal, Methane, and Biogas and Nuclear Energy(11%). Only 11% of the
produce CO2 during electricity generation as world’s energy needs are fulfilled by
all of them have some carbon content, which Renewable resources.
on combustion produces CO2. Uranium
14. Which of the energy resources were
produces energy by the process of nuclear considered for large scale use after the oil
fission and does not produce CO2. crisis of 1973?
a) Conventional Sources
11. On the basis of origin, energy resources b) Non-Conventional Sources
are classified into natural and artificial c) Non-renewable sources
resources. d) Primary Sources
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: The oil crisis of 1973 caused Explanation: The energy available in the
oil prices to increase drastically. This also winds over the earth surface is estimated to be
caused the inflation in the price of other 1.6 X 107 MW which is almost the same as
commercial resources. Government of all the the present day energy consumption. Wind
countries felt the need for alternative sources energy can be utilized to run wind mill which
of energy and non-conventional sources like in turn, is used to drive the generators.
solar and wind energy were developed for
large scale use. 3. How much wind power does India hold?
a) 20,000 MW
15. The unit of energy yield ratio is _____ b) 12,000 MW
a) joule c) 140,000 MW
b) watt d) 5000 MW
c) joule/Kelvin
d) dimensionless Answer: a
Explanation: India has a potential of 20,000
Answer: d MW of wind power. Wind power accounts
Explanation: Energy yield ratio is the ratio of nearly 9.87% of India’s total installed power
energy provided by a system to the energy generation capacity. Generation of wind
required to make it which makes it power in India mainly account from southern
dimensionless since it is the ratio of two state of India.
quantities with the same unit.
4. What is the main source for the formation
of wind?
TOPIC 3.2 WIND ENERGY a) Uneven land
b) Sun
1. What does Heating and cooling of the c) Vegetation
atmosphere generates? d) Seasons
a) Thermo line circulation
b) Radiation currents Answer: b
c) Convection currents Explanation: Wind is free and renewable
d) Conduction currents form of energy, which throughout history has
been used to grind grain, power ships, and
Answer: c pump water. Wind is created when the sun
Explanation: Wind energy can be unevenly heat the earth surface.
economically used for the generation of
electrical energy. Heating and cooling of the 5. Which country created wind mills?
atmosphere generates convection currents. a) Egypt
Heating is caused by the absorption of solar b) Mongolia
energy on the earth surface. c) Iran
d) Japan
2. How much is the energy available in the
winds over the earth surface is estimated to Answer: c
be? Explanation: The earliest known wind mills
a) 2.9 X 120 MW were in Persia (Iran). These early wind mills
b) 1.6 X 107 MW looked like large paddle wheels. Centuries
c) 1 MW later, the people of Holland improved the
d) 5MW
basic design of wind mill. Holland is famous 9. What are used to turn wind energy into
for its wind mills. electrical energy?
a) Turbine
6. “During the day, the air above the land b) Generators
heats up more quickly than the air over c) Yaw motor
water”. d) Blades
a) True
b) False Answer: a
Explanation: Wind turbine blades capture
Answer: a wind energy, a form of mechanical energy,
Explanation: During the day, the air above and put it to work turning a drive shaft,
the land heats up more quickly than the air gearbox, and generator to produce electrical
over water. The warm air over the land energy. Many factors affects wind turbine
expands and raises, and the heavier, cooler air efficiency including turbine blade
rushes in to take its place, creating winds. aerodynamics.
7. What happens when the land near the 10. What is the diameter of wind turbine
earth’s equator is heated? blades?
a) All the oceans gets heated up a) 320 feet
b) Small wind currents are formed b) 220 feet
c) Rise in tides c) 80 feet
d) Large atmospheric winds are created d) 500 feet
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: The large atmospheric winds Explanation: Large utility-scale wind
that circle the earth are created because the turbines can now generate more than a MW
land near the earth’s equator is heated more of electrical power each and deliver
by the sun than the land near the north and electricity directly in to the electric grid, these
south poles. Wind energy is mainly used to turbines are placed at 200 feet height at the
generate electricity. rotor hub and have blades which are 220 feet
or more in diameter.
8. What type of energy is wind energy?
a) Renewable energy 11. At what range of speed is the electricity
b) Non-renewable energy from the wind turbine is generated?
c) Conventional energy a) 100 – 125 mph
d) Commercial energy b) 450 – 650 mph
c) 250 – 450 mph
Answer: a d) 30-35 mph
Explanation: Wind is called a renewable
energy source because the wind will blow as Answer: d
long as the shines. Wind power, as an Explanation: Wind turbines are designed
alternative to burning fossil fuels, is plentiful, with cut-in wind speeds and cut-out speeds
renewable, widely distributed, clean, i.e. the wind speeds when the turbines start
produces no greenhouse gas emissions during turning or shut off to prevent drive train
operation, consumes no water, and uses little damage. Typically, maximum electric
land. generations occurs at speeds of 30-35mph.
12. When did the development of wind power c) Solar sight

in India began? d) Solar eye
a) 1965
b) 1954 Answer: a
c) 1990 Explanation: Series and parallel combination
d) 1985 of the solar cell is known as Solar array.
Shunt diodes are used to avoid the circulating
Answer: c current.
Explanation: The development of wind
power in India began in 1990s. Presently 4. Full form of FF in the solar field is
India is the world’s fourth largest wind power ____________
generator. The Indian energy sector has an a) Form factor
installed capacity of 32.72 GW. Today India b) Fill factor
is a major player in the global wind energy c) Face factor
market. d) Fire factor
Answer: b
TOPIC 3.3 SOLAR PANELS Explanation: FF stands for Fill factor. It is
the ratio of the maximum obtainable power to
1. A solar cell converts light energy into the product of the open-circuit voltage and
__________ short circuit current.
a) Electrical energy
b) Thermal energy 5. Calculate Fill factor using the data:
c) Sound energy Pmax=15 W, Voc=18 V, Isc=4 A.
d) Heat energy a) .65
b) .59
Answer: a c) .20
Explanation: A solar cell converts light d) .98
energy into electrical energy. The light energy
excites the electron of the solar cell which Answer: c
further flows in the circuit and constitutes the Explanation: Fill factor is the ratio of the
electric current. maximum obtainable power to the product of
the open-circuit voltage and short circuit
2. There are three types of the solar cells. current. F.F=Pmax÷(Voc×Isc)=15/72=.20.
a) True
b) False 6. Permanent magnet DC motor is more
expensive than an Induction motor.
Answer: a a) True
Explanation: There are three types of solar b) False
cells. Single crystal, polycrystal, and
amorphous silicon cells are the major types of Answer: a
solar cells. Explanation: Permanent magnet DC motor is
more expensive than an Induction motor
3. Series and parallel combination of the solar because of the magnetic used in it. Magnets
cell is known as _________ are made up of ferromagnetic material which
a) Solar array results in high cost.
b) Solar light
7. Calculate the line voltage in star Answer: b

connection when phase voltage=311 V. Explanation: At light loads, the current
a) 548.29 V drawn is largely a magnetizing current due to
b) 538.66 V the air gap and hence the power factor is low.
c) 587.28 V The power factor of a SCIM generally is
d) 185.58 V .6-.8.
Answer: b 11. Calculate the active power in a 11710 H

Explanation: The line voltage in case of star inductor.
connection is 1.73 times of phase voltage. It a) 8245 W
leads the phase voltage by an angle of 30°. b) 1781 W
VL-L = 1.73×311 = 538.66 V. c) 0 W
d) 1964 W
8. The slope of the V-I curve of a solar cell is
66.1°. Calculate the value of resistance. Answer: c
Assume the relationship between voltage and Explanation: The inductor is a linear
current is a straight line. element. It only absorbs reactive power and
a) 3.5 Ω stores it in the form of oscillating energy. The
b) 2.2 Ω voltage and current are 90° in phase in case of
c) 2.5 Ω the inductor so the angle between V & I is
d) 2.9 Ω 90°. P = VIcos90° = 0 W.
Answer: b 12. Calculate the frequency of the waveform

Explanation: The slope of the V-I curve of a i(t) = sin(πt+π÷4)+sin(πt+π÷74).
solar cell is resistance. The slope given is a) .5 Hz
66.1° so R=tan(66.1°)=2.2 Ω. The slope of b) .8 Hz
the I-V curve is reciprocal of resistance. c) .1 Hz
d) .9 Hz
9. SCIM has a _________
a) Shorter life Answer: a
b) Medium life Explanation: The fundamental time period of
c) Longer life the sine wave is 2π. The time period of i(t) is
d) Infinite life L.C.M {2,2}=2 sec. The frequency of the
waveform is 1/2 = .5 Hz. The time period is
Answer: c independent of phase shifting and time-
Explanation: SCIM stands for squirrel cage shifting.
induction motor. It has high efficiency,
maintenance-free operation, and long life 13. Full form of CEL is ____________
because of rigidness nature. a) Central Electronics Limited
b) Central Electrical Limited
10. The power factor of a SCIM generally is c) Circle Electronics Limited
___________ d) Circle Electrical Limited
a) .1-.2
b) .6-.8 Answer: a
c) .3-.4 Explanation: The full form of CEL is Central
d) .5-.7 Electronics Limited. It is a Government of
India enterprise founded in 1974. It is a
publicly listed company.
14. Full form of BEL is ____________ will be in the form of light as well as heat
a) Busy Electronics Limited waves.
b) Burden Electrical Limited
c) Bharat Electronics Limited Radiant efficiency is defined as the ratio of
d) Brahma Electrical Limited energy radiated in the form of light, produces
the sensation of vision to the total energy
Answer: c radiated out by the luminous body’.
Explanation: The full form of BEL is Bharat
Electronics Limited. It is a Government of Radiant Efficiency = Energy Radiated in the
India enterprise founded in 1954. It is a form of light/total energy radiated by the
publicly listed company. body.s. It is found that maximum radiant
efficiency would occur at about 62000° C and
15. Material used for making solar cell is even then the value of this maximum
_________ efficiency would be 20%
a) Silicon
b) Carbon
c) Sodium
d) Magnesium 2. Lightwave travel with a velocity of
Answer: a 1. 3 × 1010 cm/s

Explanation: Material used for making solar 2. 3 × 1012 cm/s
cells is Silicon. It is a naturally obtained
3. 3 × 1015 cm/s
semi-conductor. It has a lower cut-off voltage
and minimum energy bandgap. 4. 3 × 1018 cm/s
Answer.1. 3 × 1010 cm/s

TOPIC 3.4 ILLUMINATION BY
LAMPS Explanation:-
The velocity of the light wave is 3 ×

1. The radiant efficiency of the luminous
source depends on 108 m/sec or 3 × 1010 cm/sec.
1. The shape of the source

2. The temperature of the source
3. The wavelength of the light rays 3. Carbon arc lamps are commonly used in
4. All of the above
1. Domestic lighting
Answer.2. The temperature of the source 2. Street lighting
3. Cinema Projector
Explanation:- 4. Photography
When an electric current is passed through a Answer.3. Cinema Projector

conductor, some heat is produced to I2R loss, Explanation:-
which increases its temperature of the
conductor. At low temperature, conductor Carbon arcs operate by ionizing air molecules
radiates energy in the form of heat waves, but (which carry the current between the carbon
at very high temperatures, radiated energy electrodes) to incandescence.
To ignite the lamp, the rods are touched steradian (symbol: sr) or square radian is the
together, thus allowing a relatively low SI unit of solid angle.
voltage to strike the arc. The rods are then
slowly drawn apart, and electric current heats
and maintains an arc across the gap. The tips
of the carbon rods are heated and the carbon 5. Candela is the unit of
vaporizes. The carbon vapor in the arc is
highly luminous, which is what produces the 1. Luminous flux
bright light. The rods are slowly burnt away 2. Luminous intensity
in use, and the distance between them needs 3. Wavelength
to be regularly adjusted in order to maintain 4. None of the above
the arc.
Answer.2. Luminous intensity
The carbon arc lamp was mainly used in the
cinema projector. A carbon electrode Explanation:-
projector produces the best possible light, a
Earlier “standard candle” was used to define
pure white with an even brightness. But the
the luminous intensity of a light source.
rods are consumed in less than an hour
However, the fundamental SI unit of
(another reason for changeovers), and their
luminous intensity is Candela. It is defined
burning produces carbon monoxide. The
with respect to a black body which is perfect
carbon-arc played a significant role until the
emitter or absorber. The black body radiator
introduction of the short-arc xenon discharge
is considered solidifying platinum at a
lamp in 1951.
temperature of 2046K (1773°C).
4. The unit of solid angle is
Definition:
1. Solid Angle
The candela is the base unit of luminous
2. Radian
intensity in the International System of Units
3. Steradian
(SI) Candela (cd) is defined as luminous flux
4. Candela emitted per unit solid angle along normal to
the surface of one sixtieth (1/60) square
Answer.1. Solid Angle
centimeter area of a black body radiator
Explanation:- (source of light) kept at a temperature of
2046K of solidifying platinum.
When the normal (perpendicular) lines are
drawn from the boundary of a portion on the 6. The unit of luminous flux is
surface of a sphere, Such that they meet at its
1. Steradian
center and form a cone, then the angle
2. Candela
enclosed by the conical surface is called solid
3. Lumen
angle.
4. Lux
Mathematically, the solid angle is the ratio of Answer.3. Lumen

an area of the base of conical surface (portion
Explanation:-
on the spherical surface of the sphere) to the
square of the radius of the sphere. The The SI unit of luminous flux is the lumen
(lm). One lumen is defined as the luminous
flux of light produced by a light source that Answer: b

emits one candela of luminous intensity over Explanation: Single beam instruments make
a solid angle of one steradian. use of one beam. Therefore, beam splitters
are not required in single beam instruments.
2. Which of the following statement is false

7. The illumination is directly proportional to about double beam absorption instruments?
the cosine of the angle made by the normal to a) It is similar to single beam instruments
the illuminated surface with the direction of except two beams are present
the incident flux. Above statement is b) Tungsten bulb is used as a source
associated with c) Reference beam must have a higher
intensity than sample beam
1. Planck’s law d) Both the beams after they pass through
2. Macbeth’s law of illumination respective samples are compared
3. Bunsen’s law of illumination
4. Lambert’s cosine law Answer: c
Explanation: Reference beam cannot have a
Answer.4. Lambert’s cosine law higher intensity than sample beam. The beam
is split into two beams of equal intensity.
Explanation:-
3. Which of the following is not an
Lambert’s Cosine Law application of colorimeter?
a) Paints
b) Inks
Lambert’s Cosine Law states that when light c) Cosmetics
falls obliquely on a surface, the illumination d) Composition detection
of the surface is directly proportional to the
cosine of the angle θ between the direction of Answer: d
the incident light and the surface normal. The Explanation: Colorimeter is not used to
law is also known as the cosine emission law determine composition. Its application is
or Lambert’s emission law. paints, dyes, inks, cosmetics and plastics.
If Iv is the intensity at an angle θ from the 4. In photometers, the readings of the

normal to the surface and Inv is the intensity specimen are initially obtained in the form of
which of the following parameters?
along the normal, then Lambert’s cosine law a) Transmittance
states that Iv = Invcosθ. b) Absorption
c) Wavelengths
TOPIC 3.5 SODIUM VAPOUR d) Volume
Answer: a
1. Which of the following statements is false Explanation: In photometers, the reading is
about single beam absorption instruments? initially obtained in the form of transmittance
a) Tungsten bulb is used as a source as some radiation is absorbed by the sample
b) Beam splitter is used to get parallel beam and the rest of the beam is transmitted. This
c) Test tube is used as sample holder transmitted beam is measured by the detector.
d) Photovoltaic cell as detector
5. Colorimeters are used in applications d) Indicates the difference between the output
where great accuracy is required. of two photometers
a) True
b) False Answer: d
Explanation: It compares the output of the
Answer: b two photometers obtained using two beams. It
Explanation: Colorimeters are used in indicates the output.
applications where great accuracy is not
required. They are also known as 9. Which of the following is the purpose of
photometers. the beam splitter in double beam photometer
or colorimeter?
6. In the diagram of single beam photometer a) Splits beam into two equal intensity beams
given below, identify the component that is b) Splits beam in such a way that sample
not marked. beam has higher intensity
c) Splits beam in such a way that a reference
beam has higher intensity
d) Merge two equal intensity beams into
single beam
a) Monochromator
b) Absorption filter Answer: a
c) Sample holder Explanation: Beam splitter splits beam into
d) Interference filter two equal intensity beams. One beam passes
through the sample and other through the
Answer: c reference.
Explanation: In single beam
spectrophotometer, the beam passed through 10. Which of the following is a source used in
the sample which is held in the sample holder. spectroscopy?
The transmitted beam is measured by the a) LASER
detector. b) Tube light
c) Sodium vapour lamp
7. Colorimeters are used to determine the d) Tungsten lamp
concentration of solutions.
a) True Answer: d
b) False Explanation: Tungsten lamp is the source
used in spectroscopy. It is the source used in
Answer: a UV, Visible spectroscopy.
Explanation: Colorimetry is the science of
colour measurement. It is used to determine
the concentrations of solutions. TOPIC 3.6 MERCURY VAPOUR
8. Which of the following is the purpose of 1. Which of the following fluid can be used in
balance indicator in double beam photometer place of water?
or colorimeter? a) diphenyl ether
a) Selects a particular wavelength b) aluminium bromide
b) Splits the wavelength selected into two c) mercury
equal beams d) all of the mentioned
c) Detects and indicates the amount of light
falling on it
Answer: d 6. To vaporize one kg of water, ____ kg of

Explanation: These fluids are better than mercury must condense.
water in high temperature range. a) 5-6
b) 6-7
2. Which of the following statement is true? c) 7-8
a) only mercury has been used in place of d) 8-9
water
b) diphenyl ether decomposes at high Answer: c
temperatures Explanation: This depends on the properties
c) both of the mentioned of mercury and water.
7. When mercury cycle is added to the steam
Answer: c cycle,
Explanation: Also aluminium bromide is a a) the mean temperature of heat addition
possibility which can be considered. increases
b) efficiency decreases
3. Mercury is a better fluid in high c) maximum pressure is high
temperature range. d) all of the mentioned
a) true
b) false Answer: a
Explanation: The increase in the mean
Answer: a temperature of heat addition increases the
Explanation: This is because its vaporization efficiency and the maximum pressure is also
pressure is relatively low even at higher low.
temperatures.
8. Initially in a reciprocating steam engine,
4. Why is mercury unsuitable at low a) a binary cycle was used
temperatures? b) steam was used in the high temperature
a) its saturation pressure becomes very high c) ammonia or sulphur dioxide was used in
b) its specific volume is very low at such a the low temperature range
high pressure d) all of the mentioned
c) both of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: Steam from engine at higher
Answer: d temperature and pressure was used to
Explanation: Its saturation pressure becomes evaporate sulphur dioxide or ammonia which
very low and specific volume is very large. operated in another cycle.
5. In a binary cycle, ____ cycles with ____ 9. In a mercury-steam cycle, mercury cycle is
working fluid are coupled. called ____ and steam cycle is called ____
a) two, same a) bottoming cycle, topping cycle
b) two, different b) topping cycle, bottoming cycle
c) three, same c) both are called bottoming cycle
d) three, different d) both are called topping cycle
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: In a binary cycle, heat rejected Explanation: The mercury-steam cycle
by one can be utilized by other. represents a two-fluid cycle.
10. We can get a tertiary cycle if a sulphur c) Slit

dioxide cycle is added to mercury-steam d) Filters
cycle.
a) true Answer: c
b) false Explanation: Slits do not make the X-ray
tube nearly monochromatic. The most
Answer: a commonly used source is X-ray tubes.
Explanation: In this three-fluid cycle,
sulphur dioxide cycle is added in the low 4. Which of the following components make
temperature range. use of a thin metal foil to isolate a nearly
mono-energetic excitation beam?
a) Transmission-anode X-ray tube
TOPIC 3.7 FLUORESCENT b) Secondary fluorescence target
TUBE c) Slit
d) Filters
1. Which of the following components of the
X-ray fluorescent spectrometer induces Answer: d
fluorescent radiation? Explanation: Filters make use of a thin metal
a) Excitation source foil to isolate a nearly mono-energetic
b) Energy analyser excitation beam. Nickel is one of the metals
c) X-ray spectrometer that is used in filters.
d) Detection System
5. Energy dispersive system uses which of the
Answer: a following detectors?
Explanation: Excitation source induces a) Optical detector
fluorescent radiation in X-ray fluorescent b) Semiconductor detector
spectrometer. A mono-energetic source is c) Thermistor
required for this purpose. d) Bolometer
2. Why is a mono-energetic radiation source Answer: b

required in X-ray fluorescent spectrometer? Explanation: Energy dispersive system uses
a) To provide good sensitivity semiconductor detectors. It consists of an
b) To provide high accuracy excitation source and a sample.
c) To provide a proper range
d) To reduce unwanted background 6. In Energy dispersive system, the energy
level and the number of pulses is related to
Answer: d which of the following?
Explanation: Mono-energetic radiation a) Amount of sample, element involved
source is required in X-ray fluorescent b) Element involved, concentration of the
spectrometer to reduce unwanted background. element
This occurs due to the scattering occurring c) Concentration of the element, element
over a broad range of wavelengths. involved
d) Number of atoms, amount of sample
3. Which of the following does not make the
X-ray tube nearly monochromatic? Answer: b
a) Transmission-anode X-ray tube Explanation: In Energy dispersive system,
b) Secondary fluorescence target the energy level is related to the element
involved. The number of pulses is related to a) True

the concentration of the element involved. b) False
7. The analysis of X-ray beam by diffraction Answer: b

is similar to spectrum analysis carried out Explanation: In curved crystal arrangement,
with a diffraction grating. angular velocity of the detector is twice that
a) True of the crystal. This arrangement is suitable for
b) False the analysis of small specimens.
M
Answer: a 11. Which of the following is the
Explanation: The analysis of X-ray beam by disadvantage of silicon semiconductor
O
diffraction is similar to spectrum analysis detector?
carried out with a diffraction grating. a) Low stable
C
Wavelength dispersive type of meter derives b) Can be operated only at low temperatures
its name from this fact. c) Have low count-rate
T.
d) Low resolution
8. The crystal used as X-ray grating has
_______ dimensional lattice arrays. Answer: b
O
a) One Explanation: The disadvantage of silicon
b) Two semiconductor detector is that they can be
c) Three
d) Four
SP
operated only at low temperatures. They have
high stability, high count-rate and adequate
resolution.
G
Answer: c
Explanation: The crystal used as X-ray 12. Given below is the diagram of energy
LO
grating has three dimensional lattice arrays. dispersive system. Identify the unmarked
Photons can be coherently scattered using the component.
crystals.
.B
9. Which of the following can be done to

avoid loss of intensities of X-rays due to the
17
absorption of long wavelength X-rays?

a) Apparatus must be contained in a chamber
b) Air in the chamber must be replaced by
helium
-R
c) Inert gas atmosphere must be provided

d) Proper slits must be used
SE
Answer: b
Explanation: Air in the chamber must be
replaced by helium to avoid loss of intensities
C
of X-rays due to the absorption of long a) Lens

wavelength X-rays. Vacuum chambers can b) Specimen
also be used. c) Sample holder
d) Energy analyser
10. In curved crystal arrangement, angular
velocity of the crystal is twice that of the Answer: b
detector. Explanation: The unmarked component is
specimen. This system consists of source, 3. The COP of simple air cooling system is
sample and detector. given by?
T6 = Inside temperature of cabin
TOPIC 3.8 DOMESTIC T5′ = Exit temperature of cooling turbine
REFRIGERATOR AND AIR T3′ = Temperature at the exit of compressor
CONDITIONER T2′ = Stagnation temperature
a) COP = (T6 –T5′ )
(T3 ′–T2′ )
1. Which one of the following is not a b) COP =

(T6 +T5′ )
component of a simple air cooling system? (T3 ′–T2′ )
a) Main compressor c) COP = (T6 +T5′ )
(T3 ′+T2′ )
b) Cooling fan (T6 –T5′ )

d) COP =
c) Heat exchanger (T3 ′+T2′ )
d) Generator
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: COP = Refrigeration effect
Explanation: The main components of produced i.e. (T6 – T5′) divided by Work done
simple air cooling system are the main i.e. (T3′ – T2′).
compressor driven by the gas turbine, a Hence COP =
(T6 –T5′ )
.
cooling fan, heat exchanger and a cooling (T3 ′–T2′ )
turbine.
4. The simple air cooling system is good for
2. For a simple air cooling system which one _____ flight speed.
of the following is not a process of the cycle a) low
in T-S diagram? b) high
c) moderate
d) any
Answer: a
Explanation: The simple air cooling system
is good for low flight speed so as fan can
maintain airflow over the air cooler, which is
difficult for it while at high speeds.
5. What is the main difference between

simple air cooling system and simple air
a) Ramming process evaporative cooling system?
b) Compression process a) Simple air evaporative cooling system has
c) Heating process an evaporator
d) Refrigeration process b) Simple air evaporative cooling system has
two evaporators
Answer: c c) Simple air evaporative cooling system has
Explanation: A simple air cooling system has an extra compressor
5 processes in T-S diagram namely ramming d) Simple air evaporative cooling system has
process, compression process, expansion three evaporators
process, refrigeration processes and cooling
process. Answer: a
Explanation: The difference between the
simple air cooling system and simple air battery is brown in colour. A negative plate of
evaporative cooling system is that it has an a lead-acid battery is grey in colour. For each
evaporator between the heat exchanger and plate, there is a supporting grid made of an
the cooling turbine. alloy of lead and antimony.
6. If cooling of 45 minutes or less is required, 2. What gets deposited on the plates of a

it may be advantageous to use evaporative discharged lead-acid battery?
cooling system. a) PbO2
a) True b) Pb2O4
b) False
c) Pb
Answer: a d) PbSO4
Explanation: The evaporative cooling system
provides an additional cooling effect through Answer: d
evaporation of refrigerants such as water etc. Explanation: PbSO4 gets deposited on the
Hence if cooling of 45 minutes or less is plates of a discharged lead-acid battery.
required, it may be advantageous to use During discharging the reaction happens in
evaporative cooling system. the right direction. PbSO4 gets deposited on
both negative and positive plates.
7. A simple evaporative air refrigeration
system is used for an airplane to take 20 TR 3. What is the twenty-minute rating of
of refrigeration load (Q). The power required battery?
for the refrigerating system P is 746 KW. a) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a
What is its COP? minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V
a) 0.086 b) Time for which the battery can supply 25
b) 0.094 A at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage 1.75 V
c) 0.079 c) The current which the battery can supply
d) 0.099 continuously for 30 seconds with minimum
cell voltage 1.2 V
Answer: b d) Lasting power of a battery on a small load
Explanation: COP =
(210×Q)
(P ×60)
Answer: a
COP =
(210×20)
(746×60) Explanation: The rate of current 20 minutes

= 0.094. with a minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V is
called a twenty-minute rating of the battery.
The temperature of the battery at the start of
TOPIC 3.9 NI-CD BATTERY | 3.10
the test is brought to 80℉. It represents the
PB (LEAD) ACID BATTERY rate of current a battery can deliver
continuously.
1. What is the colour of a positive plate of a
lead-acid battery? 4. What is the reserve capacity of battery?
a) White a) Time for which the battery can supply 25 A
b) Grey at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage 1.75 V
c) White b) The current which the battery can supply
d) Brown continuously for 30 seconds with minimum
cell voltage 1.2 V
Answer: d c) Lasting power of a battery on a small load
Explanation: A positive plate of a lead-acid
d) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a 7. What should a fully-charged 6 cell

minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V automotive battery indicate?
a) 12 V
Answer: a b) 12.6 V
Explanation: The reserve capacity is the time c) The specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃
for which the battery can supply 25 A at 80℉ d) 12.6 V and the specific gravity of 1.29 at
with minimum cell voltage 1.75 V. It is the 32℃
measurement for the total capacity of the
battery. Answer: d
Explanation: A fully-charged 6 cell
5. What is the cold rate of a battery? automotive battery indicates 12.6 V and a
a) Lasting power of a battery on a small load specific gravity of 1.29 at 32℃. There should
b) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a be no leak. The battery can be checked using
minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V a digital multimeter.
c) The current which the battery can supply
continuously for 30 seconds with minimum 8. What is the number of positive plates in a
cell voltage 1.2 V battery cell?
d) Time for which the battery can supply 25 a) One more than the negative plates
A at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage 1.75 V b) Two less than the negative plates
c) One less than the negative plates
Answer: c d) Two more than the negative plates
Explanation: It is a measure of the worst
conditions under which a battery is expected Answer: c
to deliver current, e.g., during starting the Explanation: The number of positive plates
engine and operating under extreme cold. The in a battery cell is one less than the negative
cold rate of a battery is the current which the plates. One positive and one negative group
battery can supply continuously for 30 of plates are sliding over each other, with
seconds with minimum cell voltage 1.2 V. separators sandwiched between them.
6. What is a twenty-hour rate of a battery? 9. What is a maintenance-free battery?

a) The current which the battery can supply a) A battery having lead-antimony plate grid
continuously for 30 seconds with minimum b) A battery having lead-calcium plate grid
cell voltage 1.2 V c) A battery does not contain acid
b) Lasting power of a battery on a small load d) A battery does not contain water
c) Time for which the battery can supply 25 A
at 80℉ with minimum cell voltage 1.75 V Answer: b
d) Rate of current for 20 minutes with a Explanation: A maintenance-free battery is a
minimum cell voltage of 1.5 V battery having a lead-calcium plate grid. The
battery which uses this plate grid loses water
Answer: b very slowly.
Explanation: A twenty-hour rate of a battery
is the lasting power of a battery on a small 10. Which of the following is the advantage
load. During this test, the temperature should of alkaline battery?
be about 80oF. This rating is important for a) High energy density
powering accessories when the engine is not b) Good discharge characteristics over a wide
running. range of temperature
c) The specific gravity of electrolyte remains
the same Answer: b

d) Cheap raw materials are used Explanation: Lithium-ion batteries also work
by shuttling ions between the electrode.
Answer: c During charging, ions travel in one direction;
Explanation: The advantage of the alkaline during the discharging process, they go in the
battery is that the specific gravity of other direction. The electrolyte is a lithium-
electrolyte remains the same. The electrolyte based gel or polymer.
does not take part in chemical reactions on
charging or discharging. 3. Which of the following statement is true
for the movement of electrons concerning the
direction of current?
TOPIC 3.11 LI ION (LITHIUM a) Same as the direction of current
ION) BATTERY b) Opposite direction of current
c) Does not depend on the direction of current
1. Which of the following as shown below d) No movement of electrons
avoids the direct contact of the positive and
negative plate in a lithium-ion battery? Answer: b
Explanation: During the charging
mechanism of lithium-ion battery the current
flows from the anode to the cathode whereas
the electrons present in the cathode move
from cathode to anode thus the movement of
the electrons is opposite when compared to
the direction of current flow.
4. Which is the material used to as anode in a

lithium-ion battery?
a) Brass foil coated with graphite
a) Electrolyte b) Aluminum foil coated with graphite
b) Separator c) Copper foil coated with graphite
c) Load d) Stainless steel coated with graphite
d) Rectifier
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: The Lithium-ion battery having
Explanation: The separator avoids the direct round Li-ion cells employ anodes of
contact and thus short-circuiting of positive aluminum foils coated with graphite and is
and negative plates, thin sheets of some non- soaked with an organic electrolyte, which
conducting material are inserted between enables the transfer of lithium ions in the first
them. These sheets are called as separators. place.
2. Which is the electrolyte used in Li-ion 5. Which of the following is not a

battery? disadvantage of a lithium-ion battery?
a) Lead dioxide a) Complex to manufacture
b) Lithium-based gel b) Sophisticated chargers
c) Sulfur dioxide c) More expensive
d) Cobalt d) High energy density
Answer: d oxide
Explanation: The disadvantages of a lithium- d) Copper foils coated with lithium metal
ion battery are it is more expensive,since oxide
these are more complex to manufacture.
These require a sophisticated charger to Answer: c
carefully monitor the charging process which Explanation: The lithium-ion batteries
makes it more complex. Whereas high energy having round Li-ion cells employ anode of
density is the advantage of the lithium-ion aluminum foils coated with graphite and
battery. cathodes of copper foils coated with lithium
metal oxide. The wound electrodes are
6. Which of the following is formed at the soaked with an organic electrolyte.
graphite electrode during the charging
process of a battery when the lithium-ion 9. What is the maximum storage temperature
move through the separator? in degree centigrade of a Li-ion battery?
a) Water a) 30
b) Graphite b) 50
c) Lithium hydroxide c) 60
d) Lithium carbide d) 40
Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: During the charging process, Explanation: Lithium-ion batteries should
lithium ions are released from the metal oxide not be stored at temperatures above 60
and move through the separator to the degrees centigrade and operated at above 40
graphite electrode where lithium carbide is degrees centigrade. Likewise there is an
formed. The energy stored in the charging appreciable reduction in the potential
process can be released again by the inverse charging and discharging rate below -5
chemical reaction. degrees centigrade.
7. What is the range of specific energy in 10. Which of the following is not an
Watt-hour per kg in a lithium-ion battery? advantage of Lithium-ion battery?
a) 0-50 a) High specific energy density
b) 100-265 b) More expensive
c) 50-60 c) Reliability
d) 60-100 d) Lower self-discharge rate
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Lithium-ion battery has a Explanation: The lithium-ion battery has
promising future as a rechargeable battery for many advantages like higher specific energy
the electric hybrid vehicle due to its very high density than most other types,lower self-
storage capacity,which ranges from 100-265 discharge rate, has much greater reliability
watt-hour per kg with the fact that it operates whereas the disadvantage of the li-ion battery
at room temperature. is that it is more expensive,since complex to
manufacture.
8. Which is the material used as a cathode in
a lithium-ion battery? 11. Which of the following material is used as
a) Zinc foils coated lithium metal oxide separator material in Lithium-ion battery?
b) Brass foil coated with graphite metal oxide a) Brass
c) Aluminum foils coated with graphite metal b) Metal sheet
c) Paper 1. What is earthing?

d) Plastic a) connecting electrical machines to earth
b) providing a connection to the ground
Answer: d c) connecting the electrical machines to
Explanation: The lithium-ion battery employ source
anodes of aluminum foils coated with d) providing a source of current
graphite and cathodes of copper foils coated
with lithium metal oxide. A.plastic separator Answer: a
separates the anode and the cathodes. The Explanation: Connecting electrical machines
wound electrode is soaked with an organic to the general mass of the earth by making
electrolyte. use of a conducting material with very low
resistance is known as earthing.
12. Which of the following circuit is used for
cooling of the lithium-ion battery? 2. What is an earth electrode?
a) Air conditioning a) electrode that is connected to earth
b) Heater circuit b) material used for earthing
c) Ignition circuit c) electrode connected to the circuit
d) EGR circuit d) electrode which is connected to the mains
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: For cooling, the heat from the Explanation: Electrode connected to the
battery can be dissipated only through the air main is basically a source of e.m.f.
conditioning circuit. The battery heat from Conducting material that is used for
the refrigerant circuit of the air conditioning connecting electrical machinery to the earth is
system can be transferred,using conditioned known as an earth electrode.
air, a dedicated coolant circuit.
3. Earth electrode provides ____________
13. What is the maximum operating a) high resistance
temperature in degree centigrade above which b) medium resistance
the lithium-ion battery should not be c) low resistance
operated? d) very high resistance
a) 10
b) 20 Answer: c
c) 30 Explanation: In the case of occurrence of any
D) 40 leakage currents due to poor shielding of the
apparatus, the earth electrode is used to
Answer: d provide a very low resistance path from the
Explanation: Li-ion batteries have a electrical appliances to the earth.
maximum operating temperature should not
be above 40-degree centigrade. Operating the 4. How is the condition of an earth electrode
Li-ion battery beyond this temperature range measured?
shortens the battery life due to irreversible a) by measuring the voltage
damage occurring within the Li-ion cells. b) by measuring the current
c) by measuring the power
d) by measuring resistance
TOPIC 3.12 PROTECTION-NEED
FOR EARTHING Answer: d
Explanation: The resistance of the earth
electrode is measured in order to check of electrical machinery such as casing,

whether it is in a good condition or not. armoring of cables, etc are at zero potential.
5. In a three phase system, the neutral is 9. Connection of the various parts of a circuit
_________ to earth has a _________
a) earthed a) medium resistance
b) connected to low voltage b) high resistance
c) connected to high voltage c) very high resistance
d) not connected d) very low resistance
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Earthing can be used to Explanation: Once an electrical apparatus is
maintain a constant line voltage in a three grounded, most of its components are at
phase system. This is achieved by earthing ground potential. When the different parts of
the neutral. electrical machinery are connected to the
ground, they possess very low resistance.
6. Earthing is used as return conductor in
telephone lines and for traction work. 10. Specific resistance of soil is _________
a) True a) changes from soil to soil
b) False b) is constant
c) depends on the circuit connected to it
Answer: a d) depends on the supply voltage
Explanation: The complications involved in
laying separate telephone cables and the cast Answer: a
used for traction work is minimised. As a Explanation: Specific resistance depends on
result earthing is used as a return conductor in the nature and properties of a material.
telephone lines and for traction work. Specific resistance is different for various
types of soils such as dry soil, rocky soil, wet
7. Earthing does not help in protecting the soil, etc.
equipment.
a) True
b) False TOPIC 3.13 ENERGY TARIFF
CALCULATION FOR
Answer: b DOMESTIC LOADS.
Explanation: Spike voltages occurring as a
result of lightning or any other fault can be
1. What is the advantage of sectionalizing of
dissipated to ground by earthing, thus
power plant?
protecting the equipment.
a) High reliability
8. After earthing, the different parts of an b) Low capital cost
electrical machinery are at _________ c) Low maintenance
a) infinite potential d) Easy operation
b) intermediate potential
Answer: a
c) zero potential
Explanation: Sectionalizing means installing
d) undefined potential
more number of small units rather than
Answer: c installing a big unit. Doing so enables us to
Explanation: After earthing, the various parts maintain continuity of supply from rest of the
units, when one or two units of plant fails. variation of the load, but with the load
this makes the plant more reliable. arranged in descending order of magnitude.
Load duration curve give the number of hours
2. The area under the load curve represents for which a particular load lasts during a day.
____________
a) the average load on power system 5. During which time the demand of electrical
b) maximum demand energy is maximum?
c) number of units generated a) 2 A.M. to 5 A.M.
d) load factor b) 5 A.M. to 12 P.M.
c) 12 P.M. to 7 P.M.
Answer: c d) 7 P.M. to 9 P.M
Explanation: Load curve is obtained by
plotting fluctuating load be keeping load on y Answer: d
axis and time in x axis. The area under the Explanation: From the load curve it is
load curve represents the total number of obtained that during early morning demand is
units generated in a particular time. always low. Around 5 A.M. it starts
increasing and around 9 A.M. load reaches a
3. Which of the following is equal to the high value and remains almost constant till
maximum demand? evening except for some Dip during lunch
a) The ratio of area under curve to the total hours. The load again starts increasing in
area of rectangle evening hours and reaches its peak around 7
b) The ratio of area under curve and number to 9 P.M.
of hours
c) The peak of the load curve 6. Size and cost of installation depends upon
d) The area under the curve ____________
a) average load
Answer: c b) maximum demand
Explanation: The ratio of area under curve to c) square mean load
the total area of the rectangle is called load d) square of peak load
factor. The ratio of area under the curve to the
number of hours represents the average load. Answer: b
The peak of the curve represents the Explanation: The greatest of all “short time
maximum demand. interval averaged” during a given period, on
the power system is called the maximum
4. Load duration curve indicates _______ demand. Maximum demand represents the
a) the variation of load during different hours maximum amount of load that is active, out
of the day of total connected load. So the size and rating
b) total number of units generated for the of power plant depends on Maximum
given demand demand.
c) total energy consumed by the load
d) the number of hours for which the 7. What is Demand factor?
particular load lasts during a day a) Ratio of connected load to maximum
demand
Answer: d b) Ratio of average load to connected load
Explanation: The variation of load during c) Ratio of maximum demand to the
different hours of the day is shown by load connected load
curve. Load duration curve is different from d) Ratio of kilowatt hour consumed to 24
Load curve. Load duration curve indicates the hours
Answer: c demands. And hence, demand factor e.i. the

Explanation: Demand factor is the ratio of ratio of sum of individual maximum demand
actual maximum demand on the system to the to the maximum demand of total load is
total load connected to the system. The idea always greater than unity.
of demand factor was introduced due to the
fact that all the equipments connected to the 11. Coincidence factor is reciprocal of
system does not work at a time in practice. ___________
a) average load
8. Which of the following represents the b) demand factor
M
annual average load? c) capacity factor
a) (KWh supplied in a day)/24 d) diversity factor
O
b) {(KWh supplied in a day)/ 24 } × 365
c) {(KWh supplied in a month)/(30 x 24) Answer: d
C
d) (KWh supplied in a year) / (24 × 365) Explanation: Coincidence factor is the ratio
of total maximum demand to the sum of
T.
Answer: d individual maximum demands which is the
Explanation: The average load on the power reciprocal of diversity factor.
station is average of load occurring at the
O
various events. It can also be stated as energy 12. Which of the following is called as cold
deliver in a given period divided by the reserve?
number of hours in that period. Option d
matches correctly to these statements.
SP
a) Reserve capacity available but not ready
for use
b) Reserve capacity available and ready for
G
9. The load factor is __________ use
a) always less than unity c) Generating capacity connected to bus and
LO
b) less than or greater than 1 ready to take load

c) always greater than 1 d) Capacity in service in excess of peak load
d) less than zero
Answer: a
.B
Answer: a Explanation: Cold reserve is the generating

Explanation: Load factor is the ratio of capacity which is available for service but not
17
average demand to the maximum demand. normally ready for immediate loading.
Average demand can not be greater than Reserved capacity available and ready to use
maximum demand. So the value of load are called hot reserve.
-R
factor is always less than unity.
10. In practice what is the value of diversity

SE
factor?
a) Less than Unity UNIT IV ELECTRONIC
b) Geater than Unity
c) Equal to or greater than Unity CIRCUITS
C
d) Less than zero

TOPIC 4.1 PN JUNCTION
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum demand of different
consumers never occurs at a time, due to this 1. The p-region has a greater concentration of
the total maximum demand of the load is __________ as compared to the n-region in a
always less than sum of individual maximum P-N junction.
a) holes 5. Which of the below mentioned statements

b) electrons is false regarding a p-n junction diode?
c) both holes & electrons a) Diode are uncontrolled devices
d) phonons b) Diodes are rectifying devices
c) Diodes are unidirectional devices
Answer: a d) Diodes have three terminals
Explanation: Holes are the majority charge
carriers in p-type material. Answer: d
Explanation: Diode is a two terminal device,
2. A p-type semiconductor material is doped anode & cathode are the two terminals.
with ____________ impurities whereas a n-
type semiconductor material is doped with 6. In the p & n regions of the p-n junction the
__________ impurities _________ & the ___________ are the
a) acceptor, donor minority charge carriers respectively.
b) acceptor, acceptor a) holes, holes
c) donor, donor b) electrons, electrons
d) donor, acceptor c) holes, electrons
d) electrons, holes
Answer: a
Explanation: Donor impurities denote an Answer: d
electron to the n-type material making it a Explanation: Holes are the minority charge
electron majority carrier & vice-versa. carriers in n-type material & vice-versa.
3. In the p & n regions of the p-n junction the 7. Lets assume that the doping density in the
_________ & the ___________ are the p-region is 10-9 cm-3 & in the n-region is 10-
majority charge carriers respectively. 17cm-3, as such the p-n junction so formed
a) holes, holes
would be termed as a
b) electrons, electrons
c) holes, electrons a) p– n–
d) electrons, holes b) p+ n–
c) p– n+
Answer: c
d) p+ n+
Explanation: Holes are the majority charge
carriers in p-type material & vice-versa. Answer: b
Explanation: Doping density is greater in the
4. The n-region has a greater concentration of
p-region compared to the n-region.
_________ as compared to the p-region in a
P-N junction diode. 8. When a physical contact between a p-
a) holes region & n-region is established which of the
b) electrons following is most likely to take place?
c) both holes & electrons a) Electrons from N-region diffuse to P-
d) phonons region
b) Holes from P-region diffuse to N-region
Answer: b
c) Both of the above mentioned statements
Explanation: Electrons are the majority
are true
charge carriers in n-type material.
d) Nothing will happen
Answer: c c) Constant-voltage drop model

Explanation: When p & n region come d) All of the mentioned
together diffusion takes places & a depletion
region is established with opposite charges on Answer: d
both the sides of the junction. Explanation: All of the mentioned are
different methods used to model a diode’s
9. Which of the following is true in case of an forward characteristics.
unbiased p-n junction diode?
a) Diffusion does not take place 2. A voltage regulator needs to provide a
b) Diffusion of electrons & holes goes on constant voltage in spite of the fact that there
infinitely may be
c) There is zero electrical potential across the a) Change in the load current drawn from the
junctions terminals of the regulator
d) Charges establish an electric field across b) Change of the DC power supply that feeds
the junctions the regulator circuit
c) None of the mentioned
Answer: d d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: A potential difference is
established across the junctions due to Answer: d
recombination of holes & electrons. This Explanation: Voltage regulators are required
growing filed (barrier potential) stops the in both of the situations mentioned.
further diffusion.
(Q.3-Q.4) For the circuit shown below
10. Which of the following is true in case of a calculate
forward biased p-n junction diode?
a) The positive terminal of the battery sucks
electrons from the p-region
b) The positive terminal of the battery injects
electrons into the p-region
c) The negative terminal of the battery sucks
electrons from the p-region
d) None of the above mentioned statements
are true
Answer: a
Explanation: The diode is forward biased,
positive is connected to p & vice-versa, as
such batter provides EMF to drive electrons 3. Calculate the %age change in the regulated
from n-region to p-region. voltage caused by a change of ±10% in the
input voltage. (RL is not connected to the
TOPIC 4.2 VI circuit)
CHARACTERISTICS OF DIODE a) ± 0.5%
b) ± 1%
c) ± 5%
1. Which of the following is method to model
d) ± 10%
a diode’s forward characteristics?
a) Iteration method
b) Graphical method
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Current I in the circuit = (10 – Explanation: Normally a silicon diode has a
2.1) / 1 or 7.9 mA voltage drop of 0.7V.
Incremental resistance of each diode is rd =
25mV/7.9mA at room temperature or 3.2Ω 7. The graphical method of modeling a diode
Total resistance of the diode connection = r = characteristics is based on
9.6Ω a) Iteration method
The series combination of R and r acts as a b) Constant voltage drop method
voltage divider, hence c) Small signal approximation
▲V0 = ±r/r+R or 9.5 mA or ± 0.5%. d) Exponential method
Answer: d
4. Calculate the change in the voltage when
Explanation: Graphical method uses
RL is connected as shown
equations obtained in the exponential method
a) -10 mA and then the Answer of these equations is
b) -15 mA obtained by plotting them on a graph.
c) -20 mA
d) -25 mA 8. For small-signal operation around the dc
bias point, the diode is modeled by a
Answer: c resistance equal to the
Explanation: When RL is connected it draws a) Slope of the i-v characteristics of the diode
approx. 2.1v/1000 A current or 2.1 mA. at the bias point
Hence the current in the diode decreases by b) Square root of the slope of the i-v
approximately 2.1 mA. The voltage change characteristics of the diode at the bias point
across the diode is thus -2.1mA * 9.6 Ω or c) Inverse of the slope of the i-v
-20mA. characteristics of the diode at the bias point
d) Square root of the inverse of the slope of
5. The value of the diode small-signal the i-v characteristics of the diode at the bias
resistance rd at bias currents of 0.1 mA is point
a) 250 Ω
b) 25 Ω Answer: d
c) 2.5 Ω Explanation: It is a required characteristic for
d) 0.25 Ω small-ground operations.
Answer: a 9. The other name for bias point is

Explanation: Thermal voltage at room a) Quiescent point
temperature is 25mV and the current is b) Node point
0.1mA. rd = 25mV/0.1mA or 250 Ω. c) Terminal point
d) Static point
6. In many applications, a conducting diode is
Answer: a
modeled as having a constant voltage drop,
Explanation: Quiescent point is also called
usually approximately
base point. It is due to this name that is also
a) 1 V
b) 0.1 V called Q–point.
c) 0.7 V 10. In iteration method for modelling a diode
d) 7V the answer obtained by each subsequent
iteration is
a) Is close to the true value positive

b) Is close to the value obtained by d) All of the mentioned
exponential method
c) All of the mentioned Answer: d
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: All of the mentioned are true
for the TC of a zener diode.
Answer: c
Explanation: True value is obtained by the 4. Which of the following can be used in
exponential method and therefore both of the series with a Zener diode so that combination
statements are true. has almost zero temperature coefficient?
a) Diode
b) Resistor
TOPIC 4.3 ZENER DIODE, c) Transistor
d) MOSFET
1. Zener diodes are also known as
a) Voltage regulators Answer: a
b) Forward bias diode Explanation: If a Zener diode of TC of about
c) Breakdown diode -2mV is connected with a forward diode
d) None of the mentioned (which has a TC of about +2mV) in series,
the combination can be used to obtain a very
Answer: c low (close to zero) TC.
Explanation: Zener diodes are used as
voltage regulators but they aren’t called 5. In Zener diode, for currents greater than the
voltage regulators. They are called knee current, the v-i curve is almost
breakdown diodes since they operate in a) Almost a straight line parallel to y-axis
breakdown region. b) Almost a straight line parallel to x-axis
c) Equally inclined to both the axes with a
2. Which of the following is true about the positive slope
resistance of a Zener diode? d) Equally inclined to both the axes with a
a) It has an incremental resistance negative slope
b) It has dynamic resistance
c) The value of the resistance is the inverse of Answer: b
the slope of the i-v characteristics of the Explanation: Note that the curve is v-I curve
Zener diode and not an i-v curve.
d) All of the mentioned
6. Zener diodes can be effectively used in
Answer: d voltage regulator. However, they are these
Explanation: All of the statements are true days being replaced by more efficient
for the resistance of the zener diode. a) Operational Amplifier
b) MOSFET
3. Which of the following is true about the c) Integrated Circuits
temperature coefficient or TC of the Zener d) None of the mentioned
diode?
a) For Zener voltage less than 5V, TC is Answer: c
negative Explanation: ICs have been widely adapted
b) For Zener voltage around 5V, TC can be by the industries over conventional zener
made zero diodes as their better replacements for a
c) For higher values of Zener voltage, TC is voltage regulators.
7. A 9.1-V zener diode exhibits its nominal regulation. In this calculation neglect the
voltage at a test current of 28 mA. At this effect of the regulator resistance R.
current the incremental resistance is specified a) -30mV/mA and 120mV/mA respectively
as 5 Ω. Find VZ0 of the Zener model. b) 30mV/mA and 60mV/mA respectively
a) 8.96V c) -60mV/mA and +60mV/mA respectively
b) 9.03V d) -30mV/mA and -120mV/mA respectively
c) 9.17V
d) 9.24V Answer: d
Explanation: Three 6.8v zeners provide
Answer: b 3*6.8 = 20.4v with 3 * 10 =30Ω Resistance,
Explanation: VZ = VZo + MZ IZT neglecting R, we have
9.1 = VZo + 5 * 28 * 10-3 load Regulation = -30mV/mA.
For 5.1 Zeners we need 4 diodes to provide
VZo = 8.96v 20.4v with 4 * 30 =120Ω Resistance.
VZ = VZo + 5IZ = 8.96 * 5IZ. load Regulation = -120mV/mA .
8. A shunt regulator utilizing a zener diode 10. Partial specifications of a Zener diode is
with an incremental resistance of 5 Ω is fed provided. VZ = 10.0 V, VZK = 9.6 V, and IZT
through an 82-Ω resistor. If the raw supply = 50 mA. Assuming that the power rating of a
changes by 1.0 V, what is the corresponding breakdown diode is established at about twice
change in the regulated output voltage? the specified Zener current (IZT), what is the
a) 72.7 mV power rating of each of the diodes described
b) 73.7 mV above?
c) 74.7 mV a) 1.04 W
d) 75.7 mV b) 0.104 W
c) 10.4 mW
Answer: c
d) 1.04 mW
Explanation:
Answer: a
Explanation:
9. A designer requires a shunt regulator of

approximately 20 V. Two kinds of Zener
diodes are available: 6.8-V devices with rz of
TOPIC 4.4 TRANSISTORS
10 Ω and 5.1-V devices with rz of 30 Ω. For
CONFIGURATIONS
the two major choices possible, find the load
1. For a BJT, for common base configuration 4. In a BJT, if the collector-base junction is
the input characteristics is represented by a forward-biased and the base-emitter junction
plot between which of the following is forward-biased, which region is the BJT
parameters? operating in?
a) VBE and IE a) Saturation region
b) VBE and IB b) Active region
c) Cutoff region
c) VCE and IC
d) Reverse active region
d) VCC and IC
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: If the collector-base junction
Explanation: The input signal is applied and the base-emitter junction are both
between the base and the emitter terminals. forward-biased, then the BJT functions in the
Input current flowing is the base current and saturation region of the output characteristics.
hence characteristics are represented by a plot
between VBE and IB. 5. In a BJT, if the collector-base junction and
the base-emitter junction are both reverse-
2. For a BJT, for common base configuration biased, which region is the BJT operating in?
the output characteristics is represented by a a) Saturation region
plot between which of the following b) Active region
parameters? c) Cutoff region
a) VBE and IB d) Reverse active region
b) VCE and IC
Answer: c
c) VCB and IC Explanation: If the collector-base junction
d) VCE and IB and the base-emitter junction are both
reverse-biased, then the BJT functions in the
Answer: c cutoff region of the output characteristics.
Explanation: The input signal is applied
between the collector and the emitter 6. From the given characteristics, what is the
terminals. Input current flowing is the approximate value of IC at IB=30 uA and
collector current and hence characteristics are VCE=10 V?
represented by a plot between VCE and IC.
3. In a BJT, if the collector-base junction is

reverse-biased and the base-emitter junction
is forward-biased, which region is the BJT
operating in?
a) Saturation region
b) Active region
c) Cutoff region
d) Reverse active region a) 3 mA
b) 3.4 mA
Answer: b c) 0 mA
Explanation: If the collector-base junction is d) 2 mA
reverse-biased and the base-emitter junction
is forward-biased, then the BJT functions in Answer: b
the active region of the output characteristics. Explanation: At the intersection of IB=30 uA
and VCE=10 V, IC=3.4 mA. then the value of IC is equal to ICBO which is
in the order of microamperes but not zero.
7. From the given characteristics, what is the
approximate value of IC at VBE=0.7 V and 10. For common emitter configuration, which
VCE=15 V? of the following is the correct relation?
a) IC < IE
b) IC = βIB
c) IC = αIE
d) IC = IE
Answer: d
Explanation: All the relations hold true i.e.
IC = βIB and IC = αIE. As α<1, hence IC < IE.
a) 3.4 mA
b) 0 mA TOPIC 4.5 AMPLIFIERS.
c) 2.5 mA
d) 10 mA
1. An amplifier operating from ±3V provide a
Answer: c 2.2V peak sine wave across a 100 ohm load
Explanation: From the characteristics, the when provided with a 0.2V peak sine wave as
value of IB at VBE=0.7V is 20uA. Now, from an input from which 1.0mA current is drawn.
The average current in each supply is
IB=20 uA, we get IC = 2.5 mA.
measured to be 20mA. What is the amplifier
efficiency?
8. Which of the following correctly a) 20.2%
determines the relation between α and β? b) 25.2%
a) β=α/(1-α) c) 30.2%
b) α=β/(1-α) d) 35.2%
c) β=α/(1-β)
d) β=α*(1-β) Answer: a
Explanation:
Answer: a
Explanation: α and β are related as β=α/(1-
α).
In a BJT, β = IC/IB. and α = IC/IE
β = αIE/IB = (1+β)α
β = α + αβ
β = α/1-α.
9. The value of IC is precisely zero when the

value of IE is zero.
a) True
b) False
2. In order to prevent distortion in the output
Answer: b signal after amplification, the input signal
Explanation: When the value of IE is zero, must be
a) Higher than the positive saturation level of
the amplifier b) Both transformer and amplifier can provide

b) Lower than the negative saturation level of current gain
the amplifier c) Both transformer and amplifier can provide
c) Must lie with the negative and the positive power gain
saturation level of the amplifier d) None of the mentioned
d) Both higher than the positive saturation
level of the amplifier and lower than the Answer: c
negative saturation level of the amplifier Explanation: For an ideal transformer the
power input is always equal to the power
Answer: c output. In real conditions there is slight loss
Explanation: Higher than the positive of power when transferring the power from
saturation and lower than the negative an input source to an output source.
saturation level of the amplifier are the Amplifiers only provide power gain.
desired characteristics in order to prevent
distortion. 6. Symmetrically saturated amplifiers
operating in clipping mode can be used to
3. The voltage gain of the amplifier is 8 and convert a sine wave to a
the current gain is 7. The power gain of the a) Square wave
amplifier is b) Pseudo Square wave
a) 56 db c) Sawtooth wave
b) 17.481 db d) Triangular wave
c) 34.963 db
d) 1 db Answer: b
Explanation: Clipping circuits with low peak
Answer: b values of the output signals are used to
Explanation: The power gain is given by 10 generate pseudo square waves if the input
log (7 X 8) db. signal is very large as compared to the output
signal.
4. Statement 1: Voltage gain of -5 means that
the output voltage has been attenuated. 7. What is meant by stability of the an
Statement 2: Voltage gain of -5db means that amplified signal?
the output voltage has been attenuated. a) The amplified signal must have a finite
a) Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true amplitude
b) Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false b) The amplified signal should not have self
c) Only Statement 1 is true oscillation
d) Only Statement 2 is true c) The input and the output signal must be
proportional
Answer: d d) The ratio of the input and the output signal
Explanation: A negative voltage gain means must be finite
that a phase difference of 1800 has been
introduced in the output waveform when Answer: b
compared to the input waveform. A voltage Explanation: The ability of the amplifier to
gain of -5db means that the signal has been prevent self oscillation is a measure of its
attenuated. stability.
5. Which of the following isn’t true? 8. If Av, Ai and Ap represents the voltage
a) Both transformer and amplifier can provide gain, current gain and power gain ratio of an
voltage gain amplifier which of the below is not the
correct expression for the corresponding voltage gain, direct coupled amplifier which
values in decibel? can be used to perform mathematical
a) Current gain: 20 log Ai db operations on analog signals. It can be used to
b) Voltage gain: 20 log Av db amplify both DC and AC signals.
c) Power gain: 20 log Ap db 2. In the given block diagram of an op-amp:
d) Power gain: 10 log Ap
Answer: c What are A, B, C and D?

Explanation: Power gain is given by 10 log a) A = Dual input and balanced output
Ap db. differential amplifier, B = Dual input and
unbalanced output differential amplifier, C =
9. An amplifier has a voltage gain of 100 V/V Level shifter, D = Power amplifier
and a current gain of 1000A/A. the value of b) A = Dual input and balanced output
the power gain decibel is differential amplifier, B = Dual input and
a) 30 db balanced output differential amplifier, C =
b) 40 db Dual input and unbalanced output differential
c) 50 db amplifier, D = Normal amplifier
d) 60 db c) A = Dual input and unbalanced output
differential amplifier, B = Dual input and
Answer: c balanced output differential amplifier, C =
Explanation: Power gain in db is given by 10 Voltage regulator, D = Power amplifier
log (100 X 1000) db. d) A = Normal amplifier, B = Dual input and
unbalanced output differential amplifier, C =
10. The units of voltage gain is Level shifter, D = Dual input and balanced
a) It has no units, it is a ratio output differential amplifier
b) Decibels (db)
c) All of the mentioned Answer: a
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: The correct block diagram is
Answer: a
Explanation: Voltage gain (Vo) = output
voltage/input voltage (Vi). It is also expresses
as 20 log (Vo/Vi) db.
TOPIC 4.6 OP AMPS 3. In an ideal op-amp, which is not true?

a) Open loop voltage gain is infinite
b) Input resistance is infinite
1. Which of these is incorrect for an c) Slew rate is infinite
operational amplifier? d) CMRR is zero
a) It has a high voltage gain
b) It is a direct coupled amplifier Answer: d
c) It is only useful for amplifying AC signals Explanation: For an ideal op-amp, the open
d) It was originally designed to perform loop voltage gain is infinite. The output
mathematical operations resistance is 0 and the input resistance is
infinite. Op-amp has zero input current, zero
Answer: c
Explanation: Operational amplifier is a high
offset voltage, infinite bandwidth, infinite Answer: b

CMRR and infinite slew rate. Explanation: CMRR = 20 log(AD/ACM) =
20 log(4000×12/Vocm) = 100
4. A practical op-amp has a bandwidth of
Log(48000/VOCM) = 5
only 10 Hz. Gain is 106, and the required
bandwidth is 100 kHz. How much feedback is 48000/VOCM = 105
required? VOCM = 0.48V.
a) 0.99% negative feedback
b) 0.99% positive feedback 7. The unity gain bandwidth for an op-amp
c) 1% negative feedback having open loop gain 2×106 is 10 Mhz.
d) 1% positive feedback Calculate the AC gain of op-amp at an input
of 2000 Hz.
Answer: a a) 2000
Explanation: B2 = B1(1+βA) = 10(1+β106) b) 5000
= 100k c) 10000
1 + β106 = 10k d) 12.5
β = 9.999×10-3
In percentage, feedback β = 0.99% negative Answer: b
feedback. Explanation: UGB = AOLfOL
fOL = 10M/2×106 = 5Hz
5. Given that for an op-amp the gain is 103, The AC gain |A| = AOL
the slew rate is 1.5V/μsec. Input is 5×10-

2
√ 1+(f /5)
3sinωt, calculate maximum frequency to |A| = 2×106/400 = 5000.

prevent distortion.
8. Given that:
a) 47.7 kHz
A: Voltage gain of op-amp decreases at high
b) 0.3 MHz
frequencies
c) 477 Hz
B: Its internal structure uses a capacitor
d) 3 kHz
a) Both A and B are correct, and B is the
Answer: a correct reason for A
Explanation: dVOUT(max)/dT =< Slew rate b) Both A and B are correct, but B is not the
correct reason for A
A.Vmω =< 1.5 V/μsec c) A is correct and B is incorrect
103.5.10-3.ω = < 1.5×106 d) A is incorrect and B is correct
ω=<0.3×106
Frequency f = 0.0477×106Hz Answer: a
Explanation: The internal structure of an op-
6. Given that CMRR is 100dB. Input amp uses a compensation capacitor for
common-mode voltage is 12 V. Differential stability purpose. It provides dominant pole
voltage gain is 4000. Calculate output compensation; thereby the op-amp remains
common-mode voltage. stable. However, the op-amp gain remains
a) 48V constant at low frequencies but decreases at
b) 0.48V high frequencies due to a compensation
c) 20V capacitor.
d) 11V
9. Till what frequency do we get
amplification from IC 741?
a) Unity gain bandwidth b) Need

b) 3-dB frequency c) Doesn’t need at lower frequencies
c) Infinity d) Doesn’t need at higher frequencies
d) UGB + fOL
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: An oscillator is an amplifier
Explanation: The 3dB frequency is the cut- with positive feedback. It usually has a noise
off frequency, where the gain is of the
1 which is amplifier as an oscillating output.
√2
They do not require any type of specific input
maximum. The gain is only constant for to function properly.
infinite frequency, that is, has infinite
bandwidth if the op-amp is ideal, which 3. Negative resistance are incorporated in
practically doesn’t exist. The UGB is the oscillator for ___________
point at which gain of op-amp reaches 1. a) Sustained oscillation
b) Damped oscillation
10. What is the use of the compensation c) Biasing the oscillator
capacitor in op-amp? d) Increasing amplitude of oscillation
a) Improves the amplification of op-amp
b) Decreases the slew rate of op-amp Answer: a
c) Increases the bandwidth of op-amp Explanation: Negative resistance are
d) Op-amp acts as all pass filter incorporated in oscillator for sustained
oscillation. Negative resistance will cancel
Answer: b the damping by positive (normal) resistance.
Explanation: Compensation capacitor in the
internal structure of op-amp to improve its 4. For accomplishing negative resistance in
frequency response, increasing its stability. It oscillator we use _____________
also decreases the slew rate of the op-amp. a) Voltage divider circuit
b) Negative feedback
TOPIC 4.7 OSCILLATOR c) Positive feedback
d) Current divider circuit
1. Oscillators are used to ______ AC voltage. Answer: c
a) Prevent Explanation: The input or output impedance
b) Generate of an amplifier with positive feedback
c) Amplify applied, can be negative. When loop gain is
d) Rectify greater than 1, the input impedance is a
negative value, over a linear range. These are
Answer: b also called active resistors.
Explanation: Oscillators are used for
generating AC voltage. They are often 5. Primary trigger for oscillation is obtained
characterized by the frequency of the from ___________
oscillations produced. There are two main a) DC voltage
types of electronic oscillators, b) Noise voltage
linear/harmonic and nonlinear/relaxation c) External trigger voltage
oscillator. d) No trigger is required
2. Oscillator __________ an AC input for Answer: b
giving an AC output. Explanation: The primary trigger for
a) Doesn’t need
oscillation is obtained from noise voltage. Answer: a

Explanation: In an oscillator if phase of
6. The AC power of output signal is obtained feedback is same as that of oscillation
by ___________ waveform then feedback is called positive
a) Input AC voltage feedback.
b) Input DC voltage
c) DC biasing voltage 10. The output of oscillator will not depend
d) Power is generated by transistor itself upon ___________
a) Feedback
Answer: c b) Amplifier
Explanation: The Ac power of output signal c) Both feedback and amplifier
is obtained by DC biasing voltage of d) Input voltage
amplifier.
Answer: d
7. The output of a stable oscillator have Explanation: The output of oscillator will not
___________ depend upon input voltage. There is no input
a) Constant amplitude voltage for an oscillator.
b) Varying amplitude
c) Constant amplitude at high frequencies
only TOPIC 4.8 RECTIFIERS
d) Constant amplitude at low frequencies only
1. Which of the following isn’t a type of
Answer: a rectifier?
Explanation: Output of a stable oscillator a) Precision Half-wave Rectifier
have constant amplitude and frequency. A b) Bridge Rectifier
common criteria is the Barkhausen stability c) Peak Rectifier
criteria, wherein it states that loop gain should d) None of the mentioned
be unity and feedback should be positive.
Answer: d
8. The output waveform of a stable oscillator Explanation: All of the mentioned are
have ___________ different types of a rectifier.
a) Constant frequency at low amplitude only
b) Constant frequency at high amplitude only 2. For a half wave or full wave rectifier the
c) Variable frequency Peak Inverse Voltage of the rectifier is always
d) Constant frequency a) Greater than the input voltage
b) Smaller than the input voltage
Answer: d c) Equal to the input voltage
Explanation: Output of a stable oscillator d) Greater than the input voltage for full wave
have constant amplitude and frequency. rectifier and smaller for the half wave
rectifier
9. In an oscillator if phase of feedback is
same as that of oscillation waveform then Answer: b
feedback is called ___________ Explanation: The peak input voltage is
a) Positive feedback smaller than the input voltage due to the
b) Negative feedback presence of diode(s). A single diode reduces
c) Cannot be predicted the output voltage by approximately 0.7V.
d) Either positive or negative depending upon
frequency
3. For a half-wave rectifier having diode c) Precision rectifier

voltage VD and supply input of VI, the diode d) None of the mentioned
conducts for π – 2Θ, where Θ is given by
Answer: a
a) tan -1 VD/VI Explanation: For the supply voltages less
b) tan-1 VD/VI – VI than 0.7V super diodes are used.
c) sin-1 VD/VI 7. A simple diode rectifier has ‘ripples’ in the
d) sin-1 VD/VI – VI output wave which makes it unsuitable as a
DC source. To overcome this one can use
Answer: c a) A capacitor in series with a the load
Explanation: The diode doesn’t conducts resistance
when VD ≥VI . Hence Θ = sin-1 (D/VI). b) A capacitor in parallel to the load
resistance
4. Bridge rectifier is an alternative for c) Both of the mentioned situations will work
d) None of the mentioned situations will work
a) Full wave rectifier
b) Peak rectifier
Answer: b
c) Half wave rectifier
Explanation: A capacitor is parallel with a
resistor can only makes ripples go away.
Answer: a Series connection will become equal to an
open circuit once the capacitor is fully
Explanation: Bridge rectifier is a better
charged.
alternative for a full wave rectifier.
8. Consider a peak rectifier fed by a 60-Hz
5. Which of the following is true for a bridge
sinusoid having a peak value Vp = 100 V. Let
rectifier?
the load resistance R = 10 kΩ. Calculate the
a) The peak inverse voltage or PIV for the
fraction of the cycle during which the diode is
bridge rectifier is lower when compared to an
conducting
identical center tapped rectifier
a) 1.06 %
b) The output voltage for the center tapped
b) 2.12 %
rectifier is lower than the identical bridge
c) 3.18%
rectifier
d) 4.24%
c) A transistor of higher number of coil is
required for center tapped rectifier than the Answer: c
identical bridge rectifier Explanation: w Δt ~ √(2Vr/Vp)
Θ = √(2 X 2/100)
Answer: d Θ = 0.2 rad or 3.18% of the cycle
Explanation: All of the given statements are
(Q.9-Q.10) The op amp in the precision
true for a bridge rectifier. rectifier circuit is ideal with output saturation
levels of ±12 V. Assume that when
6. The diode rectifier works well enough if
conducting the diode exhibits a constant
the supply voltage is much than greater than
voltage drop of 0.7 V.
0.7V. For smaller voltage (of few hundreds of
millivolt) input which of the following can be
used?
a) Superdiode
b) Peak rectifier
Virtual gnd as negative feedback is closed

through R.
VI > 0 D1 conducts D2 cutoff.
VI < 0 D2 conducts D1 cutoff.
V0 ⁄
VI = -1.
9. Find V– when VI is -1V.

a) 0V
b) 0.7V
c) 1V
d) 1.7V
Answer: a
Explanation: VI = -1v
Vo = 1v TOPIC 4.9 DIFFERENTIATOR
VA = 1.7v
V– = 0v 1. Differentiation amplifier produces
Virtual gnd as negative feedback is closed a) Output waveform as integration of input
through R. waveform
VI > 0 D1 conducts D2 cutoff. b) Input waveform as integration of output
VI < 0 D2 conducts D1 cutoff. waveform
V0 ⁄ c) Output waveform as derivative of input
VI = -1. waveform
d) Input waveform as derivative of output
waveform
Answer: c
Explanation: Differentiation amplifier or
differentiator is a circuit that performs
mathematical operation of differentiation and
produce output waveform as a derivative of
input waveform.
10. Find V0 when VI is 2V. 2. Find out the differentiator circuit from the
a) 0V given circuits?
b) 0.7V
c) 1V
d) 1.7V
Answer: a
Explanation: VI = 2v
Vo = 0v
VA = -0.7v
V– = 0v
Answer: a 6. Calculate the gain limiting frequency for

Explanation: The differentiator is the circuit
constructed from basic inverting amplifier by
replacing the input resistor R1 by replacing a
capacitor C1.
3. Determine the output voltage of the

differentiator?
a) VO = RF×C1×[dVin/dt].
b) VO = -RF×C1×[dVin/dt].
c) VO = RF×CF×[dVin/dt].
Answer: b a) 15.64Hz
Explanation: The output voltage is equal to b) 23.356Hz
the RF×C1 times the negative instantaneous c) 33.89Hz
rate of change of the input voltage Vin with d) None of the mentioned
time. Answer: c
Explanation: The gain limiting frequency,
4. which factor makes the differentiator fb= 1/(2π×R1×C1).
circuit unstable?
a) Output impedance fb= 1/(2π×10kΩ×0.47µF)= 1/(2.9516×10-2) =
b) Input voltage 33.89Hz.
c) Noise
d) Gain 7. The stability and high frequency noise
problem are corrected by
Answer: d a) Adding feedback capacitor
Explanation: The gain of the differentiator b) Feedback capacitor and internal resistor
circuit (RF / XC1) increases with increase in c) Feedback capacitor and feedback resistor
frequency at a rate of 20dB/decade. This d) Internal capacitor and internal capacitor
makes the circuit unstable.
Answer: b
5. The increase in the input frequency of the Explanation: The stability and high
differentiation amplifier to input impedance frequency noise problem are corrected by
creates addition of two components to the
a) Component noise differentiator: 1. Internal resistor in series
b) External noise with internal capacitor and
c) Low frequency noise 2. Feedback capacitor shunts with feedback
d) High frequency noise resistor.
Answer: d 8. Select the order in which the frequency

Explanation: The input impedance of the should be maintained to enhance the stability
amplifier decreases with increase in of differentiator? Where fa -> Frequency at
frequency and make the circuit susceptible to which gain =0 ; fb -> Gain limit frequency ; fc
high frequency noise such that noise can -> Unity gain bandwidth.
completely over ride differential output. a) fa < fb < fc
b) fa > fb > fc 11. Choose the value of RF and C for a 5kHz

c) fb < fc > fa input signal to obtain good differentiation.
d) fb < fc < fa a) RF = 1.6×103Ω, C1 = 33×10-6F
b) RF = 1.6×103Ω, C1 = 0.47×10-6F
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of internal resistor c) RF = 1.6×103Ω, C1 = 47×10-6F
and capacitor and feedback resistor and d) RF = 1.6×103 Ω, C1 = 10×10-6F
capacitor of the differentiator values should
M
be selected such that fa < fb < fc to make the Answer: b
circuit more stable. Explanation: For a good differentiation, the
O
time period of the input signal must be larger
9. Which application use differentiator than or equal to RF C1 i.e. T ≥ RF×C1
C
circuit?
a) None of the mentioned Given f=5kHz , T=1/f = 1/5kHz = 2×10-4 –>
T.
b) FM modulators Equ(1)
c) Wave generators RF×C1 = 0.4µF×1.6kΩ =7.52×10-4 –> Equ(2)
d) Frequency Shift keying Hence Equ(1) ≥ Equ(2).
O
Answer: b 12. Determine the transfer function for the
Explanation: The differentiators are used in
FM modulator as a rate of change detector. SP
practical differentiator
G
10. A sine wave of 1vpeak at 1000Hz is
applied to a differentiator with the following
LO
specification: RF =1kΩ and C1=0.33µF, find

the output waveform?
.B
17
-R
a) Vo(s) /V1(s) = -S×RF×C1/(1+R1×C1)2

b) Vo(s) /V1(s) = -S×RF×C1/(1+RF×C1)2
SE
Answer: a
c) Vo(s) /V1(s) = -S×RF×C1/(1+R1×CF)2
Explanation: Given, Vin = Vp×sinωt =
sin(2π×1000)t
C
The output of differentiator Vo = - Answer: a

RF×C1×(dVin/dt) = Explanation: The transfer function for the
(1kΩ)×(0.33µF)×d[sin2π×1000t]/dt circuit,
= -3.3×10-4×2π×1000 ×[cos2π(1000)t] Vo(s) /V1(s) =-S×RF×C1/{[1+(RF CF)]×[1+
=-2.07×[cos2π(1000)t]. (S×R1×C1)]}.
In a practical differentiator, RFCF = R1C1
=> Vo(s) /V1(s) = -SRF×C1/(1+SRF×CF)2 or

Vo(s) /V1’(s) = -S×RF×C1/(1+R1×C1)2.
TOPIC 4.10 INTEGRATOR
1. Find the range of frequency between which

the circuit act as integrator? a) Triangular function
a) [1/(2πRFCF)]– (2πR1CF)
b) Unit step function
b) (2πRFCF) – [1/(2πR1CF)]. c) Ramp function
c) [1/(2πRFCF)]- [1/(2πR1CF)]. d) Square function
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: Input voltage Vin = 1.2v for
Explanation: 0≤t≤0.4ms. The output voltage at t=0.4ms is
t 0.4
Vo = (1/R×CF)× ∫0 Vindt+C =-(1/1) × ∫01.2
dt
0.1 0.2 0.3
=> Vo =-[ ∫01.2 dt + ∫0.11.2 dt + ∫0.21.2 dt
0.4
+ ∫0.31.2 dt ] = -(1.2+1.2+1.2+1.2) = -4.8v
For a practical integrator, the gain limiting

frequency is fa= 1/(2πRF CF). After fa, the
gain decreases at a rate 20db/decade and
reaches 0db. The frequency at which gain is
0db is fb= 1/(2π RF×CF). So, the circuit act as
integrator between fa and fb. Therefore, the output voltage waveform is a
ramp function.
2. What will be the output voltage waveform
for the circuit, R1×CF=1s and input is a step 3. Find R1 and RF in the lossy integrator so
voltage. Assume that the op-amp is initially that the peak gain and the gain down from its
nulled. peak is 40db to 6db. Assume ω=20,000 rad/s
and capacitance = 0.47µF.
a) R1 = 10.6Ω, RF = 106Ω
b) R1 = 21.2Ω, RF = 212.6Ω
c) R1 = 42.4Ω, RF = 424Ω
d) R1 = 29.8Ω, RF = 298Ω
Answer: b b) T ≤ RFCF
Explanation: The gain of the lossy c) T ≥ RFCF
integration is A=(RF/ R1)/√[1+(ωRFCF)]2 d) T ≠ RFCF
=> A(db) = 20log{(RF/R1)/√[1+(ωRFCF)]2}
=> 40db = 20log×[(RF/R1)/√1 Answer: c
Explanation: The input signal will be
=> R1 = RF/20. integrated properly, if the time period T of the
At ω=20000rad/s, the gain is down by 6db signal is larger than or equal to RF×CF
from its peak of 20db and thus is 14db. The
(Feedback resistor and capacitor).
gain at 14db => 14db= 20log ×{[ (RF/
RF/20)] / [√(1+(200000×0.47×10-6×RF)2]} 7. Find the output waveform for an input of
5kHz.
=> 20log[1+(9.4×10-3×RF)2] = 20-14
=> RF = √3/9.4×10-3 = 212.26Ω and R1 =
212.26Ω/10 = 21.2Ω.
4. Why a resistor is shunted across the

feedback capacitor in the practical integrator?
a) To reduce operating frequency
b) To enhance low frequency gain
c) To enhance error voltage
d) To reduce error voltage
Answer: d
Explanation: The input current charging the
feedback capacitor produces error voltage at
the output of the integrator. Therefore, to
reduce error voltages a resistor (RF) is
connected across the feedback capacitor.
Hence, RF minimizes the variation in the Answer: a
output voltage. Explanation: The output voltage of
t
integrator, Vo = (1/R1×CF)× ∫0 Vindt+C = -
5. Find the application in which integrator is 0.1ms
used? [(1/10kΩ×10nF) ∫01dt ]= -(104×0.1×10-3)
a) All of the mentioned = -1v.
b) Analog Computers The input is constant amplitude of 2v from 0
c) FM Detectors to 0.1ms and from 0.1ms to 0.2ms. The
d) AM detectors output for each of these half periods will be
ramp. Thus, the expected output is triangular
Answer: b wave.
Explanation: The integrator is most
commonly used in analog computers mainly 8. What happens if the input frequency is kept
for signal wave shaping. lower than the frequency at which the gain is
zero?
6. At what condition the input signal of the a) Circuit act like a perfect integrator
integrator is integrated properly b) Circuit act like an inverting amplifier
a) T = RFCF
c) Circuit act like a voltage follower b) Parallel type

d) Circuit act like a differentiator c) Both serial and parallel type
Answer: b
Explanation: If the input frequency is lower Answer: c
that the lower frequency limit of the Explanation: ADC provides both serial and
integrator (i.e. when gain = 0), there will be parallel type output according to application.
no integration results and the circuit act like a
simple inverting amplifier. 3. Which of the following method is
employed for ADC?
9. Match the correct frequency range for a) Ladder network
integration. (Where f –> Input frequency and b) Successive approximation type
fa –> Lower frequency limit of integration) c) PWM type
1.f i. Results in 50%
<< fa accuracy in integration Answer: b
Explanation: In successive approximation
2.f = ii. Results in 99% method input value is constantly compared
fa accuracy in integration with a reference value.
3.f =
10fa iii. No integration results 4. Successive approximation is slow for large
bit application.
a) True
a) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii b) False
b) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
c) 1-ii, 2-iii, 1-i Answer: b
d) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i Explanation: Successive approximation
method is much faster in large bit application.
Answer: a
Explanation: The mentioned answer gives 5. Which of the following represents range of
the exact ranges where the integration starts. frequency measured by ADC?
a) Bandwidth
TOPIC 4.11.1 ADC b) Threshold frequency
c) Peak frequency
1. Typical conversion speed of ADC is
_______________ Answer: a
a) Less than 1µs Explanation: Bandwidth of ADC is the
b) Less than 100 µs maximum range of frequency measured by
c) Less than 500 µs ADC.
d) Greater than 1000 µs
6. Dynamic range of ADC is depended on
Answer: b _______________
Explanation: Typical conversion speed of a) Resolution
ADC is between 1µs and 100 µs. b) Linearity
c) Accuracy
2. Which of the following type output is d) All of the mentioned
provided by ADC?
a) Serial type
Answer: d 1. Which of the following are used in DAC?

Explanation: Dynamic range of ADC is a) Ladder network
depended on both resolution, linearity and b) Successive approximation technique
accuracy. c) Both Ladder and successive approximation
technique
7. Small timing errors in ADC additional to d) None of the mentioned
noise is known as ____________
a) Jitter Answer: a
b) Aliasing Explanation: Ladder network of resistors are
c) Super noise employed for the conversion of digital data to
d) None of the mentioned analog data.
Answer: a 2. Which of the following is an indication by

Explanation: Jitter is a type of noise that is settling time?
produced additional to noise. a) Accuracy of conversion
b) Speed of conversion
8. ENOB in ADC stand for c) Precision in conversion
_________________ d) All of the mentioned
a) Effective number of bytes
b) Effective number of bits Answer: b
c) Effective nibble baud Explanation: Settling time is the time
d) None of the mentioned between the start and end of conversion, it
indicates the speed of conversion.
Answer: b
Explanation: Effective number of bits 3. Filling data between impulses in DAC is
(ENOB) represents the number of bits known as __________________
measured by ADC. a) Reconstruction
b) Sampling
9. ENOB is a negation of resolution. c) Interpolation
a) True d) None of the mentioned
b) False
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: Interpolation is the method of
Explanation: ENOB or effective number of filling data between digital signals in order to
bits is the number of bits measured by ADC form a continuous analog signal.
and it is equal to resolution.
4. Which of the following represents over
10. Rotary encoder is an ADC. sampling DAC?
a) True a) PWM DAC
b) False b) Delta-sigma DAC
c) Binary weighted DAC
Answer: a d) Switched resistor DAC
Explanation: Rotary encoder can be treated
as an encoder which converts analog quantity Answer: b
to digital quantity. Explanation: Delta sigma DAC is an over
sampled DAC characterized according to its
TOPIC 4.11.2 DAC sampling rate.
5. Which of the following is a binary expressed in decibel unit.

weighted DAC?
a) R-2R ladder DAC 9. Thermal noise is absent in DAC.
b) PWM DAC a) True
c) Switched resistor DAC b) False
d) Sampling DAC
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Thermal noise is present in
Explanation: R-2R ladder type DAC is DAC due to the presence of passive
known as binary weighted DAC, which components like resistors.
consist of a resistor arranged as a ladder.
10. SFDR stands for
6. Segmented DAC uses ______________________
_________________ a) Spurious free dielectric range
a) Thermometer coded principle conversion b) Signal free dynamic range
only c) Spurious free dynamic range
b) Binary weighted principle only d) None of the mentioned
c) Both thermometer coded and Binary
weighted principle Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: SFDR indicates in dB, and it is
the ratio between powers of the converted
Answer: c main signal and undesired spur.
Explanation: Segmented DAC uses the
thermometer coded principle for MSB bits TOPIC 4.12 MULTI VIBRATOR
and binary weighted principle for LSB bits.
USING 555 TIMER IC.
7. Ability of analog output to move only in
the direction of digital input move is known 1. Determine the time period of a monostable
as ________________ 555 multivibrator.
a) Monotonicity a) T = 0.33RC
b) Resolution b) T = 1.1RC
c) Sampling rate c) T = 3RC
d) Dynamicity d) T = RC
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Monotonicity of DAC is its Explanation: The time period of a
ability to follow digital output to analog monostable 555 timer is T = RC×ln(1/3) =
input. 1.1.RC.
8. Dynamic range is expressed in 2. Find monostable vibrator circuit using 555

________________ timer.
a) Volts
b) Ampere
c) Hz
d) Decibel
Answer: d
Explanation: Dynamic range of DAC is
The circuit shows the differentiator to be

connected between trigger input and the
+VCC.
4. A monostable multivibrator has R = 120kΩ

and the time delay T = 1000ms, calculate the
value of C?
a) 0.9µF
b) 1.32µF
c) 7.5µF
d) 2.49µF
Answer: c
Explanation: Time delay for a monostable
multivibrator, T = 1.1RC
=> C = T/(1.1R) = 1000ms/(1.1×120kΩ) =
7.57µF.
5. Which among the following can be used to

detect the missing heart beat?
Answer: a
a) Monostable multivibrator
Explanation: When 555 timer is configured
b) Astable multivibrator
in monostable operation, the trigger input is
c) Schmitt trigger
applied through pin2 whereas, upper
comparator threshold (pin6) & discharge
(pin7) are shorted and connected at the Answer: a
output. Explanation: A monostable multivibrator can
be used as a missing pulse detector by
3. How to overcome mistriggering on the
connecting a transistor between trigger inputs.
positive pulse edges in the monostable
If a pulse misses, the discharge trigger input
circuit?
goes high & transistor become cut-off and the
a) Connect a RC network at the input
output goes low. So, this type of circuit can
b) Connect an integrator at the input
be used to detect missing heart beat.
c) Connect a differentiator at the input
d) Connect a diode at the input 6. A 555 timer in monostable application
mode can be used for
Answer: c
a) Pulse position modulation
Explanation: To prevent the mistrigger on
b) Frequency shift keying
positive pulse edges, a resister & capacitor
c) Speed control and measurement
combined of 10kΩ and 0.001µF at the input
d) Digital phase detector
to form a differentiator
Answer: c
Explanation: In monostable operation mode,
if input trigger pulses are generated from a
rotating wheel, the circuit will determine the
wheel speed whenever it drops below a
predetermined value. Therefore, it can be
used for speed control and measurement.
7. How can a monostable multivibrator be [(0.7)×(47kΩ+100kΩ)]}

modified into a linear ramp generator? =>T= 132.3/132.100 =1.0015×10-3 = 1ms.
a) Connect a constant current source to
trigger input 9. What will be the output, if a modulating
b) Connect a constant current source to input signal and continuous triggering signal
trigger output are applied to pin5 and pin22 respectively in
c) Replace resistor by constant current source the following circuit?
d) Replace capacitor by constant current
source
Answer: c
Explanation: The resistor R of the
monostable circuit is replaced by a constant
current source. So, that the capacitor is
charged linearly and generates ramp signal.
8. Determine time period of linear ramp

generator using the specifications
RE = 2.7kΩ, R1 =47kΩ , R2 100kΩ , C=
0.1µF, VCC =5v.
a) Frequency modulated wave form

b) Pulse width modulated wave form
c) Both pulse and frequency modulated wave
form
Answer: b
Explanation: On application of continuous
trigger at pin22 and a modulated input signal
at pin5, a series of output pulses are obtained.
The duration of which depends on the
a) 8ms modulating signal. Also in the pulse duration,
b) 4ms only the duty cycle varies, keeping the
c) 2ms frequency same as that of the continuous
d) 1ms input pulse train trigger.
Answer: d
TOPIC 4.13 VOLTAGE
Explanation: The time period of the linear
ramp generator, T= [(2/3)×(VCC×RE)×(R1+ REGULATOR IC USING LM
R2)×C]/{(R1×VCC)-[VBE×(R1+R2)]} 723,LM 317.
= {(2/3)×5v×[2.7kΩ×(4.7kΩ+
100kΩ)]×(0.1µF)}/{[(47kΩ)×5v]- 1. Which is not considered as a linear voltage
regulator?
a) Fixed output voltage regulator

b) Adjustable output voltage regulator
c) Switching regulator
d) Special regulator
Answer: c
Explanation: In linear regulator’s the
impedance of active element may be
continuously varied to supply a desired
current to the load. But in the switching
regulator, a switch is turned on and off.
2. What is the dropout voltage in a three

terminal IC regulator?
a) |Vin| ≥ |Vo|+2v
b) |Vin| < |Vo|-2v
c) |V in| = |Vo|
d) |Vin| ≤ |Vo| a) IL = 23.45A
b) IL = 46.32A
Answer: a
Explanation: The unregulated input voltage c) IL = 56.87A
must be atleast 2V more than the regulated d) IL = 30.75A
output voltage. For example, if Vo=5V, then
Vin=7V. Answer: d
Explanation: The equation for load current,
3. To get a maximum output current, IC IL = [(ß+1)IO]-[ß×(VEB(ON)/R1)]=
regulation are provided with [(15+1)×2]–[15×(1v/12 Ω)] =32-1.25
a) Radiation source =30.75A.
b) Heat sink
c) Peak detector 5. Which type of regulator is considered more
d) None of the mentioned efficient?
a) All of the mentioned
Answer: b b) Special regulator
Explanation: The load current may vary from c) Fixed output regulator
0 to rated maximum output current. To d) Switching regulator
maintain this condition, the IC regulator is
usually provided with a heat sink; otherwise it Answer: d
may not provide the rated maximum output Explanation: The switching element
current. dissipates negligible power in either on or off
state. Therefore, the switching regulator is
4. For the given circuit, let VEB(ON)=1v, ß= more efficient than the linear regulators.
15 and IO=2mA. Calculate the load current
6. State the reason for thermal shutdown of
IC regulator?
a) Spikes in temperature
b) Decrease in temperature
c) Fluctuation in temperature collector current in the output using the

d) Increase in temperature transistor specification: ß=15 and VEB(ON)
=1.5v.
Answer: d a) 270mA
Explanation: The IC regulator has a b) 450mA
temperature sensor (built-in) which turn off c) 100mA
the IC, when it becomes too hot (usually d) 50mA
125oC-150oC). The output current will drop
and remains there until the IC has cooled Answer: b
significantly. Explanation: The collector current from
transistor, IC= ßIB
7. Find the difference between output current Where, IB= IO-(VEB(ON)/R1) = 180mA-
having a load of 100Ω and 120Ω for 7805 IC
regulator. Consider the following (1.5v-10Ω) = 0.03A.
specification: Voltage across the load = 5v; Therefore, IC= 15×0.03 = 0.45A = 450mA.
Voltage across the internal resistor= 350mv.
a) 8.4mA 10. How the average temperature coefficient
b) 7mA of output voltage expressed in fixed voltage
c) 9mA regulator?
d) 3.4mA a) miilivolts/oC
b) miilivoltsoC
Answer: a c) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Given the voltage across the
d) oC/ miilivolts
internal resistor to be 350mv, which is less
than 0.7v. Hence the transistor in 7805 is off. Answer: a
When load = 100Ω, IL= IO= Ii= 5v/100 Ω = Explanation: The temperature stability or
50mA average temperature coefficient of output
When load=120Ω, IO= 5v/120 Ω = 41.6mA. voltage, is the change in the output voltage
So, the difference between the output voltage per unit change in temperature and expressed
= 50-41.6mA = 8.4mA. in miilivolts/oC.
8. The change in output voltage for the 11. In the circuit given below, let
corresponding change in load current in a VEB(ON)=0.8v and ß=16. Calculate the output
7805 IC regulator is defined as current coming from 7805 IC and collector
a) All of the mentioned current coming from transistor Q1 for a load
b) Line regulation
of 5Ω.
c) Load regulation
d) Input regulation
Answer: c
Explanation: Load regulation is defined as
the change in output voltage for a change in
load current and is also expressed in
millivolts or as a percentage of output
voltage.
9. An IC 7840 regulator has an output current

=180mA and internal resistor =10Ω. Find the
a) 17.17v
b) 34.25v
c) 89.34v
d) 23.12v
Answer: a
a) IO =111mA, IC= 808mA Explanation: The output voltage, VO
b) IO =111mA, IC= 829mA =VREF[1=(R2/R1)]+(IADJ×R2)=1.25Vin× [1+
c) IO =111mA, IC= 881mA (3kΩ/240Ω)] +( 100µA×3kΩ )= 16.875 +0.3.
=> VO=17.17v.
d) IO =111mA, IC= 889mA
13. Compute the input voltage of 7805c
Answer: d voltage regulator with a current source that
Explanation: When load = 5Ω, IL= 5v/5Ω will deliver a 0.725A current to 65Ω, 10w
=1A. The voltage across R1 is 7Ω × 1A=7v. load. (Assume reference voltage =5v)
Since, IL is more than 100mA, the transistor a) Vin = 84v
Q1 turns on and supplies the extra current b) Vin = 34v
required. c) Vin = 54v
Therefore, IL =(ß+1)IO-[ß×(VEB(ON)/R1) d) Vin = 64v
IO = [IL/(ß+1)]+ [ß×(VEB(ON)/R1) =
[1/(16+1)]+[16×(0.8/2Ω)] ≅111mA. Answer: c
=> IC=IL-IO=1A-111mA =889mA. Explanation: VO=VREF+VL =VREF+
(IL×RL) = 5v+(0.725A×65Ω) = 52.125v
12. Calculate the output voltage for LM314 => Input voltage, Vin = VO + dropout voltage
regulator. The current IADJ is very small in = 52.125v+2v.
the order of 100µA. (Assume VREF=1.25v) => Vin ≅54v.
14. Which of the following is not a

characteristic of adjustable voltage
regulators?
a) Non-versatile
b) Better performance
c) Increased reliability
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Adjustable voltage regulators Explanation: Derived units are those
are versatile; it has improved over-load expressed in terms of fundamental units.
protection allowing greater output current Primary or fundamental units cannot be
over operating temperature range. expressed in terms of other units.
4. Which standard is fixed and used for

industrial laboratories?
a) International standard
UNIT V ELECTRICAL b) Primary standard
c) Secondary standard
MEASUREMENT d) Working standard
TOPIC 5.1 CHARACTERISTIC Answer: c

Explanation: Secondary standards are fixed
OF MEASUREMENT-ERRORS and used in industrial laboratories. Working
IN MEASUREMENT standards as its name suggests is used for day
to day measurements. International standards
1. Which of the following is caused by are accepted internationally and primary
careless handling? standards are used in different parts of world
a) Systematic error which will not be accessible outside for
b) Gross error calibration.
c) Random error
d) None of the mentioned 5. Which of the following error is caused by
poor calibration of the instrument?
Answer: b a) Random error
Explanation: Gross errors are mostly due to b) Gross error
lack of knowledge, judgment and care on the c) Systematic error
part of the experiment. That is Gross error is d) Precision error
caused by careless handling.
Answer: c
2. ‘A system will be error free if we remove Explanation: Systematic errors are caused by
all systematic error’. poor calibration of instruments.
a) True
b) False 6. How systematic errors are eliminated?
a) Frequent measurement
Answer: b b) Replacement of instrument
Explanation: Random errors will remain in a c) Finding mean of reading
system even if we remove all systematic d) Finding variance of reading
errors. Random errors are also known as
residual errors. Answer: b
Explanation: The possible way of
3. Which of the following is not a eliminating systematic error is the
fundamental quantity? replacement of instruments. Systematic errors
a) Length are caused by poor instrument calibration.
b) Angle
c) Time 7. Which of the following represents an SI
d) Luminous intensity unit of luminous intensity?
a) Lumen TOPIC 5.2 TORQUE IN

b) Candela
c) Dioptre INDICATING INSTRUMENTS,
d) None of the mentioned MOVING COIL AND MOVING
IRON METERS
Answer: b
Explanation: SI unit of Luminous intensity is
candela represented by cd. Luminous 1. In a moving iron meter, the deflection
intensity is a Photometric quantity. torque is proportional to?
a) Square of the current through the coil
8. Starting position of an object is represented b) Current through the coil
as x=5.1±0.2m and finishing position as c) Sine of measurand
y=6.9±0.3m. What will be the displacement d) The Square root of the measurand
and error in displacement?
a) Displacement = 1m, Error = 0.5m Answer: a
b) Displacement = 2m, Error = 0.36m Explanation: We know that,
c) Displacement = 1.8m, Error = 0.36m Td = I θ
1
2
2 dl
d) Displacement = 1.5m, Error = 0.4m ∴ The deflection torque is proportional to the

square of the current through the coil.
Answer: c
Explanation: Displacement between two 2. The full-scale deflection current of an
positions represented as x±Δx and y±Δy is Iy- ammeter is 4 mA and its internal resistance is
xI and error in displacement is (Δx2 400Ω. If this meter is to have a full deflection
+Δy2)1/2. of 10 A, what is the value of the shunt
resistance to be used?
9. Uncertainty in quantity X is given by ΔX. a) 49.99 Ω
Then what will be the uncertainty in quantity b) 0.16 Ω
R for which R=c.X? c) 1.5 Ω
a) |c|.ΔX d) 2.6 Ω
b) ΔX⁄|c|
c) ΔX Answer: b
d) (ΔX)c Explanation: Voltage across the meter = 4 ×
10-3 × 4 × 102 = 1.6 V
Answer: a Current through the shunt = 10 – 0.004 =
Explanation: Error of a Quantity which is a 9.996 A
constant multiple of another quantity will be a ∴ Shunt resistance = 16
= 0.16 Ω.
10×9.996
constant multiple of error of first one.

3. The full-scale deflection current of a meter
10. ‘Zero error is an indication of is 4 mA and its internal resistance is 400Ω.
instrumental error’. This meter is to have full deflection when 400
a) True V is measured. What is the value of the series
b) False resistor to be used?
a) 99.90 kΩ
Answer: a b) 100 kΩ
Explanation: Zero error refers to a false c) 99.60 kΩ
indication of an instrument when the true d) 100 Ω
value is zero and zero error can be treated as
an instrumental error.
Answer: c d) Non-uniform and crowded around mid-

Explanation: (RS + 400) × 10-3 × 4 = 400 scale
Or, RS = 100000 – 400 = 99.6 kΩ.
Answer: c
4. Two ammeters, one with a full-scale Explanation: We have deflection θ ∝ I2 for
current of 1 mA and internal resistance of 100 an ammeter and θ ∝ V2 for a voltmeter. We
Ω and other a full-scale current of 10 mA and have assumed the value for the voltmeter to
internal resistance of 25 Ω are in parallel. be constant but it is not true. The value is
M
What is the total current, these two meters constant for a radical field but not for a
can carry without the reading out of scale in voltmeter.
O
any meter?
a) 1 mA 7. Moving Iron Instrument can be used as
C
b) 10 mA ____________
c) 11 mA a) An ammeter for measuring DC as well as
T.
d) 5 mA AC
b) For measuring DC current and voltages
Answer: d only
O
Explanation: The lower current Il will decide c) An ammeter and a voltmeter for measuring
the total current. DC as well as AC
∴T× = 1 mA
Or, T = 5 mA.
25
125 SP
d) For measuring AC current and voltages
only
G
5. A meter has a full scale of 90° at a current Answer: c
of 1 A. This meter has a perfect square law Explanation: When the instrument is
LO
response. What is the current when the connected in the circuit, the current flows
deflection angle is 45°? through the coil. These currents set up a
a) 0.5 A magnetic field in the coil. The result is that
the pointer attached to the moving system
.B
b) 0.25 A
c) 0.707 A moves from zero position. If the current in the
d) 0.67 A coil is reversed, the direction of deflecting
17
torque remains unchanged. Therefore, these

Answer: c instruments can be used for both DC as well
Explanation: We know, TD = Cθ as AC measurements.
-R
Also, TD = KI2 8. A 10 mA PMMC ammeter reads 4 mA in a

∴ I2 = C
θ = C’θ circuit. Its bottom control spring snaps
suddenly. The meter will now show
SE
K
′
π
Or,
2 C
I 1
= =
I C
′ π
2
2 __________
So, I = 0.707 A. a) 10 mA
b) 8 mA
C
6. The scale of a dynamometer type c) 2 mA

instrument marked in terms of RMS value d) Zero
would be__________
a) Uniform throughout Answer: d
b) Non-uniform and crowded near the full Explanation: The spring gives the controlling
scale torque. It is connected in series with the coil.
c) Non-uniform and crowded at the beginning
If the spring is cut open, there will be no b) rate of producing voltage

deflection. c) rate of generating current
d) rate of overcoming friction
9. The standardization of AC potentiometer is
done by ____________ Answer: a
a) Using a DC standard source and d’ Explanation: Power is defined as the rate of
Arsonval galvanometer doing work. The unit of power is watt. In
b) Using AC standard sources and transfer D.C. circuits, power is the product of the
instruments voltage consumed and the current flowing
c) Using a standard AC voltage source through a circuit. P = VI watts.
d) Using a DC standard source and transfer
instruments 2. In A.C. circuits, power consumed is
________
Answer: d a) product of voltage and current
Explanation: Standardization of AC b) it depends on the p.f. of the circuit in
potentiometer is done with the help of addition to voltage and current
standard DC source i.e., a standard cell or a c) it depends on the supply voltage
Zener source and a transfer instrument where d) it depends on the magnitude of the circuit
transfer instrument may be an current
electrodynamometer or a thermocouple
instrument. Answer: b
Explanation: In a A.C. circuit, the power
10. The inductance of a certain moving- iron consumption is given by the expression,
ammeter is expressed as L = 10 + 3θ – θ μH, P = VI cos∅
2
where θ is the deflection in radian from the where, V is the voltage across the circuit
zero position. The control spring torque is 25 I is the current flowing through the circuit
cos∅ is the power factor of the circuit.
× 10-6 Nm/rad. The meter carries a current of
5 A. What is the deflection?
3. In D.C. circuits, power is measured using
a) 2.4
________
b) 2.0
a) ohmmeter and galvanometer
c) 1.2
b) ohmmeter and voltmeter
d) 1.0
c) ammeter and voltmeter
Answer: c d) ammeter and galvanometer
Explanation: At equilibrium, Answer: c
Kθ = I θ
1
2
2 dl
d Explanation: An ammeter is used to measure
θ
(25 × 10-6) θ = 1
2
I
2
(3–
2
) × 10-6 current flowing through a circuit, while a
θ voltmeter is used to measure the voltage
∴2θ+ =3 2
across the circuit. Hence in D.C. circuits,
Or, θ = 1.2. ammeter and voltmeter are used to measure
power.
TOPIC 5.3 ENERGY METER
4. In A.C. circuits, power is measured using
AND WATT METER
________
a) voltmeter
1. Power is ___________ b) ammeter
a) rate of doing work
c) ohmmeter 8. In a Dynamometer type wattmeter, the

d) wattmeter fixed coil is split into ________
a) 4
Answer: d b) 3
Explanation: A.C. circuits make use of c) 2
power factor of the circuit in addition to the d) 1
current flowing through the circuit and the
voltage across the circuit. As a result, a Answer: c
wattmeter is used to measure A.C. power. Explanation: When a Dynamometer type
wattmeter is used for the measurement of
5. A wattmeter consists of a current coil and a A.C. power, the fixed coil is split into two
potential coil. equal parts. The two parts are air-cored to
a) True avoid hysteresis loss.
b) False
9. When a current carrying coil is placed in
Answer: a the magnetic field?
Explanation: Power in single phase A.C. a) no force is exerted
circuits are measured by making use of a b) voltage is produced
wattmeter. It consists of a current coil (cc) c) power is generated
and a potential coil (pc). Current coil is d) a force is exerted
connected with the load while the potential
coil is connected across the supply. Answer: d
Explanation: When the current carrying coil
6. A dynamometer type wattmeter consists of of a Dynamometer type wattmeter is placed
________ in the magnetic field of another current
a) only potential coil carrying coil, the moving coil experiences a
b) potential and current coils force. As a result a deflection torque is
c) only current coil generated and the moving coil undergoes
d) no coils deflection.
Answer: b 10. When the moving coil in a Dynamometer

Explanation: Dynamometer type wattmeter type wattmeter deflects ________
is used for the measurement of A.C. as well a) pointer moves
as D.C. power. It consists of a fixed coil b) pointer doesn’t move
forming the current coil whereas the moving c) current flows
coil forms the potential coil. d) voltage is generated
7. Controlling torque is provided by gold Answer: a

springs. Explanation: In a Dynamometer type
a) True wattmeter, when the moving coil deflects the
b) False pointer moves over the scale. The pointer
then comes back to rest at a point where the
Answer: b deflecting torque equals the controlling
Explanation: In a Dynamometer type torque.
wattmeter, controlling torque is provided by
two phosphor bronze hair springs. They act as
leads to the current flowing through the coil. TOPIC 5.4 TRANSDUCERS
Also air friction damping is used.
1. How many types of transducers are there? force etc and generate equivalent electrical
a) 2 signals at their output.
b) 4
c) 6 5. Electrical signals are easy to amplify.
d) 8 a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: There are basically two types of Answer: a
transducers. They are as follows: Explanation: Electrical signals are easier to
i) Mechanical either amplify or attenuate. By making use of
ii) Electrical. static devices such as FGK, electrical signals
can be brought to a suitable level.
2. Mechanical transducers sense __________
a) electrical changes 6. The power needs of electrical transducers
b) physical changes is ________
c) chemical changes a) maximum
d) biological changes b) minimum
c) zero
Answer: b d) infinite
Explanation: A mechanical transducer senses
the changes in a system’s physical condition Answer: b
and gives an output. When a bimetallic strip Explanation: Electrical transducers have very
is subjected to changes in temperature, the minimum power requirements. Electrical
output is the displacement of the strip transducer based systems are controlled with
mechanically. a small amount of power.
3. Mechanical transducers generate ________ 7. Electrical transducers are ________

a) electrical signals a) small and non-portable
b) chemical signals b) large and non-portable
c) physical signals c) small and compact
d) biological signals d) large and portable
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: Mechanical transducers in Explanation: Electrical systems have
general portray physical or mechanical integrated circuits that are small and compact.
signals at the output in response to any They can be easily ported as well.
physical changes in a system.
8. Mechanical transducers cause ________
4. Electrical transducers generate ________ a) power loss
a) biological signals b) hysteresis loss
b) chemical signals c) eddy current loss
c) physical signals d) frictional loss
d) electrical signals
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: Mechanical transducer based
Explanation: Electrical transducers in systems are affected by the frictional loss of
general respond to physical quantities that are the rotating parts. In electrical transducers,
non-electrical such as pressure, temperature,
there is no wear and tear due to non moving Answer: d

parts. Explanation: Change in resistivity can be
brought in the measurement of all the
9. Electrical transducers are costly. mentioned quantities, as resistivity is
a) True sensitive to temperature.
b) False
4. What will happen for resistivity metal and
Answer: a semiconductor if the temperature is
Explanation: Electrical transducers are very increased?
expensive in nature. The ageing and drift of a) Increases
the various electronic components act as an b) Decreases
overhead in the use of electrical transducers c) For metal increases and for semiconductor
on a large scale. decreases
d) For metal decreases and for semiconductor
TOPIC 5.5 RTD increases
Answer: c
1. Resistive transducers are ______________ Explanation: Metal has a positive
a) Primary transducers temperature coefficient of resistance and
b) Secondary transducers semiconductor has a negative temperature
c) Either primary or secondary coefficient of resistance.
5. What is the relation of temperature
Answer: c coefficient of resistivity on the coefficient of
Explanation: Resistive transducers may be thermal expansion in RTD?
primary or secondary transducers according a) Higher
to application. b) Lower
c) Equal
2. What will happen to resistance, if the d) None of the mentioned
length of the conductor is increased?
a) Decreases Answer: a
b) No change Explanation: It is used to provide a
c) Increases considerable change in resistance when
d) Doubles exposed to temperature.
Answer: c 6. A metal with temperature coefficient of
Explanation: As length of conductor resistance has a value 200, its initial
increases, resistance increases according to resistance is given by 40Ω. For an increase in
expression R = (ϱl)/A. 300c to350c what will be the final resistance
value?
3. Which of the following can be measured
a) 40 KΩ
using change in resistivity?
b) 4 KΩ
a) Temperature
c) 40 Ω
b) Visible radiation
d) 400 Ω
c) Moisture content
d) All of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: Answer obtained using
expression RT=R0(1+αΔT), where α
represents temperature coefficient of TOPIC 5.6 STRAIN GAUGE

resistance, R0 and RT represents initial and
final resistance values.
1. Electrical strain gauge works on the
7. Which of the following can be used to principle of __________
measure using thermistors? a) variation of resistance
a) Very low b) variation of capacitance
b) In-between 100Ω and 1MΩ c) variation of inductance
c) Greater than 1MΩ d) variation of area
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: An electrical strain gauge
works on the basis of change in resistance as
Explanation: Thermistor at 200c can be used
a function of strain. The wire resistance
to measure resistance values between 100Ω
increases with tension and reduces with
and 1MΩ.
compression.
8. Thermistors may be in wire form.
2. The strain gauge is not bonded to the
a) True
specimen.
b) False
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: Due to high brittleness
Answer: b
thermistors cannot be formed into wire type.
Explanation: The gauge is under the same
Hence they are shaped into bead form.
strain as that the specimen under test. As a
9. Which of the following is correct for result the strain gauge is bonded to the
thermistors? specimen.
a) Positive temperature coefficient of
3. Bonding element in a strain gauge must
resistance
have __________
b) Negative temperature coefficient of
a) zero insulation resistance
resistance
b) low insulation resistance
c) Unpredictable temperature coefficient
c) high insulation resistance
d) infinite insulation resistance
Answer: b
Answer: c
Explanation: For thermistors as temperature
Explanation: In a strain gauge, the bonding
increase, resistance decreases.
element must have a high value of insulation
10. Thermistors have high stability. resistance. It should be immune to effects of
a) True moisture and must also have the ability to
b) False transmit strain.
Answer: b 4. Dynamic strain measurements use

Explanation: Stability of thermistors are not __________
satisfactory. They can be improved by using a) brass iron alloy
high temperature. b) iron aluminium alloy
c) nickel cadmium alloy
d) nickel chromium alloy
Answer: d a) S =
ΔR/R
Explanation: Nickel chromium alloy is also

Δl
b) S = ΔR
known as a nichrome alloy. It contains 80 % Δl/l
of Nickel and 20 % of Chromium. Platinum is c) S = R
Δl/l
used for the temperature compensation of d) S = ΔR/R
nickel chromium alloys. Δl/l
5. Commonly used elements for wire strain Answer: d

gauges are __________ Explanation: Gauge factor in a strain gauge
a) nickel and copper is given by the relation
ΔR/R
b) nickel and gold S= Δl/l
c) gold and brass where, S is the gauge factor

d) silver and aluminium R is the gauge wire resistance
∆R is the change in resistance
Answer: a l is the length of the wire in unstressed
Explanation: Nickel and copper are the most condition
commonly used elements for wire strain ∆l is the change in length of the wire.
gauges. They comprise of 45 % of Nickel and
55 % of Copper. They exhibit a high value of 9. Poisson’s ratio is given by which of the
specific resistance. following relation?
Δd/d
a) µ = –
6. Cement is classified under __________ Δl/l
a) 4 types b) µ = – Δd
Δl/l
b) 2 types c) µ = – d
c) 6 types Δl/l
d) µ = –
Δd/d
d) 8 types Δl
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: Cement can be divided into two Explanation: Poisson’s ratio is given by the
broad categories. They are as follows: relation
i) Solvent setting cement µ=–
Δd/d
Δl/l
ii) Chemically reacting cement.
where, d is the diameter of the cross-section
7. Proper functioning of a strain gauge of the wire
depends on __________ ∆d is the change in the diameter of cross-
a) strain section of the wire.
b) stress 10. Proper bonding causes errors in strain
c) bonding
gauges.
d) length of wire
a) True
b) False
Answer: c
Explanation: A strain gauge works properly Answer: b
only if the bonding material used is durable Explanation: Strain gauge is fixed onto the
and keeps the gauge together to the surface of specimen by means of a bonding element.
the material that is being tested. Cement is a commonly used adhesive. It
8. Gauge factor is given by which of the transfers the strain from the specimen to the
following relation? gauge sensing element.
TOPIC 5.7 LVDT c) Secondary transducer

d) Analog transducer
1. Which of the following is not a Answer: a

characteristic of an ideal transducer? Explanation: The name self-generating
a) High dynamic range transducer is due to its property of working
b) Low linearity without the use of external power.
c) High repeatability
d) Low noise 5. What is the relation between scale factor
and sensitivity of a transducer?
Answer: b a) Scale factor is double of sensitivity
Explanation: An ideal transducer should b) Scale factor is inverse of sensitivity
show high linearity. A linear system should c) Sensitivity is inverse of scale factor
produce exact output according to input. d) Sensitivity is equal to scale factor
2. A transducer converting ground movement Answer: b

or velocity to voltage is known as Explanation: Sensitivity is an important
________________ property of transducer. Every transducer
a) Geophone should be sufficiently sensitive to provide
b) Pickup some output that can be detected.
c) Hydrophone
d) Sonar transponder 6. Which of the following is an analog
transducer?
Answer: a a) Encoders
Explanation: Geophone is a device used to b) Strain gauge
convert ground movement to voltage, which c) Digital tachometers
is used in Remote ground sensors (RGS) and d) Limit switches
also as a replacement for broadband
seismometers. Answer: b
Explanation: Analog transducers convert
3. Which of the following represent active physical quantity to analog signals while
transducer? digital transducers convert physical quantity
a) Strain gauge to digital signals. Strain gauge is an example
b) Thermistor of an Analog transducer.
c) LVDT
d) Thermocouple 7. What is the principle of operation of
LVDT?
Answer: d a) Mutual inductance
Explanation: Active transducers are self- b) Self-inductance
generating type, they don’t require external c) Permanence
power to work while passive transducers d) Reluctance
require external power to work.
Answer: a
4. Which transducer is known as ‘self- Explanation: Linear variable differential
generating transducer’? transformer (LVDT) is a type of transformer
a) Active transducer used for measuring displacement, and it has
b) Passive transducer the same principle of operation of
transformer.
8. Which of the following can be measured Answer: b

using Piezo-electric transducer? Explanation: Photoelectric devices are
a) Velocity sensitive to certain wavelength only hence
b) Displacement they should be calibrated before every use.
c) Force
d) Sound 2. In photo emissive transducers, electrons are
attracted by ___________
Answer: c a) Cathode
Explanation: Piezo-electric crystals produces b) Anode
an electric signal when pressure applied. c) Grid
Examples are quartz, Rochelle salt. That is, it d) Body
converts force into electric signals.
Answer: b
9. Capacitive transducer is used for? Explanation: In photo emissive transducers,
a) Static measurement electrons emitted by the cathode are attracted
b) Dynamic measurement by anode plates.
c) Transient measurement
d) Both static and dynamic 3. Why inert gas is used in photo electric
transducers?
Answer: b a) To increase efficiency
Explanation: Capacitive transducers convert b) To increase sensitivity
measurant into changes in capacitance. c) To increase robustness
Change in capacitance is caused by change in d) None of the mentioned
dielectric or change in distance between
plates. Answer: b
Explanation: Inert gas of pressure 1mm Hg
10. Which of the following is used in photo is filled in a tube of photoelectric transducer
conductive cell? to increase sensitivity.
a) Selenium
b) Quartz 4. Which of the following quantities are
c) Rochelle salt insensitive to solid state semiconductor
d) Lithium sulphate photoelectric transducers?
a) X ray
Answer: a b) Gamma ray
Explanation: Photo conductive action is the c) Alpha and beta rays
property of reduction of resistance when d) None of the mentioned
exposed to light. Selenium shows
photoconductive action. Answer: d
Explanation: Solid state photoelectric
transducer made up of semiconductor are
TOPIC 5.8 LDR insensitive to X rays, gamma rays, alpha and
beta rays etc.
1. Photoelectric devices are sensitive to all
wavelength. 5. LDR’s are also called _______________
a) True a) Photo voltaic cell
b) False b) Photo resistive cell
c) Photo emissive cell
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: Photo resistive cells and LDR Explanation: Photo transistors are formed by
works on the interaction of light and its effect placing two photo diodes back to back.
on resistance change.
10. Photo transistor is a three terminal device.
6. Photo resistive cells are _____________ a) True
a) Active device b) False
b) Passive device
c) Insulating device Answer: b
M
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Photo transistor contains only
two terminals, which are collector and
O
Answer: b emitter. Base region is illuminated.
Explanation: Passive devices are those
C
doesn’t require an external power source.
Resistors and LDR’s are passive devices.
TOPIC 5.9 PIEZOELECTRIC
T.
DIODE.
7. Which of the following materials can be
used as photoconductive transducer?
O
1. Piezoelectric effect is when materials
a) Selenium produce electric charges when ____________
b) Silicon
c) Germanium
SP
a) Voltage is applied
b) Mechanical Stress is applied
c) Electric field is applied
d) Magnetic field is applied
G
Answer: d
Explanation: Photoconductive cells are Answer: b
LO
materials which changes conductivity on the Explanation: Certain materials produce

application of light. electric charges on their surface when
mechanical stress is applied on them. This
8. Semiconductor layer using silicon and
.B
effect is called piezoelectric effect.

germanium is known as _______________
a) Photo diodes 2. Piezoelectricity means
17
b) Photo junction diodes _________________

c) Photo material a) Electric polarization
d) Photo sensitive materials b) Electric dielectric
-R
c) Pressure electricity
Answer: b d) Polar dielectric
Explanation: Photo junction diodes are
SE
semiconductor layers formed by silicon and Answer: c

germanium which are used in photovoltaic Explanation: The word piezo means
cells. pressure. Thus, piezoelectricity is also called
pressure electricity as the application of
C
9. Which of the following are used to form pressure on certain material induces
photo transistors? electricity in them.
a) Two photo diodes
b) Three photo diodes 3. All Piezoelectric materials are
c) Normal diodes Ferroelectric.
d) None of the mentioned a) True
b) False
Answer: b 7. What is X-Y from the following graph?

Explanation: All the ferroelectric materials
are pyroelectric and piezoelectric but the
reverse is not true. Ferroelectricity can occur
only in noncentrosymmetric crystals, just like
piezoelectricity.
4. The piezoelectric materials used for

converting energy are called as ___________
a) Transition Devices
b) Converter
c) Dielectric
d) Transducer
a) 1
Answer: d b) 2
Explanation: The piezoelectric effect is often c) 3
used to convert electrical energy into d) 4
mechanical energy and the piezoelectric
materials used are called transducers. Answer: a
Explanation: There are 32 symmetry point
5. Piezoelectricity is shown by substances groups out of which 21 (X) are
which are ___________ Noncentrosymmetric and out of them 20 (Y)
a) Polar are Piezoelectric. Thus, X – Y = 1.
b) Non-polar
c) Symmetric 8. Piezoelectric effect is ___________
d) Asymmetric a) Isotropic
b) Anisotropic
Answer: d c) Large in Magnitude
Explanation: Piezoelectricity is shown by the d) Dominating
substances which are asymmetric. If a center
of inversion is present and it persists even Answer: b
after stress is applied, the net polarization Explanation: Piezoelectric effect is
remains zero. anisotropic. Since there is a lack of a center of
inversion and complex structure of
6. No regular cubic lattice can exhibit piezoelectric, it is different in different
piezoelectricity. directions.
a) True
b) False 9. Which of the following is the correct
expression for Piezoelectric effect?
Answer: a a) P = Zd + E
Explanation: A cubic lattice is highly b) P = Zd + εoE
symmetric. Even after the application of c) P = Zd + εoχE
stress, it has a center of inversion. Thus, it d) P = Zd + dεoχE
cannot exhibit piezoelectricity.
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct expression for the
piezoelectric effect is: P = Zd + εoχE, where P
is the polarization, Z is the stress, d is the 3. Oscilloscope is __________

piezoelectric strain constant, E the electric a) a ohmmeter
field and χ the electric susceptibility. b) an ammeter
c) a voltmeter
10. The piezoelectric strain can be shown as d) a multimeter
___________
a) deik/dZ Answer: c
b) deik/dχ Explanation: Oscilloscope is basically a
voltmeter. It employs the movement of an
c) deik/dEi
electronic gun assembly with respect to a
d) deik/dε fluorescent screen. The screen produces the
movement of the visible spot.
Answer: c
Explanation: In practice, the tensile or 4. Electron beam is deflected in __________
compressional or shear strains develop in a) 1 direction
different direction due to an applied electric b) 4 directions
field depending on the crystal orientation and c) 3 directions
field direction. The expression for strain is: d) 2 directions
deik/dE.
Answer: d
Explanation: The electron beam in an
TOPIC 5.10 OSCILLOSCOPE- oscilloscope can be deflected in two
CRO. directions, namely the horizontal (x-direction)
and the vertical (y-direction). Two
1. CRO stands for __________ dimensional displays are produced as a result.
a) Cathode Ray Oscilloscope
b) Current Resistance Oscillator 5. CRO is a __________
c) Central Resistance Oscillator a) fast x-y plotter
d) Capacitance Resistance Oscilloscope b) slow x-y plotter
c) medium x-y plotter
Answer: a d) not a plotter
Explanation: Cathode Ray Oscilloscope
(C.R.O) is basically used for the measurement Answer: a
of the amplitude of periodic and non periodic Explanation: CRO is basically a fast x-y
signals as a function of time. plotter. The x and y axes can be used to
understand the variation in the magnitude of
2. C.R.O gives __________ one voltage with respect to another voltage
a) actual representation signal.
b) visual representation
c) approximate representation 6. CRO can’t display microseconds time.
d) incorrect representation a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Cathode Ray Oscilloscope is Answer: b
used as universal laboratory equipment. It Explanation: CRO is a fast x-y plotter and
provides a visual representation of time displays periodic signals with time periods of
varying signals. It is an important equipment the order of a few microseconds and even
in the development of electronic circuits. nanoseconds.
7. CRT is the heart of CRO. b) resistance and time

a) True c) voltage and time
b) False d) power and time
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: CRT stands for Cathode Ray Explanation: In an oscilloscope typically the
Tube. It generates electron beam, accelerates horizontal or x-axis represents the time while
and deflects the beam. It thus forms the heart the vertical or y-axis represents the variation
of the CRO. in the magnitude of the input signal.
8. Typically oscilloscope represents

__________
a) current and time

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BE8255 BEEME - CSE MCQ for Regulations 2017

CSE - II Semester resistors is the same.

4. In which of the following cases is Ohm’s

7. Ohm’s law is not applicable to 1. Potential difference in electrical

element. The difference in potential energy of Controlled Voltage Source), VCCS(Voltage

9. Find total current(mA) in the circuit. Answer: a

2. In a circuit with more number of loops,

Answer: a 9. Find V and I in the circuit

8. Determine V in the circuit

5. Batteries are generally connected in______

7. In a ____________ circuit, the total

10. Calculate the equivalent resistance

2. The symbol used for capacitance is

5. The Inductor doesn’t allow sudden changes

6. The expression for energy of an inductor

9. If a capacitor of capacitance 9.2F has a 13. An Inductor works as a ___________

called electrodes and the insulating medium is c) 11.33V, 26.67V

15. If the current flowing through an inductor Answer: c

TOPIC 1.5 NODAL ANALYSIS

1. Find the value of the node voltage V.

2. Calculate the node voltages V1 and V2.

a) 30.77V, 7.52V, 18.82V

a) 12V, 13V Answer: a

considering V1, V2 and V3 as the first, c) 8

8. Nodal analysis can be applied for________

(2+5+3)I2 = 4. -6(I1) + 10(I3) = -4 + 20. On

10. Find current through R2 resistor.

a) 1.7 through R2 resistor is 0.5-(-3.25) = 3.75 A.

Explanation: According to mesh analysis,

solving the above equations, I2 =1.7A. c) Current

in the question 7. Answer: b

2. A conductor is said to have resistance of 5. Unit of inductance is ________

4. A 25 Ω resistor has a voltage of 150 sin377 Answer: d

a) 900 sin2 337 t dE = Vidt = L idt = Lidt

b) 90 sin2 337 t E = ∫ dE = ∫ Lidt = LI .

c) 900 sin2 377 t

Answer: a following is incorrect?

medium between the plates. 20 µA

Where d is the distance between the plates, A TOPIC 1.8 THEVENINS

10. Which of the following is not the energy

Since C = Q/V Explanation: Thevenin resistance is found by

for ⎨0 < t < 2s respectivelyand is applied

to the 10 µF capacitor. Which of the

4. The Thevenin voltage is the__________

a) 0.86A 6. Thevenin’s theorem is true for __________

c) Infinite voltage sources network hence we cannot apply Thevenin’s

only linear circuit elements and not non-linear

4. In Norton’s theorem Isc is__________

Isc is found through the output terminals of a

6. Can we use Norton’s theorem on a circuit b) 0.32A

resistance, we short it and find the resistance

flowing in the first mesh and I2 flowing in the

9. Find the current in the 5 ohm resistance Answer: a

The mesh equations are: 2. If source impedance is complex, then

On solving these equations simultaneously, impedance.

Connecting the current source in parallel to c) complex conjugate of

equivalent circuit. Answer: c

Answer: d 8. The maximum power delivered by the

9. For the circuit shown, the resistance R is c) Removed

2. In superposition theorem, when we