1.

Which of the following is a mechanical barrier that limits the entry of microorganisms
into the body?
A) Lysozyme in tears and other secretions
B) Low pH in stomach and vagina
C) Respiratory cilia
D) Defensins
Answer: C) Respiratory cilia

2. Which of the following is a cationic peptide that creates pores in microbial membranes,
limiting their entry into the body?
A) Lysozyme
B) Defensins
C) Complement
D) Interferons
Answer: B) Defensins

3. Which of the following cells ingests and destroys microbes within the body?
A) Natural killer cells
B) Neutrophils
C) Macrophages
D) Dendritic cells
Answer: B) Neutrophils

4. Which of the following is an enzyme that causes hypermutation in retroviral DNA and
mRNA, limiting their growth within the body?
A) Lysozyme
B) APOBEC3G
C) Defensins
D) Interferons
Answer: B) APOBEC3G

5. What is the function of lysozyme in tears and other secretions?

A) Prevent entry of microorganisms into the body
B) Degrade peptidoglycan in bacteria cell wall
C) Elevate mucus-containing trapped organisms
D) Retard growth of microbes
Answer: b. Degrade peptidoglycan in bacteria cell wall

6. Which of the following cells ingest and destroy microbes within the body?
 A) Natural killer cells
B) Neutrophils
C) Macrophages
D) All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above

7. Which of the following factors inhibits viral replication within the body?
A) Complement
B) Fever
C) Interferons
D) Defensins
Answer: c. Interferons

8. What is the function of transferrin and lactoferrin in the body?

A) Kill virus-infected cells
B) Ingest and destroy microbes
C) Inhibit viral replication
D) Sequester iron required for bacterial growth
Answer: d. Sequester iron required for bacterial growth

9. Which of the following creates pores in microbial membranes?

A) Defensins
B) Lysozyme
C) Interferons
D) Complement
Answer: a. Defensins

10. What is the function of APOBEC3G in the body?

A) Kill virus-infected cells
B) Inhibit viral replication
C) Ingest and destroy microbes
D) Create pores in microbial membranes
Answer: b. Inhibit viral replication

11. Which of the following cells occupy receptors, preventing colonization by pathogens?
A) Macrophages
B) Neutrophils
C) Natural killer cells
D) Normal flora of throat, colon, and vagina
 Answer: d. Normal flora of throat, colon, and vagina

12. What is the function of the respiratory cilia in the body?

A) Prevent entry of microorganisms into the body
B) Degrade peptidoglycan in bacteria cell wall
C) Elevate mucus-containing trapped organisms
D) Retard growth of microbes
Answer: c. Elevate mucus-containing trapped organisms

13. Which of the following cells presents antigen to helper T cells within the body?
A) Macrophages
B) Neutrophils
C) Natural killer cells
D) Respiratory cilia
Answer: a. Macrophages

14. Which of the following factors creates holes in bacterial membranes?

A) Defensins
B) Lysozyme
C) Interferons
D) Membrane attack complex of complement
Answer: d. Membrane attack complex of complement

15. What is the function of surface phagocytes in the body?

A) Prevent entry of microorganisms into the body
B) Degrade peptidoglycan in bacteria cell wall
C) Ingest and destroy microbes
D) Elevate mucus-containing trapped organisms
Answer: c. Ingest and destroy microbes

16. Which of the following factors limits the spread of microbes within the body?
A) Fever
B) Inflammatory response
C) Normal flora
D) Low pH in stomach and vagina
Answer: b. Inflammatory response

17. What is the function of complement in the body?

 A) Kill virus-infected cells
B) Ingest and destroy microbes
C) Inhibit viral replication
D) Opsonize bacteria and create holes in bacterial membranes
Answer: d. Opsonize bacteria and create holes in bacterial membranes

18. Which of the following is NOT a component of the innate immune system?
A) physical epithelial barriers
B) phagocytic leukocytes
C) B cells
D) dendritic cells
Answer: c) B cells

19. Which type of lymphocyte is responsible for killing virus-infected cells in the innate
immune system?
A) natural killer (NK) cells
B) B cells
C) T cells
D) plasma cells
Answer: a) natural killer (NK) cells

20. Does innate immunity have memory?

A) Yes, it has long-term memory
B) No, it does not have memory
C) It has short-term memory
D) It has memory only for bacterial infections
Answer: b) No, it does not have memory

21. Which type of immunity is characterized by long-term memory?

A) innate immunity
B) adaptive immunity
C) both innate and adaptive immunity
D) neither innate nor adaptive immunity
Answer: b) adaptive immunity

22. What are the major functions of innate immunity?

A) killing invading microbes and activating adaptive immune processes
B) producing antibodies and memory cells
C) regulating the immune response
 D) none of the above
Answer: a) killing invading microbes and activating adaptive immune processes

23. What is the difference between neutrophils and macrophages?

A) neutrophils only kill microbes, whereas macrophages perform both functions
(killing microbes and presenting antigen to helper T cells)
B) macrophages only kill microbes, whereas neutrophils perform both functions
(killing microbes and presenting antigen to helper T cells)
C) both neutrophils and macrophages only kill microbes
D) both neutrophils and macrophages only activate adaptive immunity
Answer: a) neutrophils only kill microbes, whereas macrophages perform both functions
(killing microbes and presenting antigen to helper T cells)

24. Which immune system is sufficient for human survival?

A) innate immunity
B) adaptive immunity
C) both innate and adaptive immunity
D) neither innate nor adaptive immunity
Answer: c) both innate and adaptive immunity

25. What is the function of pattern-recognition receptors in the innate immune system?
A) to recognize human cells
B) to recognize foreign molecules on the surface of microbes
C) to regulate the immune response
D) none of the above
Answer: b) to recognize foreign molecules on the surface of microbes

26. Which type of immunity is not sufficient for human survival according to the observation
of children with severe combined immunodeficiency disease?
A) Adaptive immunity
B) Innate immunity
C) Humoral immunity
D) Cellular immunity
Answer: b) Innate immunity

27. What is the reason for children with severe combined immunodeficiency disease to
suffer from repeated, life-threatening infections despite having intact innate immunity?
A) Lack of antibodies
B) Lack of complement proteins
 C) Lack of natural killer cells
D) Lack of T and B lymphocytes
Answer: d) Lack of T and B lymphocytes

28. The innate immune system is specific to a particular microbe or antigen.

False - The innate immune system is not specific to a particular microbe or antigen.

29. The innate immune system has memory, allowing it to respond more efficiently to a
previously encountered microbe or antigen.
False - The innate immune system does not have memory.

30. Physical barriers, such as the skin and mucous membranes, are part of the innate
immune system.
True

31. Dendritic cells are phagocytic leukocytes.

True

32. Natural killer (NK) cells are a type of B cell.

False - NK cells are not a type of B cell.

33. Neutrophils are capable of killing invading microbes and presenting antigens to helper T
cells.
False - Neutrophils are only capable of killing invading microbes.

34. The innate immune system is sufficient for human survival.

False - The innate immune system is not sufficient for human survival.

35. Pattern-recognition receptors on components of the innate immune system recognize

pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) that are present on both microbes
and human cells.
False - PAMPs are only present on microbes, not human cells.

36. The complement system is part of the innate immune system.

 True

37. The innate immune system is not involved in activating adaptive immune processes.
False - The innate immune system plays a major role in activating adaptive immune
processes.

38. Natural killer cells can differentiate between healthy and abnormal cells based on:
A) The presence of MHC class II molecules
B) The absence of MHC class I molecules
C) The presence of antigen on the cell surface
D) The presence of T cell receptors on the cell surface
Answer: b) The absence of MHC class I molecules

39. Natural killer cells can recognize and kill cells infected with which of the following
viruses?
A) HIV
B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
C) Influenza virus
D) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

40. Which of the following is not a characteristic of natural killer cells (NKC)?
A) They do not express T cell receptors (TCRs)
B) They can recognize and kill virus-infected cells
C) They can recognize and kill cancer cells
D) They rely on the adaptive immune system to recognize and kill abnormal cells
Answer: d) They rely on the adaptive immune system to recognize and kill abnormal
cells.

41. Which of the following receptors on natural killer cells is responsible for recognizing and
binding to MHC class I molecules on target cells?
A) Killer-cell immunoglobulin-like receptors (KIRs)
B) Natural killer group 2 member D (NKG2D)
C) CD16
D) CD56
Answer: a) Killer-cell immunoglobulin-like receptors (KIRs)
42. Natural killer cells can be activated by cytokines secreted by:
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Macrophages
D) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

43. Which of the following is not a way that natural killer cells kill their target cells?
A) Inducing apoptosis
B) Secreting cytotoxic granules containing perforin and granzymes
C) Binding to and blocking MHC class II molecules on target cells
D) Fas-Fas ligand interaction
Answer: c) Binding to and blocking MHC class II molecules on target cells

44. What percentage of leukocytes in the blood are NKC ?

A) 5-10%
B) 10-15%
C) 15-20%
D) 20-25%
Answer: b) 10-15%

45. What is the primary cytokine produced by NK cells?

A) Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
B) Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
C) Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
D) Interferon-alpha (IFN-alpha)
Answer: b) Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)

46. How do IFNs enhance the lytic activity of NK cells?

A) By upregulating the expression of MHC class I molecules on target cells
B) By downregulating the expression of MHC class I molecules on target cells
C) By promoting the production of antibodies
D) By activating the adaptive immune system
Answer: a) By upregulating the expression of MHC class I molecules on target cells

47. Natural killer cells are a type of white blood cell. (True)
48. NK cells are only involved in adaptive immunity. (False, they are involved in innate
immunity)
49. NK cells have the ability to recognize and kill virus-infected cells but not tumor cells.
(False, they can recognize and kill both)
50. NK cells have two types of surface receptors: lectin-like NK-cell receptors that bind
carbohydrates and killer immunoglobulin-like receptors (KIRs) that recognize MHC class
II molecules. (False, lectin-like receptors bind proteins not carbohydrates and KIRs
recognize MHC class I molecules)
51. NK cell receptors have both activation and inhibition properties. (True)
52. NK cells play a role in immune surveillance against tumor establishment. (True)
53. Granzyme and perforin are substances that mediate the cytotoxic actions of NK cells.
(True)
54. NK cells do not play a role in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). (False,
they do play a critical role)
55. NK cells are not involved in the production of IFN-γ. (False, they are the primary source
of IFN-γ)
56. The lytic activity of NK cells is enhanced by IFN-γ, which is induced by the invading virus.
(False, the lytic activity of NK cells is enhanced by type 1 IFNs, IFN-α, and IFN-β, which
are induced by the invading virus. IFN-γ is produced by NK cells and has other functions.)

57. What is the consequence of the inhibitory signals from the ligated MHC-binding
receptor at the surface of an NK cell when it interacts with a normal, autologous target
cell?
A) The NK cell lyses the target cell
B) The NK cell receives activating signals
C) The NK cell undergoes apoptosis
D) The NK cell undergoes mitosis
Answer: b

58. What happens if the target cell loses expression of MHC class I molecules, owing to viral
infection or transformation, when it interacts with an NK cell?
A) The NK cell lyses the target cell
B) The NK cell receives inhibitory signals
C) The NK cell undergoes apoptosis
D) The NK cell becomes activated
Answer: a

59. In the setting of an allogeneic transplant, how do host NK cells interact with donor
target cells that express foreign MHC class I alleles?
A) The foreign MHC class I molecules engage all of the inhibitory receptors at the
surface of the host NK cell
B) The host NK cell does not receive inhibitory signals from the foreign MHC class I
molecules
 C) The host NK cell becomes tolerant to the foreign MHC class I molecules
D) The donor target cells undergo apoptosis
Answer: b

60. Which type of surface receptors do NK cells have?

A) T-cell receptors
B) Lectin-like receptors
C) B-cell receptors
D) Toll-like receptors
Answer: b

61. What is the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) in antigen
recognition?
A. MHC molecules present peptide antigens to B cells
B. MHC molecules present peptide antigens to T cells
C. MHC molecules directly interact with antigens
D. MHC molecules recognize self-tissues
Answer: B

62. How is the T-cell receptor different from antibody?

A. T-cell receptors directly interact with antigens
B. Antibody recognizes antigens presented by MHC molecules
C. T-cell receptors recognize antigens presented by MHC molecules
D. Antibody is specific for MHC molecules
Answer: C

63. What is the requirement for T-cell recognition of antigens by the T-cell receptor?
A. The antigen must be presented on a self-MHC molecule
B. The antigen must be presented on a non-self MHC molecule
C. The antigen must be presented by B cells
D. The antigen must be directly recognized by the T-cell receptor
Answer: A

64. What is the phenomenon known as MHC restriction?

A. Recognition of antigens by the T-cell receptor is restricted to a particular allelic
form of the MHC molecule
B. Recognition of antigens by the T-cell receptor is not restricted to a particular
allelic form of the MHC molecule
C. MHC molecules are only expressed on specific types of cells
 D. MHC molecules can present any type of antigen
Answer: A

65. Where is the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) located in humans?

A. Chromosome 1
B. Chromosome 3
C. Chromosome 6
D. Chromosome 9
Answer: C

66. What is the structure of MHC class I proteins?

A. They are made up of two noncovalently associated transmembrane glycoproteins
B. They are made up of a single transmembrane glycoprotein
C. They are made up of a single noncovalently associated transmembrane
glycoprotein
D. They are made up of two chains: a transmembrane glycoprotein and a MHC-
encoded polypeptide
Answer: D

67. Where are MHC class I molecules found?

A. Only on B cells
B. Only on T cells
C. On all nucleated cells in the body
D. On red blood cells
Answer: C

68. What is the function of MHC class II molecules?

A. They present antigens to T cells
B. They directly interact with antigens
C. They are involved in antigen processing
D. They recognize self-tissues
Answer: A

69. What is the tissue distribution of MHC class II molecules?

A. They are found on all nucleated cells in the body
B. They are chiefly found on macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells, and other APCs
C. They are only found on T cells
D. They are only found on red blood cells
Answer: B
70. What is the structure of MHC class II proteins?
A. They are made up of a single transmembrane glycoprotein
B. They are made up of two noncovalently associated transmembrane glycoproteins
C. They are made up of a single noncovalently associated transmembrane glycoprotein
D. They are made up of two chains: a transmembrane glycoprotein and a non–MHC-
encoded polypeptide
Answer: B

71. True: Unlike class I proteins, class II proteins have a restricted tissue distribution and are
mainly found on APCs.
72. True: The class I MHC locus also includes genes encoding proteins involved in antigen
processing, such as TAPs.
73. False: Antibodies recognize antigens directly, not through MHC molecules.
74. False: The antigen recognized by the T-cell receptor must be presented on a self-MHC
molecule, not a foreign MHC molecule.
75. False: MHC restriction refers to the T-cell receptor's specificity for the MHC molecule,
not the peptide antigen.
76. False: The class II MHC locus-encoded proteins are made up of two noncovalently
associated transmembrane glycoproteins, not a single protein.

77. What is the main function of the adaptive immune system?

A) To recognize and respond to a broad range of pathogens
B) To provide immediate defense against pathogens
C) To neutralize pathogens through complement activation
D) To generate long-term immunity against specific pathogens
Answer: D) To generate long-term immunity against specific pathogens

78. Which type of immune cell is responsible for producing antibodies?

A) T cells
B) Natural killer cells
C) B cells
D) Macrophages
Answer: C) B cells

79. What is the role of helper T cells in adaptive immunity?

A) To directly kill infected cells
B) To produce antibodies
C) To activate B cells and cytotoxic T cells
 D) To neutralize pathogens through complement activation
Answer: C) To activate B cells and cytotoxic T cells

80. How does adaptive immunity differ from innate immunity?

A) Adaptive immunity provides immediate defense against pathogens, while innate
immunity requires prior exposure.
B) Adaptive immunity is nonspecific, while innate immunity is specific.
C) Adaptive immunity is antigen-specific and improves upon repeated exposure,
while innate immunity is not.
D) Adaptive immunity is mediated by natural killer cells, while innate immunity is
mediated by B cells and T cells.
Answer: C) Adaptive immunity is antigen-specific and improves upon repeated
exposure, while innate immunity is not.

81. Which type of T cell is responsible for directly killing infected cells?
A) Helper T cells
B) Memory T cells
C) Regulatory T cells
D) Cytotoxic T cells
Answer: D) Cytotoxic T cells

82. Which statement accurately describes the memory function of the adaptive immune
system?
A) The adaptive immune system has a limited memory for previously encountered
pathogens.
B) The adaptive immune system can remember specific pathogens for only a few
days.
C) The adaptive immune system can remember specific pathogens for several
years or even a lifetime.
D) The adaptive immune system does not have a memory function.
Answer: C) The adaptive immune system can remember specific pathogens for several
years or even a lifetime.

83. When can the adaptive immune system be activated?

A) Only before the innate immune system interacts with the microbe.
B) Only after the innate immune system has interacted with the microbe.
C) Simultaneously with the innate immune system.
D) Without any interaction with the innate immune system.
Answer: B) Only after the innate immune system has interacted with the microbe.
84. What is the main function of cytotoxic T cells in adaptive immunity?
A) To produce antibodies
B) To activate B cells
C) To directly kill infected cells
D) To neutralize pathogens through complement activation
Answer: C) To directly kill infected cells

85. Which of the following is a characteristic of adaptive immunity?

A) It provides immediate defense against a broad range of pathogens.
B) It is nonspecific and does not improve upon repeated exposure.
C) It is mediated by natural killer cells.
D) It is antigen-specific and improves upon repeated exposure.
Answer: D) It is antigen-specific and improves upon repeated exposure.

86. Which type of immune response is responsible for generating long-term immunity
against specific pathogens?
A) Innate immunity
B) Adaptive immunity
C) Complement activation
D) Phagocytosis
Answer: B) Adaptive immunity

87. Which type of immunity is present at birth?

A) Adaptive immunity
B) Innate immunity
C) Both
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Innate immunity

88. Which type of immunity is antigen-specific?

A) Adaptive immunity
B) Innate immunity
C) Both
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Adaptive immunity
89. Which type of immunity provides immediate defense against a broad range of
pathogens?
A) Adaptive immunity
B) Innate immunity
C) Both
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Innate immunity

90. Which type of immune system component is normally silent ?

A) Innate immune system components
B) Adaptive immune system components
C) Both
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Adaptive immune system components

91. The adaptive immune system only responds to pathogens that can evade or overcome
innate immune defenses.
True.

92. Components of the adaptive immune system are always active, even in the absence of
infectious agents.
False. Components of the adaptive immune system are normally silent and only activate
in response to the presence of infectious agents.

93. Adaptive immunity occurs before exposure to an agent, improves upon repeated
exposure, and is nonspecific.
False. Adaptive immunity occurs after exposure to an agent, improves upon repeated
exposure, and is specific.

94. Antibody produced by B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes, namely, helper T cells and
cytotoxic T cells are mediators of adaptive immunity.
True.

95. The cells responsible for adaptive immunity have short-term memory for a specific
antigen.
False. The cells responsible for adaptive immunity have long-term memory for a specific
antigen.
96. The adaptive immune system can be activated independently of the innate immune
system.
False. The adaptive immune system can only be activated after the innate immune
system has interacted with the microbe.

97. The adaptive immune system can respond to any foreign substance, including self-
antigens.
True.

98. The primary function of the adaptive immune system is to eliminate infectious agents.
True.

99. The adaptive immune system is only present in vertebrates.

False. The adaptive immune system is present in vertebrates and some invertebrates.

100. The adaptive immune system responds quickly to an initial exposure to an

antigen.
False. The adaptive immune system responds slowly to an initial exposure to an antigen,
but improves upon repeated exposure.

101. Where do blood cell precursors originate during embryonic development?

a. Fetal spleen and yolk sac
b. Fetal liver and yolk sac
c. Fetal liver and spleen
d. Bone marrow
Answer: b. Fetal liver and yolk sac.

102. Which cells evolve into T cells and B cells?

a. Myeloid cells
b. Erythroid cells
c. Lymphoid cells
d. Platelets
Answer: c. Lymphoid cells.

103. Which interleukin enhances the formation of T cells and B cells from stem cells?
 a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-7
Answer: d. IL-7.

104. Where are stem cells located in postnatal life?

a. Fetal liver and yolk sac
b. Fetal spleen and yolk sac
c. Bone marrow
d. Thymus
Answer: c. Bone marrow.

105. Which type of stem cell gives rise to red blood cells?
a. Erythroid stem cells
b. Myeloid stem cells
c. Lymphoid stem cells
d. Megakaryocytic stem cells
Answer: a. Erythroid stem cells.

106. Which type of stem cell gives rise to platelets?

a. Erythroid stem cells
b. Myeloid stem cells
c. Lymphoid stem cells
d. Megakaryocytic stem cells
Answer: d. Megakaryocytic stem cells.

107. Where do stem cells differentiate into T cells?

a. Bone marrow
b. Thymus
c. Fetal liver
d. Spleen
Answer: b. Thymus.

108. Where do stem cells differentiate into B cells?

a. Bone marrow
b. Thymus
c. Fetal liver
d. Spleen
 Answer: a. Bone marrow.

109. What are the two main populations of T cells?

a. CD4-positive and CD8-negative cells
b. CD4-negative and CD8-positive cells
c. CD4-positive and CD8-positive cells
d. CD4-negative and CD8-negative cells
Answer: c. CD4-positive and CD8-positive cells.

110. What is the function of CD4-positive T cells?

a. Produce antibodies
b. Directly kill infected cells
c. Help activate other immune cells
d. Inhibit immune responses
Answer: c. Help activate other immune cells.

111. What is the function of CD8-positive T cells?

a. Produce antibodies
b. Directly kill infected cells
c. Help activate other immune cells
d. Inhibit immune responses
Answer: b. Directly kill infected cells.

112. What do B cells differentiate into?

a. T cells
b. Plasma cells
c. Dendritic cells
d. Natural killer cells
Answer: b. Plasma cells.

113. What do plasma cells produce?

a. Interleukins
b. Antibodies
c. Cytokines
d. Chemokines
Answer: b. Antibodies.

114. What is the role of interleukins in the differentiation of T and B cells?

 a. They inhibit differentiation
b. They promote differentiation
c. They have no effect on differentiation
d. They directly kill pathogens
Answer: b. They promote differentiation.

115. Which of the following is not a cytokine secreted by Th1 cells?

a. Interferon-gamma
b. Interleukin-2
c. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
d. Interleukin-4
Answer: d. Interleukin-4.

116. Which of the following types of T cells is responsible for providing help to B cells
for antibody production?
a. Th1 cells
b. Th2 cells
c. Th17 cells
d. Treg cells
Answer: b. Th2 cells.

117. Which of the following is a protein that is involved in the recognition of antigens
by T cells?
a. T cell receptor (TCR)
b. CD28
c. MHC class I
d. B7-1
Answer: a. T cell receptor (TCR).

118. What proteins are initially lacking on the surface of stem cells before entering
the thymus?
a) CD4 and CD8
b) CD3 and CD8
c) CD4 and CD3
d) CD3, CD4, and CD8
Answer: d) CD3, CD4, and CD8

119. What type of cells do double-positive T cells differentiate into if they contact a
cell bearing class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins?
 a) CD4-positive cells
b) CD8-positive cells
c) Double-negative cells
d) Plasma cells
Answer: a) CD4-positive cells

120. What type of cells do double-positive T cells differentiate into if they contact a
cell bearing class I MHC proteins?
a) CD4-positive cells
b) CD8-positive cells
c) Double-negative cells
d) Plasma cells
Answer: b) CD8-positive cells

121. Which of the following T cells play a role in activating other immune cells and
promoting immune responses?
a) CD4-positive T cells
b) CD8-positive T cells
c) Double-negative T cells
d) Plasma cells
Answer: a) CD4-positive T cells

122. Which type of T cells are responsible for killing infected cells and tumor cells?
a) CD4-positive T cells
b) CD8-positive T cells
c) Double-negative T cells
d) Plasma cells
Answer: b) CD8-positive T cells

123. What is the function of T cell receptors (TCRs)?

a) To recognize antigens presented on the surface of host cells
b) To produce antibodies
c) To activate complement proteins
d) To stimulate phagocytosis
Answer: a) To recognize antigens presented on the surface of host cells

124. T-cell precursors lack antigen receptors and CD proteins before entering the
thymus. - TRUE
125. T-cell precursors differentiate into immunocompetent T cells within the bone
marrow. - FALSE (they differentiate within the thymus)
126. T-cell precursors initially express both CD4 and CD8 proteins. - FALSE (they
initially express neither CD4 nor CD8)
127. A double-positive T cell will differentiate into a CD4-positive cell if it contacts a
cell bearing class I MHC proteins. - FALSE (it will differentiate into a CD4-positive cell if it
contacts a cell bearing class II MHC proteins)
128. Mutant mice that do not make class II MHC proteins will not make CD4-positive
cells. – TRUE

129. Which cells are located in the medulla of the thymus?

A) Double-negative cells
B) Double-positive cells
C) Single-positive cells
D) Both A and B
E) None of the above

Answer: C) Single-positive cells

130. What is the purpose of negative selection during thymic education?

a) To select T cells that react well with self MHC proteins
b) To prevent autoimmune reactions by eliminating self-reactive T cells
c) To produce T cells that are able to react only with foreign antigens
d) To enhance the synthesis of self-proteins by thymic epithelial cells
Answer: b) To prevent autoimmune reactions by eliminating self-reactive T cells

131. What is the role of the autoimmune regulator (AIRE) protein in thymic
education?
a) It enhances the synthesis of self-proteins by thymic epithelial cells
b) It promotes the positive selection of T cells that react well with self MHC
proteins
c) It prevents the killing of self-reactive T cells during negative selection
d) It activates T cells during the immune response by presenting antigens
Answer: a) It enhances the synthesis of self-proteins by thymic epithelial cells

132. What is the purpose of positive selection during thymic education?

a) To select T cells that react well with self MHC proteins
 b) To prevent autoimmune reactions by eliminating self-reactive T cells
c) To produce T cells that are able to react only with foreign antigens
d) To enhance the synthesis of self-proteins by thymic epithelial cells
Answer: a) To select T cells that react well with self MHC proteins

133. What is the function of MHC proteins in the immune response?

a) To prevent the killing of self-reactive T cells during negative selection
b) To activate T cells during the immune response by presenting antigens
c) To enhance the synthesis of self-proteins by thymic epithelial cells
d) To promote the positive selection of T cells that react well with self MHC
proteins
Answer: b) To activate T cells during the immune response by presenting antigens

134. What is the process by which self-reactive T cells are removed during thymic
education?
a) Positive selection
b) Clonal expansion
c) Negative selection
d) Tolerance induction
Ans: c) Negative selection

135. What is the purpose of negative selection in thymic education?

a) To promote the expansion of self-reactive T cells
b) To induce tolerance to self-proteins
c) To promote autoimmune reactions
d) To eliminate foreign antigens from the body
Ans: b) To induce tolerance to self-proteins

136. Which transcriptional regulator enhances the synthesis of self-proteins in

thymic epithelial cells?
a) T-bet
b) Foxp3
c) Autoimmune regulator (AIRE)
d) GATA3
Ans: c) Autoimmune regulator (AIRE)

137. What happens to CD4-positive, CD8-positive cells that react well with self MHC
proteins during thymic education?
a) They are killed by apoptosis
 b) They undergo clonal expansion
c) They are selected for further maturation
d) They become self-reactive T cells
Ans: c) They are selected for further maturation

138. What is the main function of MHC proteins in the immune response?
a) To promote autoimmune reactions
b) To induce clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells
c) To present antigens to T cells
d) To produce cytokines that activate immune cells
Ans: c) To present antigens to T cells

139. Which type of MHC protein is required for the differentiation of double-positive
T cells into CD4-positive T cells?
a) Class I MHC proteins
b) Class II MHC proteins
c) Both class I and class II MHC proteins
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Class II MHC proteins

140. What is the result of mutations in the AIRE gene?

a) Increased production of self-proteins in thymic
epithelial cells
b) Decreased production of self-proteins in thymic
epithelial cells
c) Development of autoimmune polyendocrinopathy
d) Development of immunodeficiency
Ans: c) Development of autoimmune polyendocrinopathy

141. The removal of self-reactive T cells in the thymus occurs through a process
called positive selection.
False. The removal of self-reactive T cells occurs through a process called negative
selection.

142. The autoimmune regulator (AIRE) enhances the synthesis of self-proteins in

thymic epithelial cells.
True.
143. Mutations in the gene encoding the AIRE protein can result in the development
of autoimmune polyendocrinopathy.
True.

144. Positive selection in the thymus results in the removal of T cells that react with
self MHC proteins.
False. Positive selection in the thymus results in the selection of T cells that react well
with self MHC proteins.

145. The two processes of thymic education produce T cells that are selected for
their ability to react with foreign antigens only.
False. The two processes of thymic education produce T cells that are selected for their
ability to react both with foreign antigens via their antigen receptors and with self MHC
proteins.

146. MHC proteins only perform one essential function in the immune response.
False. MHC proteins perform two essential functions in the immune response: positive
selection of T cells in the thymus and presentation of antigens to T cells.

147. MHC proteins are not involved in graft rejection.

False. MHC proteins are the most important antigens recognized in the graft rejection
process.

148. Which of the following types of immunity is primarily mediated by T cells?

a) Innate immunity
b) Humoral immunity
c) Cell-mediated immunity
d) Passive immunity
Answer: c) Cell-mediated immunity, which involves the activation of T cells to target
infected or abnormal cells directly.

149. Where do B cells differentiate into immunocompetent cells?

a) Thymus
b) Spleen
c) Bone marrow
d) Lymph nodes
 Answer: c) Bone marrow

150. Do B cells undergo clonal deletion?

a) Yes
b) No
Answer: a) Yes

151. What is the purpose of clonal deletion in B cells?

a) To induce tolerance
b) To produce more B cells
c) To increase the immune response
d) None of the above
Answer: a) To induce tolerance

152. What is receptor editing in B cells?

a) A process of clonal deletion
b) A process of cell division
c) A process of changing the specificity of the receptor to no longer
recognize a self-protein
d) None of the above
Answer: c) A process of changing the specificity of the receptor to no longer recognize a
self-protein

153. Do T cells undergo receptor editing?

a) Yes
b) No
Answer: b) No

154. B-cell precursors differentiate into immunocompetent B cells in the thymus.

False. B-cell precursors differentiate into immunocompetent B cells in the bone marrow.
155. B cells undergo clonal deletion of those cells bearing antigen receptors for self-
proteins, a process that induces tolerance and reduces the occurrence of autoimmune
diseases. True.
156. Receptor editing is a process that allows B cells to avoid clonal deletion by
producing a new light chain that changes the specificity of the receptor so that it no
longer recognizes a self-protein. True.
157. T cells undergo receptor editing to change the specificity of their receptors.
False. T cells do not undergo receptor editing.
158. Receptor editing occurs in only a small percentage of self-reactive B cells. False.
It is estimated that as many as 50% of self-reactive B cells undergo receptor editing.

159. From which stem cells do macrophages differentiate?

a) Lymphoid stem cells
b) Myeloid precursors
c) Erythroid progenitors
d) Megakaryocytes
Answer: b) Myeloid precursors

160. What are the two important functions of macrophages?

a) Phagocytosis and antigen processing
b) Cytotoxicity and antibody production
c) Proliferation and differentiation
d) Apoptosis and cell signaling
Answer: a) Phagocytosis and antigen presentation

161. Do macrophages have an antigen receptor?

a) Yes
b) No
Answer: b) No

162. Which type of MHC proteins do macrophages display on their surface for
antigen presentation to helper T cells?
a) Class I MHC proteins
b) Class II MHC proteins
c) Both class I and class II MHC proteins
d) Neither class I nor class II MHC proteins
Answer: b) Class II MHC proteins

163. What are the two main categories of T cell functions?

a) Helper and killer
b) Regulatory and effector
c) Adaptive and innate
d) Memory and naïve
Answer: b) Regulatory and effector

164. Which type of T cells primarily perform regulatory functions?

 a) Cytotoxic T cells
b) Helper T cells
c) Memory T cells
d) Naïve T cells
Answer: b) Helper T cells

165. Which interleukin activates both CD4 and CD8 cells?

a) IL-2
b) IL-4
c) Gamma interferon
d) IL-10
Answer: a) IL-2

166. Which interleukin helps B cells make antibodies, especially IgE?

a) IL-2
b) IL-4
c) Gamma interferon
d) IL-10
Answer: b) IL-4

167. Which type of T cells primarily perform effector functions?

a) Helper T cells
b) Regulatory T cells
c) Cytotoxic T cells
d) Memory T cells
Answer: c) Cytotoxic T cells

168. What is the function of gamma interferon produced by helper T cells?

a) Activate CD4 and CD8 cells
b) Help B cells make antibodies
c) Enhance killing by macrophages
d) Inhibit immune response
Answer: c) Enhance killing by macrophages

169. Which cells do cytotoxic T cells kill?

a) Virus-infected cells
b) B cells
c) Neutrophils
d) Natural killer cells
 Answer: a) Virus-infected cells

170. What is the function of class II MHC proteins displayed on the surface of
macrophages?
a) Kill virus-infected cells
b) Activate CD4 and CD8 cells
c) Present antigen to natural killer cells
d) Produce cytokines
Answer: b) Activate CD4 and CD8 cells

171. Which type of MHC protein is displayed on the surface of all nucleated cells,
including macrophages?
a) Class I MHC
b) Class II MHC
c) Class III MHC
d) Class IV MHC
Answer: a) Class I MHC

172. Which type of stem cells give rise to T cells?

a) Lymphoid stem cells
b) Myeloid stem cells
c) Hematopoietic stem cells
d) Mesenchymal stem cells
Answer: a) Lymphoid stem cells