ChE 525: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES MOCK BOARD 3

INORGANIC CHEMISTRY 13. The active component of sunblock that reflects UVA radiation
1. What is the total number of completely or partially filled p- a) benzophenone c) titanium dioxide
orbitals in 33As atom in its ground state configuration? b) p-Aminobenzoic acid d) no answer
a) 3 b) 6 c) 8 d) 9 14. What is the mean MW of a sample of fat with a saponification
2. It is a plausible explanation of a body of observed natural number of 100.
phenomena. a) 160 b) 167 c) 168 d) 169
a) Principle b) Experiment c) Law d) Theory
3. Whose rule delineates the placement of additional electrons in
the unfilled orbital of lowest energy?
a) Aufbau b) Avogadro c) Hund d) Pauli
4. The major problem in exploiting nuclear fusion as an energy 15. How many lightseconds is the earth from the sun?
source is a) 499 b) 3.14x107 c) 9.41x1015 d) 350
a) the high radioactivity of the reactants 16. A line in Pfund series (nlo = 5) occurs at 3.74 x 10-6m. What is
b) the high radioactivity of the products nhi for this transition? Rydberg constant equals 2.18 x 10-18 J.
c) the lack of appropriate reactants a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9
d) the high activation energy that is required for the reaction
5. Styrofoam is a good insulating material because
a) it is a plastic material that conducts heat poorly
b) it contains many tiny pockets of air
c) of the structure of the molecules making it up
d) it is not very dense
6. The condensation of water vapor actually ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
a) warms the surroundings 17. Which of these gives mostly the meta product when treated
b) cools the surroundings with Br2 / Fe?
O
c) sometimes warms and sometimes cools the surroundings a) c)
d) neither warms nor cools the surroundings
NH2
7. Spectral lines are produced when
a) electrons are knocked out of their energy level
b) electrons interact with photons
c) electrons move up to higher energy levels Cl
d) electrons return to their energy level b) d)
8. Which of the following species has a molecular geometry of
square pyramidal?
a) ClO3- b) BH4- c) BrF5 d) SF6
206
9. Pb has a relative abundance of 23.6%. What size of Pb will
contain 8.34 x 1021 atoms of 206
Pb if the density of Pb is 11.35 18. What is the product of the following reaction: 3-Methyl-1,4-
g/cm ? 3 hexadiene + 2 Cl2?
a) 0.25 cm3 b) 1.07 cm3 c) 7.01 cm3 d) 10.7 cm3 a) 1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-3-methylhexane
10. If the rate of reaction of 0.1M sodium cyanide with 0.1M 1- b) 1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-1,3-dimethylhexane
c) 1,2,4,5-Tetrachloro-3,5-dimethylhexane
bromoethane is 1.4 x 10-4, what effect will an increase in
d) 2,3,5,6-Tetrachloro-4-methylhexane
NaCN concentration to 0.3 and alkyl bromide concentration to
19. Give the IUPAC name of the polyfunctional hydrocarbon
0.2 have on the overall reaction rate?
derivative below.
a) increase by 2 times c) increase by 6 times
b) increase by 3 times d) increase by 1.5 times
11. An atom of a particular element is travelling at 1% of the
speed of light. The wavelength is found to be 3.31 x 10 -3 pm.
The element is
a) Be b) Mg c) Ca d) Sr
12. It takes 208.4 kJ of energy to remove one mole of electrons
a) Methyl-3-(2-oxo-1-cyclohexenyl)propanoate
from the atoms on the surface of rubidium metal. If rubidium
b) Methyl-3-(2-oxo-6-cyclohexenyl)propanoate
metal is irradiated with 254-nm light, what is the maximum
c) Propyl-3-(2-oxo-1-cyclohexenyl)methanoate
kinetic energy the released electrons can have?
d) Propyl-3-(2-oxo-6-cyclohexenyl)methanoate
a) 3.02 x 10-19 J c) 5.89 x 10-19 J
b) 4.36 x 10-19 J d) 7.82 x 10-19 J
ChE 525: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES MOCK BOARD 3
20. In the reaction of 2-Nitrotoluene with Bromine in the the molar concentration of HCl solution used if the sample
presence of iron, which of the products shown below is the contains 19.9% inert matters?
most abundant in the mixture? a) 0.3360M b) 0.4450M c) 0.6360M d) 0.9630M
O CH3 CH3 O 26. Consider two reaction vessels A and B, where [A]o = [B]o at
a) N Br c) N t=0. A and B decompose by 1st order reaction with reaction
O O constants of 4.50 x 10-4 s-1 and 3.70 x 10-3 s-1 respectively.
Calculate the time that must pass to reach the condition such
Br that [A]t = 6.58 [B]t.
CH3 O CH3 a) 394 s b) 453 s c) 580 s d) 637 s
b) N d) 27. A 0.12 g sample of calcite is treated with 36.82 ml of 0.08132
O
HCl and the excess is found to require 6.2 ml of 0.09677 N
O NaOH for back titration. Calculate the percentage purity of
N Br
calcite.
Br O a) 99.8% b) 98.3% c) 89.3% d) 49.8%
28. A 347.5 mg sample of meat was analyzed for its nitrogen
21. What is the product when Butyne undergoes a double content. Upon digestion, the ammonia liberated was colleted
hydrobromination under the presence of organic peroxide? in 150 mL of 0.6 M H3BO3 solution. The resulting solution was
a) 1,2-Dibromobutane c) 1,1-Dibromobutane titrated with 45.5 mL of 0.0122 MHCl using mixed indicator.
b) 2,2-Dibromobutane d) 2,3-Dibromobutane Determine the percentage of protein in the sample using 6.25
22. Which of the following pairs of products can be obtained when as factor for meat products.
an alkene such as 3-Hexene is reacted with peroxyacetic acid? a) 1.12% b) 2.24% c) 13.98% d) 27.96%
a) Epoxide and ester c) Alcohol and carboxylic acid 29. 0.180 g of metal upon reaction with excess hydrochloric acid
b) Ether and ester d) Epoxide and carboxylic acid
produced 24.6 ml of hydrogen gas at 270C and 1 atmospheric
pressure. What is the equivalent weight of the metal?
a) 36 b) 45 c) 90 d) 180
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
23. Identify a conjugate pair from the equilibrium provided:
PO43- + HCO3- ⇌ HPO42- + CO32-
2-
a) CO3 and HPO42- c) PO43- and HPO42-
3- -
b) PO4 and HCO3 d) HCO3- and HPO42-
24. Calculate the pH that results when the following solutions are
mixed: 35 ml of 0.20 M formic acid, 55 ml of 0.10 M sodium
formate, 110 ml of water
a) 4.58 b) 3.64 c) 3.39 d) 3.11

30. A solution of 2.0 g of (+)-glyceraldehyde in 10.0 mL of water

was placed in a 100-mm polarimeter tube. Using the sodium D
line, a rotation of 1.74o was observed at 25oC. (+)-
glyceraldehyde was then mixed with some quantity of (-)-
glyceraldehyde and the resulting mixture had a specific
rotation of +6.9o. What percentage of the mixture was (-)-
25. A solution is known to contain NaOH, Na2CO3, or NaHCO3, or glyceraldehyde?
possible compatible mixture of these, together with inert a) 8.7% b) 10.35% c) 20.69% d) 79.31%
components. Using phenolphthalein and methyl orange as 31. Stray light hitting the detector will produce erroneous results
indicators, 35.5 mL and 50.1 mL of HCl respectively, are when the absorbance of a solution is measured. Calculate the
required to reach the endpoint for a 1000-g sample. What is apparent absorbance of a solution if the measured absorbance
is 0.850 and 2.50% stray light has entered the system.
ChE 525: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES MOCK BOARD 3
a) 0.790 b) 0.712 c) 0.210 d) 0.151
32. The KClO3 in a 127.9 mg sample of an explosive was
determined by the reaction with 50 mL of 0.0893 M FeSO4
resulting to its reduction to Cl-. When the reaction was
complete, it was then treated with 10.735 mL of 0.02326 M
KMnO4. Calculate the % KClO3 in the sample.
a) 21.06% b) 38.94% c) 51.37% d) 67.32%
33. A 25 gram sample of oils is dissolved in 50 ml of ethyl alcohol.
The sample was titrated with 12 ml of 0.08M KOH using
phenolphthalein indicator. Find the acid number.
a) 4.80 b) 4.30 c) 2.15 d) 1.89

35. The Ka of an unknown acid HA was determined to be 1.0x10-5.

What is the pH of a 0.20M solution of HA?
a) 11.15 b) 8.30 c) 5.70 d) 2.85

34. One hundred ml of river water sample is analyzed for its

chloride content. If the sample required 5.10 ml of 0.0100M
AgNO3 for titration, what is the ppm Cl in the sample?
a) 1.18 b) 3.61 c) 18.08 d) 36.16

36. How many grams of solid KF should be added to 1 liter of

0.25M HF to make a buffer pH = 3.134?
(Ka for HF = 7.2 x 10-4)
a) 5.27 g b) 6.95 g c) 10.2 g d) 14.5 g
ChE 525: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES MOCK BOARD 3
45. Which of the following statements regarding the third law of
thermodynamics is incorrect?
a) The absolute S is zero at 0 K
b) Pure substances have positive absolute S at T0 K
c) Absolute zero gives a reference point for determining
absolute S
d) The absolute S at 298 K can be positive or negative
46. The critical point for a mixture occurs for which of the
following cases?
a) The vapor and liquid have a single form
b) The liquid has no absorbed gas
c) The vapor phase is stable
d) The liquid is completely vaporized
47. It is the excess energy that reactants must have, to form the
transition state for a reaction.
a) Potential energy c) Activation energy
b) Gibbs free energy d) Ionization energy
48. At a certain temperature, 2.00-L sample of O2 was collected
over water at a total pressure of 785 torr. When the O2 was
dried, the gas had a volume of 1.94 L at 785 torr while
temperature was kept constant. Calculate the vapor pressure
of water at this temperature.
a) 20 torr b) 22 torr c) 24 torr d) 26 torr
49. Suppose that the gas phase reactions A  B and B  A
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING are both elementary processes with rate constants of 0.038s-1
37. May be used to measure the assimilative capacity of a stream and 0.32s-1 respectively. Assuming the temperature is held
a) COD b) BOD c) ThOD d) TOC constant, all of the following are true statements for the
38. It is the recommended maximum amount of total dissolved equilibrium A (g)  B (g) except
solids (in ppm) in drinking water. a) PB < PA b) Kc = Kp c) [A] > [B] d) PB = PA
a) 5000 b) 2860 c) 1500 d) 500 50. At a specified temperature, a solution of eugenol, C10H12O2, if
39. An indication of age of sewage. ethanol has a freezing point of -116.58oC and a vapor pressure
a) turbidity b) color c) BOD d) pH of 41.50 torr. If pure ethanol has a freezing point of -114.6oC
40. Green house gases blanket/block the infrared radiation from and a Kf of 1.20oC/m, what would its vapor pressure (torr) be
earth's surface to the atmosphere leading to its progressive at the specified temperature?
warming up. Which of the following gases does not exhibit a) 40.6 b) 44.6 c) 46.4 d) 48.6
green house effect? 51. Measured at the same conditions, 5.0 L of NH3 is reacted with
a) CO2 b) H2 c) SO3 d) N2 5.0 L Cl2 in a closed container. Calculate the ratio of pressures
41. Refrigerators and TVs are considered as in the container (Pfinal : Pinitial).
a) garbage b) rubbish c) trash d) special waste NH3 (g) + Cl2 (g)  N2 (g) + HCl (g)
42. The water sample from a sewage plant had a 20-day BOD of a) 3 : 4 b) 4 : 3 c) 1 : 1 d) 3 : 2
400 mg/L at 200C. What was the expected 5-day demand? 52. An Oswald viscometer was calibrated using water at 250C
a) 404 ppm b) 304 ppm c) 276 ppm d) 196 ppm (=8.9 x 10-4 Pa-s and density = 1 x 103 kg/m3). The same
43. Based from the preceding problem, if the sample had been viscometer was used at -1930C to determine the viscosity (in
incubated at 15oC, what would the 20-day demand have been Pa-s) of liquid air (density = 0.92 x 103 kg/m3). Assuming that
a) 318 mg/L b) 334 mg/L c) 369 mg/L d) 381 mg/L the time ratio of water to liquid air is 0.193 and neglecting
44. Based from the preceding problem, if the water were polluted volume changes, find the abovementioned quantity.
o
and had an ultimate BOD of 431 mg/L between 20-30 C, what a) 4.30 x10-3 b) 2.15 x10-3 c) 1.6 x10-7 d) no ans
exactly was the temperature in which the sample might have 53. Five kilograms of Ice at -10°C is heated to melt it into water;
been incubated? then additional heat is added to vaporize the water into
o
a) 21 C b) 25 C o
c) 27 Co
d) 29 C o steam. The saturated vapors exit at 100°C. Specific heat of
ice is 2.05 KJ/kg-K. specific heat of water is 4.182 Kj/kg-K.
What is the latent heat of fusion of ice at 0°C?
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY a) 333.2 kJ/kg c) 3568.2 kJ/kg
b) 1325.1 kJ/kg d) no answer
ChE 525: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES MOCK BOARD 3
54. Based from the preceding problem, what is the latent heat of immersed into water at 270C. The water in the calorimeter
vaporization (kJ/kg) of water at 100°C? weighs 100 g and the inner aluminium cap weighs 50 g. If the
a) 369.5 b) 2257.06 c) 5689.3 d) no answer final temperature is 300C, what is the specific heat of copper
55. Based from the preceding problem, the total latent heat (in in cal/g-0C, specific heat of aluminium is 0.22 cal/g-0C?
kJ) for this process is a) 0.88 b) 0.66 c) 0.077 d) 0.095
a) 12951.3 b) 2590.26 c) 365.36 d) no answer 63. Two adiabatic tanks contain air at different temperatures and
56. Based from the preceding problem, the total sensible heat pressures and are connected by a valve. Tank A holds 3 ft3 of
(kJ) for this process is air at 5000R and 100 psia and tank B holds 2 lbm of air at
a) 3698.5 b) 2193.5 c) 325.3 d) no answer 7500R and 50 psia. The valve is opened and the pressure and
57. Based from the preceding problem, the total change in temperature reach equilibrium values. What are these values?
enthalpy (kJ) is a) 638.10R, 60.7 psia c) 323.50R, 45.6 psia
a) 965.2 b) 3269.2 c) 15144.8 d) no answer 0
b) 568.5 R, 56.6 psia d) 458.20R, 53.3 psia
58. Ethyl alcohol is to be used in an automobile carburetor that is
adjusted to give a 9 to 10 air-fuel ratio (mass ratio). If the
temperature in the manifold is 600F and the pressure is
atmospheric, what percentage of the alcohol will be
evaporated assuming the equilibrium between vapor and liquid
is reached?
a) 55% b) 65% c) 75% d) 90%
59. If a 2 kg of liquid water at 363K are mixed adiabatically and
at constant pressure with 3 kg of liquid water at 283K, the
final temperature of the mixture will be
a) 283K b) 308K c) 315K d) 331K

60. A liquid is observed to boil at 120°C under a pressure of 725

mmHg. Its heat of vaporization is 8200 cal/mol. Calculate the
normal boiling point of the liquid.
a) 98°C b) 100°C c) 118°C d) no answer
61. A 5 amp current is passing for 3 hours and 30 minutes
through this electrolytic cell in which iron metal is deposited
on the cathode. If the efficiency of the process is 68%, how
many grams of iron are deposited?
a) 1.66 b) 2.44 c) 8.26 d) 12.19

(𝐶𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡)(𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒)(𝑀𝑊)(𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒)
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 =
(𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑒 − )(𝐹𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑎𝑦 ′ 𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡)
𝐶 3600 𝑠 𝑔
(5 ) (3.5 ℎ) ( ) (55.847 ) (1 𝑚𝑜𝑙)
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝐹𝑒 = [ 𝑠 1ℎ 𝑚𝑜𝑙 ] (0.68)
𝐶𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑜𝑚𝑏
(3 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑒 − ) (96500 )
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑒 −
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝐹𝑒 = 8.2642 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠
62. In an experiment to determine the specific heat of copper, a
piece of copper weighing 50 g is heated to 1000C in steam,then
ChE 525: PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES MOCK BOARD 3
c) DNA is a double stranded while RNA is a single-stranded
molecule.
d) The base thymine found in DNA is replaced by uracil in
RNA.
67. Which organ is especially sensitive to a vitamin deficiency?
a) skin b) liver c) heart d) lungs
68. Histidine, an essential α-amino acid present in our body can
transform into histamine under enzymatic activity of histidine
decarboxylase. When the reaction velocity is 2.6 mM/s, 1.67
mM of histamine is formed. Assuming 15 mM of the
decarboxylase (Kcat = 30 s-1) is used, determine the Michaelis-
Menten constant KM.
a) 0.19 M b) 0.29 M c) 0.39 M d) 0.49 M
69. A competitve inhibitor of an enzyme is usually
a) structurally similar to the substrate
b) water insoluble
c) a metal ion such as Hg2+ or Pb2+
d) a highly reactive compound
70. Given an enzyme with a KM = 10 mM and Vmax = 100 mmol/min. if
64. Assume the following, the ionization potential of C3 = 3.89 eV, [S] = 100 mM, which of the following will be true?
h = 6.63 x 10-34/sec and C3 metal is sensitive to real light of a) A 10 fold increase in Vmax would increase velocity 10 fold
700 nm. What number of electrons that can be removed from b) A 10 fold decrease in KM would increase velocity
metallic cesium with the energy required to remove one c) A 10 fold increase in Vmax would decrease velocity 20 fold
electron from an isolated cesium atom d) Both a and b
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 13 71. Which of the following statement is not true?
a) Enzymes are proteins that bind to specific substrates
and increase the velocity of reactions involving
substrates
b) Enzymes make thermodynamically favorable reactions to
proceed; they cannot make unfavorable reactions to
occur
c) Enzymes function by overcoming the activation energy
barrier of a reaction
d) Enzymes only function when they are intact cells
72. Causes food poisoning in canned goods
a) Bacillus anthracis c) E.coli
b) Yersinio pestis d) Clostridium botulinum
73. A lab technician may prevent a blood sample from clotting by
adding a compound that prevents from entering the
BIOCHEMICAL ENGINEERING clotting process.
65. Which of the following is NOT true about enzyme reactions? a) potassium citrate c) sodium ion
a) Enzymes are sensitive or unstable molecules and require b) Vitamin K d) calcium ion
care in their use. 74. Which chemical test is used to detect the presence of amino
b) The reaction conditions for the enzyme reactions are acids and proteins?
very mild.
a) Benedict’s Test c) Molisch Test
c) An enzyme catalyst is highly specific, and catalyzes only
one or a small number of chemical reactions. b) Biuret Test d) Ninhydrin Test
d) The rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is usually much 75. If a reaction occurs in the absence of inhibitor with rate ν0
slower than that of the same reaction when directed by and in the presence of inhibitor with rate νi, the degree of
nonbiological catalyst. inhibition is defined as
66. The following statements about RNA and DNA are true a) (ν0 - νi)/ν0 b) (ν0 + νi)/ν0 c) (ν0νi)/ν0 d) (ν0-νi)/νi
except 76.
a) Ribose is the sugar unit in the backbone of RNA; while it
is deoxyribose in DNA
b) RNA molecules are much larger than DNA molecules.