This document contains a 47 question multiple choice test for recruitment at the Indian Space Research Organisation. The test covers topics in mechanical engineering, mathematics, thermodynamics and other STEM fields. Each question is followed by 4 possible answer choices. The test is assessing knowledge of concepts related to statics, heat transfer, materials properties, fluid mechanics, gears, thermodynamics and more.
This model question paper is for the first semester Basic Electronics course. It contains 10 questions divided across 5 modules. Students must answer 5 full questions, selecting one from each module. Questions can include definitions, derivations, circuit explanations, and calculations. The paper tests knowledge of diodes, transistors, operational amplifiers, feedback amplifiers, oscillators, digital circuits, and communication systems. Calculators and steam tables are permitted. Students must show working diagonally crossed out on blank pages.
The document is a project report for a Master's thesis investigating conjugate heat transfer for electronic cooling using the open-source software OpenFOAM. The student, Avinash Gorde, modeled a server system with solid components like RAM and a PCB coupled to an air domain. The project involved setting up the geometry, meshing, boundary conditions, and solving the conjugate heat transfer equations using OpenFOAM's chtMultiRegionSimpleFoam solver. Results showed temperature distributions within the heat sink and across solid components like the socket and RAM. The project provided experience applying OpenFOAM to model complex fluid-solid interaction problems for electronic cooling applications.
185817220 7e chapter5sm-final-newfrank-white-fluid-mechanics-7th-ed-ch-5-solu...Abrar Hussain
This document summarizes the solutions to several problems involving dimensional analysis. Some key points:
- Problem 5.1 calculates the volume flow rate needed for transition to turbulence in a pipe based on given parameters.
- Problem 5.2 uses dimensional analysis to determine the prototype velocity matched by a scale model wind tunnel test.
- Problem 5.6 calculates the expected drag force on a scale model parachute based on full-scale test data, showing the forces are exactly the same due to dynamic similarity.
This document appears to be an examination for a Design of Prestressed Structures course. It contains 6 multiple part questions related to prestressed concrete design. The questions cover topics such as: defining prestressed concrete and the advantages over reinforced concrete; distinguishing between pre-tensioning and post-tensioning systems; explaining load balancing concepts and stress distributions; calculating loads based on material stress limits; and identifying sources of prestress loss. Diagrams and calculations are provided. The questions address analysis and design aspects of prestressed concrete beams and structural elements.
Ies 2013 civil engineering objective paper i solved question paperThomas Britto
1) The document provides instructions for a civil engineering exam with two parts containing 120 multiple choice questions.
2) Test takers must fill in personal details on the answer sheet according to the instructions and hand only the answer sheet to the invigilator after completing the exam.
3) There will be a penalty of 1/3 marks deducted for each wrong answer selected, and selecting more than one answer for a question will be considered wrong. No penalty for leaving a question blank.
This document summarizes research on analyzing the aero-elastic behavior of composite wing structures. The researchers used a velocity-damping method to estimate flutter speed and frequencies. They developed a finite element model of a composite wing and analyzed its normal modes to obtain natural frequencies. These frequencies were input into an analytical code to compute the wing's flutter speed. The analysis showed the composite wing had a higher flutter speed of 283.4 m/s compared to 264.6 m/s for an existing metallic wing, demonstrating improved aero-elastic performance from the composite material.
This document describes a study measuring the fraction of J/ψ mesons originating from Υ(1P), Υ(2P), and Υ(3P) decays as a function of pT(J/ψ) using data collected by the LHCb experiment at center-of-mass energies of 7 and 8 TeV. The analysis involves determining yields of J/ψ mesons and yields from Υ decays to J/ψ in different pT bins. Monte Carlo simulations are used to calculate efficiencies and compare data distributions. Results include improved precision on previous LHCb measurements of these fractions and a measurement of the Υ1(3P) mass.
ESCC2018, Mykonos, Greece, June 4-8, 2018, presentation by Fragkogios A., Sah...LIFE GreenYourMove
This document presents an accelerated Benders decomposition method applied to crude oil scheduling problems. It proposes two improved algorithms using an auxiliary dual subproblem that adds a stable optimality cut in each iteration. The first algorithm switches to the auxiliary subproblem once a feasible solution is found, while the second adds cuts from both the classical and auxiliary subproblems each iteration. Computational results on a sample crude oil scheduling problem show the proposed algorithms converge to optimality faster than the classical Benders decomposition method.
This document describes a conjugate heat transfer analysis of an electronics cooling system using OpenFOAM. It outlines the objectives to develop a CFD model for CHT analysis and validate it with experiments. The methodology section describes the governing equations solved for fluid and solid regions as well as the interface coupling. A simple circuit board cooling case is modeled and tested. Additionally, a server cooling case is proposed with details on geometry, meshing, boundary conditions and results showing temperature distributions.
1. The document provides questions for a geotechnical engineering exam, with two main parts (A and B) containing multiple choice and descriptive questions.
2. Part A asks about objectives of soil exploration, methods for controlling groundwater during excavation, stress distribution theories, use of flownets, earth pressure theories, and locating phreatic lines.
3. Part B covers causes of slope failure, stability analysis methods, factors affecting bearing capacity, and terms related to settlement of foundations. Descriptive questions address topics like selection of boring depths, Newmark's method, seepage calculations, and stability of canal slopes.
This document contains a summary of key information from a longer document or set of documents related to civil engineering.
1) The document contains questions and answers related to topics in environmental engineering, transportation engineering, geotechnical engineering, and design and drawing of RCC structures.
2) For each section, the document provides questions to be answered and/or problems to be solved related to the technical topics. Diagrams, sketches, calculations and explanations are required.
3) The questions cover a wide range of civil engineering subdisciplines and require summarizing technical concepts, performing calculations, and providing diagrams/drawings as needed.
Analytical solution of the relative orbital motion in unperturbed elliptic or...IRJET Journal
This document presents an analytical solution to the relative orbital motion of two objects (a chief and deputy object) moving in unperturbed elliptic orbits about a central body. It begins by deriving the equations of motion for the deputy object relative to the chief in terms of the true anomaly of the chief's orbit. These equations are then linearized and solved using Laplace transformations, representing the solution in terms of the eccentricity of the chief's orbit and its true anomaly. Finally, the document states that the analytical solution will be applied to a numerical example to validate the approach.
This document contains 90 multiple choice questions from a 2015 physics exam for JSTSE (Joint Seat Test for Science and Engineering). The questions cover topics in mechanics, waves, sound, light, electricity and magnetism. Sample questions ask about time taken for objects to fall, momentum, circular motion, work, energy, properties of waves and sound. The document provides the question, possible answers and the answer key for each question.
This document provides an overview of using lattice-Boltzmann methods for computational fluid dynamics simulations of automobile and motorcycle aerodynamics. It discusses how CFD fits into the aerodynamic development process, requirements for an efficient CFD tool, the basics of lattice-Boltzmann methods including particle movement and collision rules, calculating macroscopic fluid properties from the particle distribution functions, determining transport coefficients, and modeling fluid-surface interactions through automatic discretization of solid bodies. Validation examples and applications to road vehicles are also briefly mentioned.
This document contains information related to a design examination for pre-stressed concrete structures. It includes 20 questions across two parts (A and B). Part A focuses on concepts like pre-stressing systems, tendon profiles, creep and shrinkage of concrete. Part B involves calculations related to design of pre-stressed beams including determining thrust line profiles, stresses in tendons and concrete. The questions cover a range of pre-stressing and design concepts tested through calculations.
This document contains questions for an examination on various topics related to air pollution and control, highway geometric design, pre-stressed concrete structures, and other civil engineering subjects. It includes multiple choice and long-form questions requiring calculations and explanations. Some key topics covered include methods for air pollution control, factors influencing highway design, prestressing systems, load balancing in pre-stressed concrete, shear and flexural failures, and end block design of post-tensioned beams. The document is formatted as a test for a 7th semester civil engineering degree examination.
GATE 2013 CHEMICAL ENGINEERING SolutionsSundar Kannan
Solutions for gate 2013 chemical engineering paper.
The same in a powerpoint format can be downloaded from:
https://drive.google.com/file/d/0B6g7hNFF87j3ZkQydGFEQ3QxaVE/edit?usp=sharing
mskannan20@gmail.com
1. The document contains 25 multiple choice questions in Section A of a mechanical engineering exam. It tests knowledge of topics including matrices, fluid mechanics, thermodynamics, heat transfer, and more.
2. It also contains 25 additional multiple choice questions testing further mechanical engineering topics. These questions cover areas such as dynamics, differential equations, stress analysis, and aerodynamics.
3. The examinee is asked to answer each question by selecting one or more correct answer choices and writing the corresponding letter(s) in the answer column. This examines their understanding of fundamental mechanical engineering concepts.
This document contains a 25 question multiple choice quiz on engineering topics like partial differential equations, matrix properties, numerical integration techniques, stress and strain analysis, probability, heat transfer, thermodynamics, fluid mechanics, welding processes, machining, solidification, mechanical properties, turbines, kinematics, and vector calculus. It also provides the solutions and explanations for each question. The document serves as a practice test for the GATE (Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering) exam administered by one of India's largest GATE exam preparation institutes.
This document contains a 20 question multiple choice quiz related to engineering topics. Some of the questions are about matrices, probability, thermodynamics, fluid mechanics, heat transfer, and mechanics of materials. The correct answers are provided for reference.
1. Reducing roll diameter decreases roll separating force by reducing friction between rolls and metal.
2. A half nut is used to lock the lathe carriage and lead screw for thread cutting.
3. In resistance seam welding, the electrode is in the form of a circular disc.
4. An interference fit is a shrink fit.
This document contains 91 mechanical engineering questions related to topics like materials, thermodynamics, machine elements, manufacturing processes and more. Some examples include questions about the material used for crankshafts, the equation governing kinematic links and pairs, types of gears and their uses, efficiency differences between thermodynamic cycles, and definitions of mechanical terms like modulus of elasticity and creep. The full document provides detailed technical questions and answers to test knowledge across various areas of mechanical engineering.
This is GATE 2019 mechanical question paper. The answer key is available at https://prepare.prepleaf.com. For more such content visit- https://www.prepleaf.com.
Mechanical engineering competitive exam previous year question paperdeepa sahu
This document contains 31 multiple choice questions related to mechanical engineering topics such as manufacturing processes, materials, thermodynamics, and mechanics. The questions cover gauges, gas turbines, casting processes, heat engines, hydraulics, welding, combustion, gear trains and more. Correct answers are provided for each question.
The document contains information about a test series conducted by KAME Classroom and Online Test Series. It provides the date and time of the GATE 2017 Mechanical Engineering exam, and requests candidates to share their expected GATE scores. It also contains sample questions and answers from the GATE 2017 Mechanical Engineering exam.
The document contains information about a test series conducted by KAME Classroom and Online Test Series. It provides the date and time of the GATE 2017 Mechanical Engineering exam, and requests candidates to share their expected GATE scores. It also contains sample questions and answers from the GATE 2017 Mechanical Engineering exam.
Electrical Engineering Objective Type Questions.pdfgulie
This document contains a list of objective type questions for the Electrical Engineering department at Government College of Engineering in Bargur, prepared by assistant professor V. Arivumani. It includes 875 total questions organized under various topics related to electrical engineering, such as DC generators, DC motors, transformers, induction motors, synchronous motors, transmission and distribution, and cables. The questions cover concepts like generator construction, winding types, armature reaction, commutation, and parallel operation of generators. Sample questions and answers are provided for the topic of DC generators.
Electrical engineering objective type questionsDebasis Paul
This document contains a list of objective type questions prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani for the Electrical Engineering department at Government College of Engineering, Bargur. It includes 875 questions organized under various topics related to electrical machines like DC generators, DC motors, transformers, induction motors, synchronous motors, transmission and distribution, and cables. The questions cover concepts related to these topics and are multiple choice questions with one correct answer option. An example question is provided to illustrate the question format.
This document appears to be a sample test for the MCAT exam containing 220 multiple choice questions testing physics and chemistry knowledge. The physics section includes questions about electric fields, forces, fluids, waves, optics, mechanics, and magnetism. The chemistry section includes questions about polymers, gases, atomic structure, bonding, thermodynamics, and organic chemistry. The document provides context for understanding the content and scope of the MCAT exam for students in a medical program entrance test.
The document contains 40 multiple choice questions related to engineering topics like mechanics, materials science, thermodynamics, manufacturing processes etc. Each question has 4 answer options out of which only one is correct. The questions test fundamental concepts and definitions from various engineering domains.
This document contains a 10 question practice test for the GATE 2018 exam. It covers general aptitude concepts including English grammar, math, logic, and data interpretation. The questions are multiple choice with 1-2 marks each. Topics include filling in blanks, finding missing terms, geometry, probability, and word problems involving ratios, time/work calculations, and logical reasoning. The test is divided into three sections and provides the full context and response options for each question.
This document appears to be a practice test containing 50 multiple choice questions related to various topics in electronics and communication engineering. The questions cover topics like flip-flops, memory addressing, Boolean logic, transistors, diodes, modulation, communications systems, transforms, and data interpretation. The full answer key is not provided.
This document contains a 220 question multiple choice test for entry into medical college. It covers topics in physics, chemistry, and biology. The physics section includes questions about magnetic fields, vectors, projectile motion, waves, optics, electricity and magnetism. The chemistry section covers topics like bonding, extraction, gases, metals, acids and bases. The biology section focuses on genetics, biochemistry and physiology. The test is designed to take 150 minutes and has a maximum score of 1100 marks.
(Www.entrance exam.net)-gate civil engineering sample paper 4gulaaab
This document appears to be a past paper for the GATE (Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering) exam in Civil Engineering from 2007. It contains 75 multiple choice questions testing various topics in civil engineering, including structural analysis, geotechnical engineering, transportation engineering, environmental engineering, and construction materials. The questions range from basic definitions and calculations to more complex problems involving matrices, differential equations, stress analysis, fluid mechanics, and other topics.
CULEX MOSQUITOES, SYSTEMATIC CLASSIFICATION, MORPHOLOGY, LIFE CYCLE , CLINICA...DhakeshworShougrakpa
showing Culex mosquitoes' systematic classification, a completed life cycle i.e. egg, larva, pupa and adult mosquitoes also known as imago, also this slide showed the morphology of culex mosquitoes including head, thorax, abdomen, wing, egg larval stage, resting position,etc. by comparing with anopheles' mosquitoes. it's also showed the transmission of wuchereria bancrofti transmitted by vector Culex quinquefasciatus. Host: W. bancrofti completes its life cycle in
two hosts.
1. Definitive host: Man
2. Intermediate host: Mosquito named
Culex quinquefasciatus is the principle
vector worldwide. Rarely Anopheles
(rural Africa) or Aedes (Pacific Island)
can serve as a vector.
Infective form: Third stage filariform larvae
are the infective form found in the proboscis
of the mosquito.
Mode of transmission: L3
filariform larvae get
deposited in skin by the insect bite. Residents living in the endemic areas are exposed to
about 50–300 L3
larvae every year.Human cycle
z Develop into adults: Larvae penetrate
the skin, enter into lymphatic vessels and
migrate to the local lymph nodes where they
molt twice to develop into adult worms in
few months (4–6 weeks for B. malayi)
z Adults lay L1
larvae (microfilariae): Adult
worms reside in the afferent lymphatics or
cortical sinuses of the lymph nodes where
they mate and start laying the first stage
larvae (microfilariae). Male worms die after
mating where as the female worms live for
5–10 years. A gravid female can discharge
50,000 microfilariae/day
z Prepatent period: It is the time period
between the infection (entry of L3
larvae)
and diagnosis (detection of microfilariae
in blood). This is variable ranging from 80
days to 150 days
Mosquito cycle
z Transmission: When the mosquito bites
an infected man, the microfilariae are
ingested. Culex bites in night where as Aedes
bites in daytime
z Exsheathing: Microfilariae come out of the
sheath within 1–2 hours of ingestion
z Migration to thoracic muscle: L1
larvae
penetrate the stomach wall and migrate to
thoracic muscle in 6–12 hours where they
become sausage shaped (short and thick)
z Develop to infective L3
larvae: L1
larvae
molt twice to develop L2
(long and thick
form) followed by L3
(long and thin form).
The highly active L3
larvae migrate to the
labella (distal part of proboscis) of the
mosquito and serve as the infective stage
to man
z Extrinsic incubation period: Under
optimum conditions, the mosquito cycle
takes around 10–14 days
Clinical symptoms:
The clinical symptoms and signs are mainly determined by the duration of the infection. The
adult worms, which live in the lymphatic vessels, can cause severe inflammation of the
lymphatic system and acute recurrent fever. Secondary bacterial infections are a major factor in
the progression towards lymphoedema and elephantiasis, the characteristic swelling of the limbs,
genitalia and breasts.
treatment like using larvicide like fenthion can spray on water
PART 1 The New Natural Principles of Electromagnetism and Electromagnetic Fie...Thane Heins
Document Summary and the History of Perpetual Motion
Every single Faraday Generator coil since 1834 has been and is currently performing Negative Work at infinite efficiency with created Electromagnetic Field Energy during electricity generation and its physical Kinetic Energy reduction or Electromagnetic Resistance of the changing magnetic field which is initially inducing Electric Current in the generator coil according to Faraday's Law of Induction.
The Work-Energy Principle confirms mathematically that the magnitude of the changing magnetic field's Kinetic Energy reduction is equal to the magnitude of Negative Work performed at infinite efficiency, which is equal to the magnitude of Energy (Electromagnetic Field Energy which is created according to Oersted's Law of Creation of Energy of 1820). Created Electromagnetic Field Energy is required in order to perform the Negative Work – because Work cannot be performed in the absence of Energy.
In 2007 Thane Heins of Almonte Ontario, Canada discovered that unlimited amounts of Positive Electromechanical Work could be performed at infinite efficiency with created and TIME DELAYED Electromagnetic Field Energy.
Every single ReGenX Generator coil since 2007 has been and is currently performing Positive Work at infinite efficiency with created Electromagnetic Field Energy during electricity generation and during its physical Kinetic Energy increase or Electromagnetic Assistance of the changing magnetic field which is initially inducing Electric Current in the generator coil according to Heins' Law of Induction.
Faraday Electric Generators all harness internally Created Electromagnetic Field Energy in order to perform Negative Work (system Kinetic Energy reduction) at infinite efficiency and ReGenX Electric Generators harness internally created and Time Delayed Electromagnetic Field Energy in order to perform Positive Work (system Kinetic Energy increase) at infinite efficiency.
Both Faraday Generators and ReGenX Generators operate as Perpetual Motion Machines of the First Kind because they both have the ability to perform both Negative or Positive Work indefinitely and at infinite efficiency without requiring any External Energy input. The unlimited Energy required to perform either the Negative or Positive Work is created at the Sub-Atomic Quantum Electron level inside the generators' Current Bearing Wires according to the Law of Creation of Energy.
Hans Christian Oersted discovered the Law of Creation of Energy in 1820 when he demonstrated the world's first Perpetual Motion Machine of the First Kind at the University of Copenhagen when he also simultaneously violated Newton's 1st, 2nd and 3rd Laws of Motion.
Michael Faraday built and demonstrated the world's second Perpetual Motion Machine of the First Kind in 1822 when he demonstrated his Electric Motor invention which harnessed created Electromagnetic Field Energy in order to perform Positive Electromechanical Work at infinite efficienc
This an presentation about electrostatic force. This topic is from class 8 Force and Pressure lesson from ncert . I think this might be helpful for you. In this presentation there are 4 content they are Introduction, types, examples and demonstration. The demonstration should be done by yourself
ALTERNATIVE ANIMAL TOXICITY STUDY .pptxSAMIR PANDA
Alternatives animal testing are development and implementation of test methods that avoid the use of live animals.
Human biochemistry, physiology, pharmacology, and endocrinology and toxicology has been derived from animal models.10-100 millions of animals are using for experimentation in a year.
Animals used experimentation distributed among zebra- fish to primates.
Vast majority of animals are sacrificed at end of research programme.The use of animals can be further subdivided according to the degree of suffering
Minor animal suffering:- observing animals in behavioral studies, single blood sampling, Immunization without adjutants, etc.
Moderate animal suffering:- repeated blood sampling, recovery from general anesthesia, etc.
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Towards Wearable Continuous Point-of-Care Monitoring for Deep Vein Thrombosis...ThrombUS+ Project
Kaldoudi E, Marozas M, Jurkonis R, Pousset N, Legros M, Kircher M, Novikov D, Sakalauskas A, Moustakidis P, Ayinde B, Moltani LA, Balling S, Vehkaoja A, Oksala N, Macas A, Balciuniene N, Bigaki M, Potoupnis M, Papadopoulou S-L, Grandone E, Gautier M, Bouda S, Schloetelburg C, Prinz T, Dionisio P, Anagnostopoulos S, Drougka I, Folkvord F, Drosatos G, Didaskalou S and the ThrombUS+ Consortium, Towards Wearable Continuous Point-of-Care Monitoring for Deep Vein Thrombosis of the Lower Limb. In: Jarm, T., Šmerc, R., Mahnič-Kalamiza, S. (eds) 9th European Medical and Biological Engineering Conference. EMBEC 2024. IFMBE Proceedings, vol 113. Springer, Cham. https://doi.org/10.1007/978-3-031-61628-0_36
Presented by Dr. Stelios Didaskalou, ThrombUS+ Project Manager
The extremotolerant desert moss Syntrichia caninervis is a promising pioneer ...Sérgio Sacani
Many plans to establish human settlements on other planets focus on
adapting crops to growth in controlled environments. However, these settlements will also require pioneer plants that can grow in the soils and
harsh conditions found in extraterrestrial environments, such as those
on Mars. Here, we report the extraordinary environmental resilience of Syntrichia caninervis, a desert moss that thrives in various extreme environments. S. caninervis has remarkable desiccation tolerance; even after
losing >98% of its cellular water content, it can recover photosynthetic
and physiological activities within seconds after rehydration. Intact plants
can tolerate ultra-low temperatures and regenerate even after being stored
in a freezer at 80C for 5 years or in liquid nitrogen for 1 month.
S. caninervis also has super-resistance to gamma irradiation and can survive and maintain vitality in simulated Mars conditions; i.e., when simultaneously exposed to an anoxic atmosphere, extreme desiccation, low temperatures, and intense UV radiation. Our study shows that S. caninervis is
among the most stress tolerant organisms. This work provides fundamental insights into the multi-stress tolerance of the desert moss
S. caninervis, a promising candidate pioneer plant for colonizing extraterrestrial environments, laying the foundation for building biologically sustainable human habitats beyond Earth.
Keys of Identification for Indian Wood: A Seminar ReportGurjant Singh
Identifying Indian wood involves recognizing key characteristics such as grain patterns, color, texture, hardness, and specific anatomical features. These identification keys include observing the wood's pores, growth rings, and resin canals, as well as its scent and weight. Understanding these features is essential for accurate wood identification, which is crucial for various applications in carpentry, furniture making, and conservation.
Additionally, the application of Convolutional Neural Networks (CNN) in wood identification has revolutionized this field. CNNs can analyze images of wood samples to identify species with high accuracy by learning and recognizing intricate patterns and features. This technological advancement not only enhances the precision of wood identification but also accelerates the process, making it more efficient for industry professionals and researchers alike.
Ethical considerations play a crucial role in research, ensuring the protection of participants and the integrity of the study. Here are some subject-specific ethical issues that researchers need
The X‐Pattern Merging of the Equatorial IonizationAnomaly Crests During Geoma...Sérgio Sacani
A unique phenomenon—A geomagnetically quiet time merging of Equatorial IonizationAnomaly (EIA) crests, leading to an X‐pattern (EIA‐X) around the magnetic equator—has been observed in thenight‐time ionospheric measurements by the Global‐scale Observations of the Limb and Disk mission. Thepattern is also reproduced in an ionospheric model that assimilates slant Total Electron Content from GlobalNavigation Satellite System and Constellation Observing System for Meteorology, Ionosphere, and Climate 2.A free‐running whole atmospheric general circulation model simulation reproduces a similar pattern. Due to thesimilarity between measurements and simulations, the latter is used to diagnose this heretofore unexplainedphenomenon. The simulation shows that the EIA‐X can occur during geomagnetically quiet conditions and inthe afternoon to evening sector at a longitude where the vertical drift is downward. The downward vertical driftis a necessary but not sufficient condition. The simulation was performed under constant low‐solar andquiescent‐geomagnetic forcing conditions, therefore we conclude that EIA‐X can be driven by lower‐atmospheric forcing.
Types of Garden (Mughal and Buddhist style)saloniswain225
Garden is the place where, flower blooming on a plant ,aesthetic things are present like Topiary, Hedges, Arches and many more. Whereas, Botanical garden is an educational institution for scientific research as well as gathering information about different culture. Such as, Hindu, Mughal , Buddhist style.
Cause and solution of Water hyacinth (Terror of Bengal)saloniswain225
Water hyacinth is a buoyant plant that has a clump of leaves with squishy stalks arising from the lower feathery roots and it is an invasive species came from South America
1. INDIAN SPACE RESEARCH ORGANISATION
SET
A
Recruitment Entrance Test for Scientist/
Engineer ‘SC’ 2017
Mechanical May 20173
1. A beam is fixed at one end and is vertically supported at the other end. What is the
degree of statical indeterminacy?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
2. In a gas turbine power plant, reheating of gases between high pressure and low
pressure turbine stages will
(a) Improve turbine output (b) Decrease turbine output
(c) Increase compressor work (d) Decrease compressor work
3. The resultant of two forces acting at 60° is 7 N and when acting at right angles is
34 N. The forces are
(a) 25 N and 9 N (b) 3 N and 5 N
(c) 3 N and 5 N (d) 3 N and 5 N
4. The metal removal rate in abrasive jet machining process is
(a) high (b) very high (c) low (d) very low
5. The air inside a space capsule is maintained at the required condition by passing it
through a set of heat exchangers. The heat exchangers are designed such that the
humid air passing through them is cooled and partial condensation of the water
vapour occurs. On a psychrometric chart, this process appears as a line which is
(a) Horizontal to the left (b) Vertical downwards
(c) Diagonal downwards to the left (d) Diagonal upwards to the right
6. Two bolts A and B of same material and length are subjected to identical tensile load.
If the elastic strain energy stored in bolt A is 16 times that of the bolt B and the mean
diameter of bolt A is 13 mm, the mean diameter of bolt B (in mm) is
(a) 52 (b) 36 (c) 24 (d) 16
7. The source of energy in ultrasonic machining process is
(a) Mechanical (b) Electrical (c) Electric spark (d) None of these
8. A turbine develops 500 kW power under a head of 100 m at 200 rpm. What would be
its normal speed under a head of 81 m?
(a) 100 rpm (b) 180 rpm (c) 1800 rpm (d) 162 rpm
2. INDIAN SPACE RESEARCH ORGANISATION
SET
A
Recruitment Entrance Test for Scientist/
Engineer ‘SC’ 2017
Mechanical May 20174
9. A solid rod of 12 mm diameter was tested for tensile strength with the gauge length of
50 mm. Final length = 80 mm; Final diameter = 4 mm; Yield load = 1130 N. What is
the nearest yield stress and % reduction in area respectively?
(a) 10 MPa and 10% (b) 90 MPa and 90%
(c) 10 MPa and 90% (d) 90 MPa and 10%
10. When water at 0°C is heated, its specific volume under standard atmosphere
(a) First increases then decreases (b) First decreases then increases
(c) Increases steadily (d) Decreases steadily
11. A spherical joint has —————— degree (s) of freedom.
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
12. Isometric projection of a sphere is
(a) Circle (b) Ellipse (c) Hyperbola (d) Parabola
13. ABC inventory control focuses on those
(a) Items not readily available (b) Items which consume less money
(c) Items which have more demand (d) Items which consume more money
14. How does the viscosity of fluids vary with increase in temperature?
(a) Increases for both liquids and gases
(b) Increases for liquids, decreases for gases
(c) Increases for gases, decreases for liquids
(d) Decreases for both liquids and gases
15. It is required to connect two parallel shafts, the distance between whose axes is small
and variable. They can be coupled by
(a) Universal joint (b) Knuckle joint
(c) Sleeve coupling (d) Oldham coupling
16. Under what condition does flow separation take place?
(a) When dp/dx > 0 (b) When dp/dx < 0
(c) When dp/dx = 0 (d) Not a function of dp/dx
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17. The variety of cast iron which has maximum hardness is
(a) Gray iron (b) Malleable iron
(c) Ductile iron (d) White iron
18. The Kutzback criterion for determining the number of degrees of freedom (n) of a
mechanism with L as number of links, J as number of lower pairs and H as number of
higher pairs is
(a) 3 (J-1) – 2L – H (b) 2 (L-1) – 2J – H
(c) 3 (L-1) – 2J – H (d) 2 (L-1) – 3J – H
19. The crystal structure of cementite is
(a) FCC (b) BCC (c) Tetragonal (d) Orthorhombic
20. Hardness will be highest after which of the following heat treatment process?
(a) Furnace cooling (b) Air cooling
(c) Oil quenching (d) Water quenching
21. In which of the following type of gear train, the first gear and last gear are co-axial.
(a) Compound gear train (b) Simple gear train
(c) Reverted gear train (d) None of these
22. For heat transfer across a composite slab with materials having different thermal
conductivity, study the following statements.
I. Temperature is continuous always.
II. Temperature gradient is not continuous.
III. Heat flow is not continuous.
(a) Statement I alone is correct (b) Statement I and II are correct
(c) Statement II alone is correct (d) All the statements are correct
23. Which of the following treatment does not improve hardness?
(a) Quenching (b) Cyaniding (c) Normalising (d) Annealing
24. The ratio of the height of a porter governor (when the length of arms and links are
equal) to the height of watt governor is: (m: mass of the ball; M : mass of the sleeve)
(a)
Mm
m
+
(b)
Mm
M
+
(c)
m
Mm +
(d)
M
Mm +
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25. For a specified inlet and outlet temperatures, for which kind of heat exchanger will
the log mean temperature difference, lmT∆ will be highest?
(a) Double pipe parallel flow heat exchanger
(b) Double pipe counter flow heat exchanger
(c) Cross flow heat exchanger
(d) Multi pass shell and tube heat exchanger
26. Fatigue strength for non-ferrous materials is usually defined at —————— stress
cycles.
(a) 4
10 (b) 7
10 (c) 9
10 (d) 12
10
27. If
=
78
69
A then det ( )9899
AA − is
(a) 1 (b) 48 (c) 0 (d) 99
2
28.
( )
θ
πθ
πθ tan
2log
2
−
→
Lim is
(a) 1 (b) 2/π (c) 4/π (d) 0
29. The solution of ODE 0=+ dyxdxy is
(a)
x
k
y = (b)
xy
k
y
−
= (c)
y
x
y = (d) xk
ey =
30. If ϕ is a scalar point function, the value of curl Grad ϕ is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
31. The point where the plane 0623 =−++ zyx meets the line joining )1,1,2(P and
)2,3,1( −Q is,
(a) ( )1,1,2 (b) ( )1,1,1 (c) ( )2,3,1 − (d) ( )2,3,1−
32. ∫
2/
0
7
sin
π
dxx is
(a)
35
8
(b)
35
16
(c) 0 (d) 1
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33. Laplace transform of ( )att cos is
(a) 222
22
)( as
as
−
+
(b) 222
)( as
s
−
(c) 222
22
)( as
as
+
−
(d) 222
)( as
s
+
34. If two vectors kjia 743 −+=
r
and kjiPb 36 +−=
r
are perpendicular, the value of P
is
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 12 (d) 15
35. The arithmetic mean of 12 data point is 79. Later it was found that two data points
were wrongly taken as 83 and 68 in place of 78 and 97. The actual mean is
(a) 79 (b) 75 (c) 81 (d) 77
36. How does cetane number varies with octane number in fuels in IC engines?
(a) No relation (b) Directly proportional
(c) Inversely proportional (d) Both are equal
37. The relationship of the shear angle
24
α
β
π
φ +−= is as per (‘α ’ is rake angle and ‘ β ’
is friction angle)
(a) Ernst-Merchant theory (b) Merchant's theory
(c) Stabler theory (d) Lee and Shaffer theory
38. For a plate with an elliptical hole subjected to tensile stress, σ as shown in the figure,
the maximum tensile stress at point P is
(a) σ (b) σ2 (c) σ3 (d) more than σ3
39. A centrifugal compressor is suitable for which of the following?
P
2a
σ
2b
σ
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(a) High pressure ratio, low mass flow (b) Low pressure ratio, low mass flow
(c) High pressure ratio, high mass flow (d) Low pressure ratio, high mass flow
40. The optimum cutting speed for maximum production is (‘n’ is tool constant and ‘Tc ’ is
time required to change the tool)
(a)
2
1
1
n
Tc
n
k
+
(b) n
Tc
n
k
− 1
1
(c) n
Tc
n
k
2
1
1
−
(d) n
Tc
n
k
−
2
1
1
41. A rod of length L and area of cross section A has a modulus of elasticity E and
coefficient of thermal expansion α . One end of the rod is fixed and other end is free.
If the temperature of the rod is increased by ∆T, then
(a) Stress developed in the rod is Eα ∆T and strain developed in the rod is α ∆T
(b) Stress developed in the rod is zero and strain developed in the rod is –α ∆T
(c) Stress developed in the rod is zero and strain developed in the rod is α ∆T
(d) Stress developed in the rod is Eα ∆T and strain developed in the rod is zero
42. The entropy of a hot baked potato decreases as it cools.
(a) The above statement is correct
(b) The above statement is incorrect as it violates the increase in entropy principle
(c) Too less information to comment
(d) The above statement is incorrect as it violates second law of thermodynamics
43. During January, at a location in Rohtang, winds at –6°C can be observed. Several
meters below the ground, the temperature remains at 27°C. A scientist claims to have
devised a power cycle exploiting this situation that has a thermal efficiency of 10%.
Whether the claim is true?
(a) True (b) False (c) Can’t say (d) Insufficient data
44. The side relief angle in a cutting tool signature of 10, 20, 7, 6, 8, 15, 2 is
(a) 10 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 8
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45. The missing distance between A and B in the pin figure shown below is
(a) 1.8 (b) 1.8 ± 1.1 (c) 1.8 ± 1.2 (d) 1.8 ± 1.3
46. In an ideal gas turbine cycle with intercooling, reheating and regeneration as the
number of compression and expansion states are increased, which of the following
statements are correct?
I. The Brayton cycle reduces to Ericsson cycle.
II. The Brayton cycle reduces to Stirling cycle.
III. The cycle efficiency becomes equal to Carnot cycle efficiency.
(a) Statement I alone (b) Statement III alone
(c) Statement I and II (d) Statement II and III
47. Calculate the dynamic head ( staticA PP − ) when a jet of water with a velocity, v strikes a
flat plate moving with a velocity, u in the same direction as jet. (Take u = 4 m/s,
v = 10 m/s and ρ = 1000 kg/m3)
(a) 8000 Pa (b) 50000 Pa (c) 18000 Pa (d) 98000 Pa
48. The method of development of a right regular prism is
(a) Parallel line method (b) Radial line method
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(c) Triangulation method (d) Approximate method
49. A light plane flies at 720 km/hr in standard air at an altitude of 1000 m. Determine
the stagnation pressure at the leading edge of the wing. Take, Pair = 9.0 × 104 N/m2,
ρ = 1.1 kg/m3.
(a) 90 kPa (b) 119 kPa (c) 112 kPa (d) 100 kPa
50. Below the ductile to brittle transition temperature, weld joints show
(a) High ductility (b) High toughness
(c) Low toughness (d) Ductile fracture
51. What is the Prandtl number for a gas at 27°C and 1 × 105 Pa, with kinematic viscosity
equal to 1.8 × 10–5 m2/s, specific heat capacity at constant pressure = 700 J/kg-K and
thermal conductivity of 0.02 W/m-K? (Take Gas constant = 300 J/kg-K)
(a) 0.52 (b) 0.62 (c) 0.70 (d) 0.78
52. In continuous casting process, the mould is generally made of
(a) Cast iron (b) Bronze
(c) Copper (d) Tungsten carbide
53. A re-entry module flies with Mach 10 at an ambient temperature of –27°C with
CP = 840 J/kg-K, gas constant R = 140 J/kg-K. What is the stagnation temperature at
the tip of the nose of the re-entry module?
(a) –23°C (b) 1377°C (c) 2477°C (d) –253°C
54. Which one of the following steels contains least percentage of carbon?
(a) Mild steel (b) Stainless steel 304L
(c) Stainless steel 316L (d) IF steel
55. The Lewis number which is a measure of relative thermal and concentration
boundary layer thicknesses is defined as, (Re: Reynold’s number, Pr: Prandtl number,
Sc: Schmidt number)
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(a) Re × Pr (b) Sc/Pr (c) Re/Sc (d) Sc × Pr
56. The figure shows an Aluminium rod of 25 mm2 cross sectional area. It is loaded at
four points, K, L, M and N. Assume E = 67 GPa for Aluminium. The total change in
length of the rod due to loading as shown is close to
(a) m30 µ (b) m10 µ−
(c) m30 µ− (d) m10 µ
57. The basis of slip line field theory in metal cutting is
(a) Merchant theory (b) Lee and Shaffer theory
(c) Ernst-Merchant theory (d) None of these
58. A room contains 25 kg. of air at 100 kPa and 14°C. The room has a 250 W refrigerator
and 1 kW electric resistance heater. During a cold winter day, it is observed that both
the refrigerator and the heater are running continuously, but the air temperature in
the room remains constant. The rate of heat loss from the room during that day is
(a) 3600 kJ/hr. (b) 1250 kJ/hr.
(c) 4500 kJ/hr. (d) 2700 kJ/hr.
59. The bar AC, 10m long supports a load of 6000 N as shown in figure. The cable BC is
horizontal and 5m long. Forces in the cable and the bar are
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(a) 6928 N and 3464 N (b) 3464 N and 6928 N
(c) 3464 N and 3464 N (d) 6928 N and 6928 N
60. In a grinding wheel specification of ‘wa36k8vbe’, “wa” indicates
(a) Grain size (b) Type of grade
(c) Type of abrasive (d) Type of structure
61. Two Carnot heat engines are operating in series such that the heat sink of the first
engine serves as the heat source of the second one. If the source temperature of the
first engine is 1327°C, the sink temperature of the second engine is 127°C, and the
thermal efficiency of both the engines are the same, the temperature of the
intermediate reservoir is:
(a) 627°C (b) 410°C
(c) 577°C (d) 527°C
62. A body of mass 10 kg is initially stationary on a 45° inclined plane as shown in figure.
The coefficient of dynamic friction between the body and the plane is 0.3. The body
slides down the plane and attains a velocity of 20 m/s. The distance travelled
(in metre) by the body along the plane is close to
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(a) 4.8 (b) 98 (c) 41 (d) 9.8
63. In metal forming, ring compression test is carried out to find out
(a) Compressive strength (b) Interface friction
(c) Upset ratio (d) None of these
64. Water flows into the top of an open drum at a constant mass flow rate. Water exits
through a pipe near the base with a mass flow rate proportional to the height of the
liquid. If the drum is initially empty, which of the following gives the plot of liquid
height with time?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
65. What is the approximate reaction moment at the fixed support A for the loaded frame
shown below? (Take the diameter of the pulley as 250 mm)
Height,m
Height,m
Height,m
Height,m
time, sec
time, sec
time, sec
time, sec
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(a) 10010 Nm (b) 10624 Nm (c) 9810 Nm (d) 1263 Nm
66. A radiator on a space capsule must dissipate heat generated inside the capsule, by
radiating it into space. While on the bright side of earth, the capsule sees the earth’s
radiation and the solar radiation. The radiator surface has a solar absorptivity of
0.5 and an emissivity of 0.9. What is the maximum equilibrium surface temperature of
the radiator, if the maximum heat generated in the capsule is 800 W/m2?
Assume earth’s radiation = 100 W/m2 and solar irradiation = 524 W/m2.
Take Stefan Boltzmann constant as 5 × 10–8 W/m2-K4
(a) 400°C (b) 100°C (c) 127°C (d) 160°C
67. For profile controls, datum is
(a) Allowed but not required (b) Not allowed
(c) Required (d) None of these
68. A simply supported beam of length L is subjected to a varying distributed load
( ) mNLx //sin π , where distance x is measured from the left support. The magnitude
of the vertical reaction in N at the left support is
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(a) π/3L (b) π/2L (c) π2/L (d) π/L
69. A packed bed of solid spheres acts as a thermal energy storage system. In a charging
process, heat transfer from the hot gas increases thermal energy stored within the
spheres. Consider two beds, one with aluminium spheres ( ρ = 2700 kg/m3,
C = 950 J/kg-K, k = 240 W/m-K) and other with copper spheres ( ρ = 8900 kg/m3,
C = 400 J/kg-K, k = 380 W/m-K). Select the correct graph for the temperature rise of a
sphere at the inlet of the bed
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
70. Compressive residual stresses in weld joints
(a) Decreases tensile strength (b) Increases cracking tendency
(c) Increases fatigue strength (d) Coarsen the grain structure
71. A force P is applied at a distance ‘ X ’ from the end of the beam as shown in the figure.
What would be value of ‘ X ’ so that the displacement at ‘A’ is equal to zero?
TemperatureTemperatureTemperatureTemperature,ºCTemperatureTemperatureTemperatureTemperature,ºC
TemperatureTemperatureTemperatureTemperature,ºCTemperatureTemperatureTemperatureTemperature,ºC
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(a) 0.5 L (b) 0.25 L (c) 0.33 L (d) 0.66 L
72. An electric heater is sandwiched between two plates each 0.3 m long and 0.1 m wide
with a thickness of 30 mm. At steady state condition the heater is maintained at a
temperature of 100°C, with a current of 0.25 A and voltage of 200 V. Assume the
plates are perfectly insulated at the edges, and the heater is having perfect contact
with the plates to give a temperature of 50°C on the outside of the plate surface. What
is the thermal conductivity of the plate material?
(a) 1.0 W/m-K (b) 0.5 W/m-K
(c) 0.015 W/m-K (d) 0.3 W/m-K
73. Knife line or hairline cracking is observed in
(a) Ferritic stainless steel (b) Martensitic stainless steel
(c) Austenitic stainless steel (d) Stabilised stainless steel
74. Riser is designed so as to
(a) Freeze after the casting freezes
(b) Freeze before the casting freezes
(c) Freeze at the same time as the casting
(d) Minimise the time of pouring
75. A torque T is applied at the free end of a stepped rod of circular cross-sections as
shown in the figure. The shear modulus of the material of the rod is G. The
expression for diameter ‘d’ to produce an angular twist θ at the free end is
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(a)
4/1
30
G
TL
πθ
(b)
41
33
G
TL
πθ
(c)
41
18
G
TL
πθ
(d)
41
24
G
TL
πθ
76. A pin jointed uniform rigid rod of weight 981 N and length 1 m is kept horizontally by
an external force F as shown in the figure below. The force F is removed suddenly. At
the instant of force removal, the magnitude of vertical reaction (in N) developed at the
support is close to
(a) Zero (b) 245 (c) 490 (d) 981
77. The frictional torque transmitted in a conical pivot bearing considering uniform
pressure is : (R: radius of shaft,α : semi angle of cone, µ : Coefficient of friction,
W: load on bearing)
(a) ( ) αµ Cosec21 WR (b) ( ) αµ Cos43 WR
(c) ( ) αµ Cos32 WR (d) ( ) αµ Cosec32 WR
78. A mass of 2 kg is attached to two identical springs each with stiffness k = 40 kN/m as
shown in the figure. Under frictionless condition, the natural frequency of the system
in Hz is close to
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(a) 32 (b) 16
(c) 24 (d) 200
79. A rectangular steel plate is joined to a vertical post using four identical rivets
arranged as shown below in the figure. The shear load on the worst loaded rivet (in N)
approximately is
(a) 1700 (b) 1500
(c) 1650 (d) 1750
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80. Match the following criterion of material failure under biaxial stresses 1σ and 2σ and
yield stress yσ , with their corresponding graphic representations.
A. Maximum shear stress criterion L.
B. Maximum distortion energy criterion M.
C. Maximum normal stress criterion N.
(a) A – L, B – N, C – M
(b) A – N, B – L, C – M
(c) A – M, B – N, C – L
(d) A – N, B – M, C – L
–––––––––––––––––
σ1
σy– σy
σy
– σy
σ2
– σy
σ1
σ2
– σy
σy
σy
– σy
σ1
σ2
– σy
σy
σy
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Space for rough work