Homework #3 Solutions (Due 9/26/06) : Niversity of Ennsylvania Epartment of Athematics

U NIVERSITY OF P ENNSYLVANIA D EPARTMENT OF M ATHEMATICS
Math 370 Algebra Fall Semester 2006

Prof. Gerstenhaber, T.A. Asher Auel
Homework #3 Solutions (due 9/26/06)

Chapter 2 Groups
3.4 a) Let G be a group and a, b G. Then

(aba1 )n = abn a1 ,
for all n Z.
Proof. For n = 0 this is clear since e = (aba1 )0 = ab0 a1 = aa1 . For n > 0, the idea is that
(aba1 )n = (aba1 )(aba1 ) (aba1 )(aba1 )
= ab(aa1 )b(aa1 ) b(aa1 )ba1
= abb ba1 = abn a1 .
This is enough, but Ill give the formal proof by induction as an example. Suppose (aba1 )n =
abn a1 holds for some n > 1, then note that
(aba1 )n+1 = (aba1 )n (aba1 )
= (abn a1 )(aba1 ) = abn (aa1 )ba1 = abn ba1
= abn+1 a1 ,
where weve used the induction hypothesis in the second equality. So by induction, our claimed
formula holds for all n > 0.
Now we handle the case n < 0. For n = 1, note that
(aba1 )(ab1 a1 ) = ab(aa1 )b1 a1 = a(bb1 )a1 = aa1 = e,
which shows that (aba1 )1 = ab1 a1 . Now since, for n > 0
(aba1 )n = ((aba1 )1 )n = (ab1 a1 )n ,
so applying the case of n > 0 to ab1 a1 gives use what we want.
3.5 Claim: Let : G G0 be an isomorphism of groups. Then the inverse mapping 1 : G0 G

is also an isomorphism.
Proof. Since : G G0 is an isomorphism, in particular it is a bijection, and so the inverse
mapping 1 : G0 G exists and is also a bijection. So we only need to prove that 1 is a group
homomorphism. To that end, let a0 , b0 G0 . Then since is bijective, there exist a, b G with
(a) = a0 and (b) = b0 , i.e. a = 1 (a0 ) and b = 1 (b0 ). Now we have
1 (a0 b0 ) = 1 ((a)(b))
= 1 ((ab)) = ab
= 1 (a0 )1 (b0 ),
where the second equality follows since vp is a homomorphism and the third equality follows from
the definition of the inverse mapping. Thus 1 : G0 G is a homomorphism of groups, and its
bijective by construction, so its an isomorphism.
3.12 Claim: Let G be a group and let : G G be the inversion map (x) = x1 for all x G.
Then
a) is a bijection, and
1
b) : G G is an isomorphism iff G is abelian.
Proof. To a), note that is surjective since inverses exist in a group, and is injective since inverses
are unique.
To b), note that since : G G is a bijection, to prove its an isomorphism it suffices to show its
a homomorphism. To that end, note that if is a homomorphism then for a, b G we have
ab = (b a1 )1 = (b1 a1 ) = (b1 )(a1 ) = (b1 )1 (a1 )1 = ba,
so G is abelian. Conversely, if G is abelian, then for all a, b G we have
(ab) = (ab)1 = b1 a1 = a1 b1 = (a)(b),
so is a homomorphism.
4.4 Since Z is an (infinite) cyclic group with generator 1 Z, any homomorphism : Z Z is

determined by a choice of image (1) Z. For n Z, let n : Z Z be the homomorphism
with n (1) = n, then for any a Z, n (a) = n a. Since multiplication of integers distributes over
addition, we see that each n is in fact a homomorphism, so the collection {n : Z Z : n Z}
constitutes all homomorphisms Z Z. Now we have three cases:
0 : Z Z is the constant zero map, i.e. the trivial homomorphism. It is neither injective
nor surjective.
n : Z Z for n 6= 0 are all injective since
a ker(n ) na = 0 a = 0,
since were assuming n 6= 0. Thus ker(n ) = {0}, and thus is injective.
1 : Z Z is the identity map, which is an isomorphism and 1 : Z Z is the minus
map, which is an isomorphism by 3.12b, since Z is abelian.
for n 6= 1, n : Z Z is not surjective since for example, na = 1 is impossible for
n 6= 1 and a Z, i.e. 1 Z is never in the image of any of these maps.
4.17 Claim: Let G be a group and

Z(G) = {c G : cg = gcfor allg G} G
its center. Then Z(G) is a normal subgroup of G.
Proof. We must first show Z(G) is a subgroup. First note that for all g G, eg = ge by definition
so that e Z(G). Now for a, b Z(G), note that for any g G, we have
(ab)g = a(bg) = a(gb) = (ag)b = (ga)b = g(ab),
so that again ab Z(G). Thus Z(G) is closed under multiplication and contains the identity, so is a
subgroup of G.
Finally, for g G, note that for all c Z(G), we have cg = gc, i.e. gcg 1 = c Z(G). Thus the
center is a normal subgroup. You could say its the most normal normal subgroup.
4.22/23 Claim: Let : G G0 be a surjective homomorphism of groups. Then

a) If G is cyclic then G0 is cyclic.
b) If G is abelian then G0 is abelian.
4.23 If N G is a normal subgroup, then (N ) G0 is a normal subgroup.
Proof. To a), recall that if G is cyclic with generator x G, then G can be written (whether G is
finite or infinite) as
G =< x >= {xn : n Z} = {. . . , x2 , x1 , eG , x, x2 , . . .}.
Then since vp is surjective,
G0 = (G) = (< x >)
= {. . . , (x2 ), (x1 ), (eG ), (x), (x2 ), . . .}
= {. . . , (x)2 , (x)1 , eG0 , (x), (x)2 , . . .}
= < (x) >,
by 3.4a, so G0 is cyclic.
To b), for all a0 , b0 G0 , since is surjective there exist a, b G such that (a) = a0 and
(b) = b0 . Then
a0 b0 = (a)(b) = (ab) = (ba) = (b)(a) = b0 a0 ,
using the fact that G is abelian in the third equality. Thus G0 is abelian.
To 4.23, let n0 (N ) and g 0 G0 . First, (N ) G is easily seen to be a subgroup from the fact
that N G is a subgroup. We want to now show (N ) G is a normal subgroup.
To that end, we note that as before, since vp is surjective, there exists g G such that (g) = g 0 .
Furthermore, note that by 3.6, (g 1 ) = (g)1 = (g 0 )1 . By the definition of (N ), there exists
n N G with (n) = n0 . Now since N G is a normal subgroup, we have that gng 1 = m
N . Finally, we have that
g 0 n(g 0 )1 = (g)(b)(g 1 ) = (gng 1 ) = (m) (N ),
so that as claimed, vp(N ) G is a normal subgroup.

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U NIVERSITY OF P ENNSYLVANIA D EPARTMENT OF M ATHEMATICS

Math 370 Algebra Fall Semester 2006

Homework #3 Solutions (due 9/26/06)

3.4 a) Let G be a group and a, b G. Then

3.5 Claim: Let : G G0 be an isomorphism of groups. Then the inverse mapping 1 : G0 G

4.4 Since Z is an (infinite) cyclic group with generator 1 Z, any homomorphism : Z Z is

4.17 Claim: Let G be a group and

4.22/23 Claim: Let : G G0 be a surjective homomorphism of groups. Then

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